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AA787 > Flight Controls > Flashcards

Flight Controls Flashcards

1
Q

In the Normal flight control mode in-flight, pushing both pitch trim switches, either on the control wheel or the alternate pitch trim switches, directly moves the stabilizer.
- True
- False

A

False

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2
Q

Flight control surface actuators are controlled by the…
- Primary Flight Computers (PFCs).
- Permanent Magnet Generators (PMGs).
- Actuator Control Electronics (ACEs).
- Permanent Magnet Alternators (PMAs).

A

Actuator Control Electronics (ACEs).

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3
Q

The three primary flight control modes are…
- normal, secondary and direct.
- primary, secondary and alternate.
- normal, alternate and direct.
- primary, reversion and backup.

A

normal, secondary and direct.

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4
Q

In the normal flight control mode with the autopilot not engaged, pilot control inputs are sent directly to the…
- Permanent Magnet Generators (PMGs).
- Primary Flight Computers (PFCs).
- Actuator Control Electronics (ACEs).
- Power Control Units (PCUs).

A

Actuator Control Electronics (ACEs).

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5
Q

When the autopilot is engaged, the autopilot system sends control surface commands to the…
- Actuator Control Electronics (ACEs).
- Permanent Magnet Alternators (PMAs).
- Power Control Units (PCUs).
- Primary Flight Computers (PFCs).

A

Primary Flight Computers (PFCs).

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6
Q

The stabilizer is moved using…
- center system hydraulics.
- left system hydraulics.
- 28 Vdc bus power.
- L2 and R2 AC buses.

A

L2 and R2 AC buses.

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7
Q

Stabilizer position is displayed on EICAS and on the flight control (FCTL) synoptic. When the FCTL synoptic is displayed, the indication is constantly displayed.
- True
- False

A

True

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8
Q

The stabilizer green band monitor is part of the crew alerting function and helps confirm that the green band displayed on the stabilizer position indicator is correct for the actual takeoff weight and CG based on the gross weight and CG entries in the…
- TCP.
- FMC.
- MCP.
- EFB.

A

FMC

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9
Q

The primary pitch trim switches on each control wheel are inhibited when the autopilot is engaged.
- True
- False

A

True

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10
Q

Wheel to rudder cross-tie function reduces maximum sideslip and vertical fin loads. This function is only available in…
- normal and secondary modes.
- secondary and direct modes.
- secondary mode.
- normal and direct modes.

A

secondary and direct modes.

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11
Q

There are _____ slats on each wing.
- 4
- 5
- 6
- 3

A

6

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12
Q

There are three modes of flap and slat operation. They are…
- normal, secondary and direct.
- primary, direct and secondary.
- primary, alternate and direct.
- primary, secondary and alternate.

A

primary, secondary and alternate.

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13
Q

The flap load relief system protects the flaps from excessive air loads. Flap load relief is only available in the…
- primary mode.
- direct mode.
- secondary mode.
- alternate mode.

A

primary mode.

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14
Q

The primary flight control system is highly redundant, with three operating modes. The three operating modes are:
- Normal, Secondary, and Direct mode.
- Normal, Secondary, and Standby mode.
- Normal, Standby, and Alternate mode.
- Primary, Secondary, and Alternate mode.

A

Normal, Secondary, and Direct mode.

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15
Q

With the autopilot engaged and the flight control system in normal mode, Mode Control Panel (MCP) inputs are sent from the MCP to the…
- Actuator Control Electronics (ACE) to Primary Flight Computers (PFC) then to the control surfaces.
- Actuator Control Electronics (ACE) then to the control surfaces
- autopilots, then to Primary Flight Computers (PFC), to Actuator Control Electronics (ACE), and finally to the control surfaces.
- autopilots to Actuator Control Electronics (ACE) then to the control surfaces.

A

autopilots, then to Primary Flight Computers (PFC), to Actuator Control Electronics (ACE), and finally to the control surfaces.

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16
Q

With the flight control system in the direct mode, pilot control inputs are sent to the…
- Primary Flight Computers (PFC) then to the control surfaces.
- Actuator Control Electronics (ACE) then to the control surfaces.
- control surfaces directly.
- Primary Flight Computers (PFC) to the Actuator Control Electronics (ACE) then to the control surfaces.

A

Actuator Control Electronics (ACE) then to the control surfaces.

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17
Q

When the flight control system is in the direct mode of operation, aircraft handling qualities are almost the same as the…
- secondary mode.
- normal mode.
- reversion mode.
- primary mode.

A

secondary mode.

