Flight Topics Flashcards

1
Q

4 relative contraindications for flight

A

severe anemia
pregnancy beyond 24wga
uncontrolled arrythmia
weight/space confines

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2
Q

sea level barometric pressure

A

760 torr or 1 atmosphere

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3
Q

pressure at 10K ft

A

523 torr

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4
Q

pressure at 18K ft

A

380 torr or 1/2 atmosphere

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5
Q

4 altitude zones

A

physiologic zone
physiologically deficient zone 10-50K
space equivalent zone over 50K

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6
Q

how can you tell if your plane is experiencing rapid decompression

A

cooler temperatures in the cabin & window fogging

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7
Q

plane has window fogging

A

rapid decompression

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8
Q

what happens to TUC if rapid decompression

A

rapid decompression (cold & window fogging) cuts TUC in half

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9
Q

Boyle’s law

A

pressure & volume

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10
Q

what type of trauma shoudl not fly b/c of Boyle’s law

A

open/decompressed skull fracture

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11
Q

Charles’ law

A

volume & temp

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12
Q

volume & temp

A

Charle’s law

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13
Q

how do you use Charle’s law

A

explains how well an aircraft performs depends on weather

*ideal flying conditions are a dry cold day

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14
Q

ideal flying day

A

dry and cold

b/c Charles’ law

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15
Q

effect of Dalton’s law

A

soft tissue swelling at altitude

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16
Q

Fick’s law

A

diffusion of gas is proportional to the difference in partial pressure & the area of the membrane
*inversely proprotional to the thickness of athe menmbrane

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17
Q

law regarding gas diffusion

A

Fick’s law

*propportional to partial pressure, area of the the membrane and inversely to the thickness of the membrane

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18
Q

law that explains gas diffusion across the alveoli

A

FIck’s law

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19
Q

how to remember what Henry’s law does

A

Henry = Heiniken

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20
Q

Henry’s law

A

solubility of gas in a liquid* quantity of gas dissolved in 1ml is proprotional to the partial pressure of gas above it

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21
Q

law tht explains the bends

A

Henry’s law
solubility of gas in a liquid is the amount of gas that dissolves is proprotional to the partial pressure of the gas above it

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22
Q

solubility of a gas in a liquid is proprotional to the partial pressure of the gas above it

A

Henry’s Law

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23
Q

what happens in the bends

A

compressed nitrogen molecules allows it to dissociate from adipose tissue

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24
Q

ATM and feet below the surface

A
Q33 ft = 1 atm
"martini rule"
ATM above surface
1 ATM  at sea level
1/2 ATM at 18K ft
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25
Q

Gay Lussac’s law

A

temp & pressure

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26
Q

temp & pressure

A

Gay Lussac’s Law

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27
Q

oxygen cylinder and gas law

A

temperature drop means lower oxygen reading

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28
Q

what gas law explains why you have to add air to your tires in windter

A

cold temp so lower pressure

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29
Q

Ideal Gas Law

A

Boyle + Charles + G-L

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30
Q

Graham’s Law

A

law of gasseous diffusion
gas exchange at the cellular level
*the rate of diffusion of a gas through a liquid medium is directly related to the solubiliyt of hte gas and is inversly proportional to the square root of its density

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31
Q

what law limits gas ability to move through a liquid

A

Graham’s law

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32
Q

best weather for flying

A

air expands when hot

best lift is in cold dry air

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33
Q

partial pressure as altitude increases

A

Dalton’s = partial pressure decreases even though the % of gas is uniform

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34
Q

action of Fick’s Law

A

increase partial pressure = increased oxygen

SO….add Fi/O2, partial pressure and surface area incease

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35
Q

Diving adds pressure when surfacing nitrogen comes out of a solution

A

Henry’s Law

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36
Q

increased pressure = increased gas solubility

A

Henry’s Law

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37
Q

decreased pressure = decreased temperature

A

G-L law

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38
Q

increased diffusion = decreased molecular weight

A

Graham’s law

lower molecular weight can diffuse easier (CO2)