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18
Q

Pitch compensation is provided by the Primary Flight Computers in normal mode only. For turns up to ____ of bank, the pilot does not need to add additional column back pressure to maintain altitude.
- 15°
- 25°
- 40°
- 30°

A

30°

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19
Q

During takeoff or landing, the _____ calculate(s) if a tail strike is imminent and decrease elevator deflection, if required to reduce the potential for tail contact with the ground.
- Actuator Control Electronics (ACE)
- Primary Flight Computers (PFCs)
- Flight Management Computer (FMC)
- Attitude Heading Reference Unit (AHRU)

A

Primary Flight Computers (PFCs)

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20
Q

If uncommanded stabilizer motion is sensed, the stabilizer channel that caused the motion is automatically…
- commanded to direct mode of operations.
- depressurized.
- shut down.
- energized.

A

shut down.

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21
Q

The stabilizer position indicator is displayed on the ground at power-up and blanks…
- when the gear is up for 10 seconds.
- 60 seconds after liftoff.
- when either of the above conditions are satisfied.
- never. The stabilizer position indicator is always displayed.

A

when either of the above conditions are satisfied.

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22
Q

The bank angle indicator on the PFD changes color to amber at bank angles exceeding…
- 30°.
- 40°.
- 35°.
- 50°.

A

35°.

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23
Q

In normal mode, on the ground above ____ knots groundspeed, the flight control system attempts to maintain a yaw rate near zero by commanding rudder to counter the majority of the yawing moment due to an engine failure.
- 60
- 75
- 70
- 80

A

60

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24
Q

Wheel to rudder cross-tie functions to reduce maximum sideslip and vertical fin loads in which flight control modes?
- Normal and secondary
- Normal and reversion
- Normal and primary
- Secondary and direct

A

Secondary and direct

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25
Q

Automatic rudder trim is provided in the normal flight control mode. Manual rudder trim operation is available…
- only in normal mode.
- only in secondary mode.
- in normal, secondary and direct modes.
- only in direct mode.

A

in normal, secondary and direct modes.

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26
Q

Manual rudder trim inputs are automatically zeroed out during takeoff roll when groundspeed exceeds…
- 75 knots.
- 80 knots.
- 100 knots.
- 30 knots.

A

30 knots.

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27
Q

When will the spoilers extend on landing with the speedbrake in the ARMED position?
- Nose gear compression and both thrust levers not in takeoff range.
- Main wheel spin-up and engines at idle thrust.
- Main wheel spin-up and flaps greater than 25.
- Main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers not in takeoff range.

A

Main gear trucks untilt and both thrust levers not in takeoff range.

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28
Q

The spoilers automatically retract when…
- on the ground, either thrust lever moved to takeoff range.
- on the ground, if there is a trnsition to in the air.
- in the air, either thrust lever is beyond 90% full travel.
- All of the above are correct.

A

All of the above are correct.

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29
Q

The Autodrag function operates by deflecting the ailerons downward and raising the two most outboard spoilers. It’s purpose is to assist in…
- glideslope/glidepath capture from above.
- slowing while on and ILS approach.
- capturing VNAV path during and RNAV departure.
- preventing flap overspeeds during a light-weight go-around.

A

glideslope/glidepath capture from above.

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30
Q

To protect against inadvertent deployment during cruise, flap and slat extension from the UP position is inhibited when speed is more than 260 KIAS or altitude is above approximately 20,000 feet.
- True for alternate flap and slat mode only.
- False.
- True for primary and secondary flap and slat modes only.
- True for all flaps and slat modes.

A

True for primary and secondary flap and slat modes only.

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31
Q

Starting from flaps UP, selection of flaps 1 will move the…
- slats to the middle position. The flaps remain retracted.
- flaps to 1 and the slats to the middle position.
- flaps to 1. The slats remain retracted.
- slats to the fully extended position. The flaps remain retracted.

A

slats to the middle position. The flaps remain retracted.

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32
Q

Moving the flap handle from 20 to 25 will…
- command the slats to move to the fully extended position and flaps to 25.
- command the flaps to 25. The slats remain at the middle position.
- command the slats to move to the fully extended position. The flaps do not move.
- command the slats to retract and the flaps to move to the fully exteneded position.

A

command the slats to move to the fully extended position. The flaps do not move.

33
Q

The three modes of flap and slat operation are…
- normal mode, secondary mode, and direct mode.
- normal mode, secondary mode, and standby mode.
- normal mode, standby mode, and alternate mode.
- primary mode, secondary mode, and alternate mode.

A

primary mode, secondary mode, and alternate mode.

34
Q

If flap airspeed placard limits are exceeded with flaps in the 15 through 30 position, LOAD RELIEF (white) is displayed on the EICAS and flaps automatically retract to a safe position appropriate to airspeed. Flap load relief is available in the…
- primary mode.
- primary and secondary modes.
- direct mode.
- primary, secondary and alternate modes.

A

primary mode.