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39
Q

total pressure = P1 + P2…

A

Dalton’s law

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40
Q

oxygen adjustment calculation for flight

A

FiO2 x P1
divided by P2 = FiO2 needed for flight

P1 = pressure you are at (ground)
P2 = pressure you are flying to/crusing altitude
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41
Q

when does teeth pain occur when flying

A

barodontalgia on ascent

air trapped in fillings expans

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42
Q

when do ears hurt when flying

A

descent

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43
Q

what causes barotitis

A

ear pain

air trapped in the middle ear can’t get through the blocked eusachian tube

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44
Q

when do you experience barosinusitis

A

both ascent and escent

referred maxillary pain

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45
Q

cutis marmorata

A

mottled skin that looks like a sunburn

in skin bends

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46
Q

pt feels ants on their skin

A

skin bends. nitrogen bends

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47
Q

transprot a diving injury

A

ground

if air, pressurize flixed wing or 1ooo

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48
Q

barbariotrauma

A

sudden release of nitrogen stored in lipids when going to altitude

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49
Q

treat bariobariotrauma

A

nitrogen washout w/10L/min nonrebreather for 15 min prior to flight

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50
Q

pressure 66ft under water

A

2 ATM

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51
Q

pressure 33 ft under water

A

1 ATM

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52
Q

pressure increase underwater

A

1 ATM per 33 ft

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53
Q

4 types of hypoxia

A

hypoxic - not enought oxygen in air (partial pressure)
stagnant- blood sin’t moving
hypemic -anemia
histotoxic- hypoxia at cellular level

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54
Q

causes of stagnant anemia

A

high G forces

cardiogenic shock

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55
Q

anemia of high G force

A

stagnant anemia

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56
Q

anemia of cardiogenic shock

A

stagnant anemia

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57
Q

anemia of hemorrhage

A

hypemic - hypoxia at blood level

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58
Q

difference between hypoxic & hypemic anemia

A
hypoxic = not enough oxygen r/t partial pressure
hypemic = hypoxia at blood level b/c reduction in O2 carrying capacity
59
Q

causes of histotoxic anemia

A

poisioning hypoxia at the cellular level

*cyanide, alcohol, nitroglycerine, nitroprusside, viagra

60
Q

4 stages of hypoxia

A

indifferent
compensatoryt
disturbance
critical

61
Q

compensatory statge of hypoxia

A

stage 2. of hypoxia

increased HR, ventilations, slowed judgement

62
Q

distrubance stage of hypoxia

A

stage 3 of hypoxia
slurred speech. impaired judgement
drunk

63
Q

SE of G-force

A

G force causes BP to drop

stagnant anemia

64
Q

2 types of people who are the most affected by high G forces

A

dehydrated

BP meds like BB

65
Q

COBRA

A

consolidated omnibus budget reconcillation act

66
Q

what does COBRA do

A

protects uninsuraed pt from being denied hospital care or transferred inappropriately for inability to pay

67
Q

EMTALA

A

Emergency Medical Treatment & Active Labor Act

68
Q

rule under EMTALA

A

250 yd rule

  • if someone is injured within 250 years of the hospital, treat them
  • ambulance may meet on a campus w/o triggering EMTALA unless ambulance crew needs assistance
69
Q

accreditation for medical transport

A

CAMTS

70
Q

flight check-ins

A

q15min in air, 45 on ground

miss 2 checkins, lauch Emergency Action Plan/SAR team

71
Q

when do air traffic controllers activate the Emergency Action Plan

A

after 2 of the q15 missed checkins

search and rescue team

72
Q

rotor/fixed wing pilot rules

A

2K hrs total flight
at least 1K they must be the pilot in charge
100 as pilot in charge at night

73
Q

area orientation for helicopter pilots before solo missions

A

5hrs total with 2 at night

74
Q

general operating and flight rules

A

FAR Part 91

75
Q

Part 91

A

general operating /flight rules

everyone rules

76
Q

weather minimums under Part 91

A

no weather minimums

77
Q

duty day length minimums udner Part 91

A

no set time for how long the pilot may fly

78
Q

PArt 91 rule about alcohol

A

Part 91.17

cannot fly within 8hr of alcohol or if still drunk, or BAC over 0.04%

79
Q

time after alcohol when you can fly

A

8hrs post per Part 91 if not drunk

80
Q

BAC when you can fly

A

must be under 0.04% and cannot have had a drink within 8hr

81
Q

rules for flying passengers for money

A

Part 135

82
Q

Part 135

A

flying passengers for money

83
Q

max duty day under Part 135

A

max 14hrs

no more than 8hrs of flying time within 24hrs

84
Q

altitude in day if local & no mountains

A

altitude 800ft - 2 miles

85
Q

altitude in night if local and mountainous

A

altitude 800-3 miles

86
Q

altitude if cross-country, day, and no mountains

A

800-3 miles

87
Q

altitude if nigth, cross country, and mountains

A

800-3 miles

88
Q

altitude if day, local, and mountains

A

800-3 miles

89
Q

altitude if day, cross country, and mountains

A

1000-3 miles

90
Q

altitude if night, local, and mountainous

A

1000-3 miles

91
Q

altitude if night, cross contry, and mountainous

A

1000-5miles

92
Q

accepting weather risks

A

marginal weather, accept risk

below minimums, do not fly

93
Q

you can only fly in weather conditions where you can see where you are flying

A

Visual FLight Rules

94
Q

VFR

A

Visual Flight RUles.

you can see where you are flying w/o instruments

95
Q

flying w/o instruments

A

VIsual Flight RUles

96
Q

flying with instruments b/c of bad weather

A

INstrument FLight Rules becasue of Instrument Meterological COnditions

97
Q

piloting under VFR but flying into unexpected bad weather where instruments are needed

A

Double IMC

Inadvertent Instrument MEterological COnditions

98
Q

transponder code 1200

A

Visual FLiht RUles

99
Q

transponder code for Visual FLight Rules

A

1200

100
Q

transponder code for gliders

A

1202

101
Q

transponder code 1202

A

gliders

102
Q

transponder codes for hijack

A

7500

103
Q

transponder code 7500

A

hijack

104
Q

transponder code for communication failure

A

7600

105
Q

transponder code 7600

A

communication failure

106
Q

transponder code for emergency

A

7700

107
Q

transponder code 7700

A

emergency

108
Q

transponder code for military intercept

A

7777

109
Q

transponder code 7777

A

military intercept

110
Q

HLZ

A

qhasty landing zone
100x100
1 approach & departure heading
2 passes required before landing. one high and one low

111
Q

helicopter passes the same area twice - once at high altitude and once low

A

looking to land in a HLZ = hasty landing zone

112
Q

approach helicopter

A

11 or 1 o’clock

downhill

113
Q

helicopter landing in HAZMAT zone

A

uphill & upwind

114
Q

patient cross straps

A

3 = chest, hips, knees

115
Q

3 types of in-flight emergencies

A

land immeidately
land asap (chip light, low transmission pressure)
land as soon as practicle

116
Q

rotary wings rotate w/o engine

A

autorotation

117
Q

regular powered flight versus autorotation

A

normal - air drawn through the rotors to create lift

autorotation- air moves up from below as the ‘copter descends

118
Q

feet positioning if crash landing

A

knees together, feet 6in apart flat

lets underneath the seat will get broken

119
Q

pre-crash sequence

A

patient flat
turn off oxygen
crash position

120
Q

post crash sequence

A

turn off order: TFB
throttle
fuel
battery

121
Q

post crash shutoff sequence

A

TFB
throttle
fuel
battery

122
Q

priorities after crash landing

A

shelter
fire
water
signal

123
Q

ELT = emergency locator transmitter activates

A

at 4g’s

124
Q

transmit frequency of ELT - emergency locator transmitter

A

121.5 MHz

upgraded transmitted frequency is 406 per FAA 135

125
Q

search & rescue

A

CONUS = civil air patrol

over US waters = coast guard

126
Q

radio frequency that is blocked by hills/mt

A

VHF

127
Q

emergency frequency

A

121.5MHz

128
Q

distance of VHF

A

long range line of sigt 100km

129
Q

air traffic control frequency

A

118-137 VHF

130
Q

range of Ultra High Frequeny

A

300MHz to 1GH

131
Q

short range radio frequency

A

UHF

300MHz to 1GHz

132
Q

limits of UHF

A

800MHz to 1GHz
blocked by hills/large buildings
limited by visual horizon to 30-40miles
can penetrate foliage/buildings for indoor reeption

133
Q

800 MHz

A

public safety radio system

134
Q

lights on aircraft wings

A

red is port
green is starboard
white is tail

135
Q

ambient temperature of an ambulance

A

68-78 degrees

136
Q

fuel capacity of a ground ambulance

A

178mile tarange

137
Q

ground clearance of an ambulance when full

A

6 inches ground learnece

138
Q

audible siren

A

audible under normal condituions of >500ft

139
Q

visual light

A

strobe light visualized >500ft

140
Q

distance that you shoule be able to hear siren and see light

A

> 500ft

141
Q

how frequently to check fluid of ambulance

A

twice a week

142
Q

how frequently to check pressure of ambulance

A

twice a week

143
Q

daily checks of ambulance

A

damages & equipment failur