35
Q

If airspeed exceeds 225 KIAS (-8) or 240 KIAS (-9) with the slats fully extended, they retract to the middle position and LOAD RELIEF (white) is displayed on the EICAS. Slat load relief is available in the…
- primary, secondary and alternate modes.
- primary mode.
- secondary mode.
- alternate mode.

A

secondary mode.

36
Q

Autogap is only available in the primary mode when the slats are in the middle position and the airspeed is…
- above 250 KIAS on both -8 and -9 airplanes.
- below 225 KIAS (-8).
- below 240 KIAS (-9).
- Both 2 and 3.

A

Both 2 and 3.

37
Q

In the secondary flap mode, the system is too slow to respond to an autogap request, so a pregap function exists. The slats automatically move to the fully extended position from the middle position when…
- the slats are in the middle position and the airspeed is below 225 KIAS.
- the airspeed is below 250 KIAS.
- the flap lever is moved to the 1 position and airspeed is above 235 KIAS.
- the flap lever is not UP and airspeed is less than 225 KIAS (-8)/240 KIAS (-9).

A

the flap lever is not UP and airspeed is less than 225 KIAS (-8)/240 KIAS (-9).

38
Q

Cruise flaps is a function that improves the airplane’s cruise performance by symmetrically moving the flaps, ailerons, flaperons, and spoilers, varying the camber of the wings and thus reducing drag. Cruise flaps are…
- selected by moving the flap lever to the 1 position.
- selected by pushing the cruise flaps switch on the overhead panel.
- selected by moving the slat lever to the 1 position.
- only available in the normal mode.

A

only available in the normal mode.

39
Q

Cruise flaps are only available between 0.54 and 0.87 Mach,…
- in both the normal and secondary mode.
- in the normal mode below 25,000 feet.
- in the normal mode above 25,000 feet.
- in the secondary mode only.

A

in the normal mode above 25,000 feet.

40
Q

Flap positions indications are displayed on the primary EICAS display. This indication is no longer displayed…
- 10 seconds after all flaps and slats are up.
- above FL 180.
- when the gear is fully retracted.
- when the flap handle is move to up.

A

10 seconds after all flaps and slats are up.

41
Q

The FMC stabilizer takeoff setting displays the FMC calculated stablizer takeoff setting units of trim in magenta. When FMC data is not present or is invalid, the digital readout is not displayed.
- True
- False

A

True

42
Q

In the normal mode, primary and alternate pitch trim operates differently on the ground than in flight. In flight…
- the pitch trim switches do not position the stabilizer directly.
- the pitch trim switches make inputs to the Primary Flight Computers (PFCs) to change the trim reference speed.
- the PFCs automatically move the elevators to achieve the trim change, then moves the stabilizer to streamline the elevator.
- All of the above are correct.

A

All of the above are correct.

43
Q

Flap gates are provided at 1 and 20. The purpose of the flap 1 gate is to prevent…
- inadvertent extension of the slats.
- inadvertent retraction of the slats.
- the slats from extending to the full position.
- the slats from extending to the middle position.

A

inadvertent retraction of the slats.

44
Q

Flap gates are provided at 1 and 20. The purpose of the flap 20 gate is to prevent…
- inadvertent retraction of the slats past the go-around position.
- inadvertent retraction of the flaps past the go-around position.
- inadvertent extension of the flaps past 20 with the gear not down.
- the slats from extending to the full position.

A

inadvertent retraction of the flaps past the go-around position.

45
Q

Alternate mode flap and slat extension is limited to the slats _____________ and flaps ______.
- middle position, 30
- fully extended position, 20
- fully extended position, 30
- midrange position, 20

A

midrange position, 20

46
Q

The indication of a failed flight control surface or trim function on the flight control (FCTL) synoptic is a(n)…
- amber border with an X inside.
- white border with an amber X inside.
- cyan border with a white X inside.
- green border with an X inside.

A

amber border with an X inside.

47
Q

The ailerons are locked out at high speeds. What provides roll control when the ailerons are locked out?
- Spoilers and Krueger flaps
- Krueger flaps and flaperons
- Inboard ailerons and spoilers
- Spoilers and flaperons

A

Spoilers and flaperons

48
Q

The ailerons, spoilers, and flaperons droop with the trailing edge flaps to improve slow speed performance.
- True
- False

A

True

49
Q

The 787 has ___ spoilers per side.
- 8
- 7
- 5
- 6

A

7

50
Q

The FLIGHT CONTROL SURFACE lock switches on the overhead panel are used…
- during a flight control malfunction.
- during gusty wind conditions on the ground.
- during the preflight.
- by maintenance personnel.

A

by maintenance personnel.

51
Q

Roll control is provided by…
- flaperons, krueger flaps, and slats.
- slats and spoilers.
- krueger flaps, slats and spoilers.
- ailerons, flaperons and spoilers.

A

ailerons, flaperons and spoilers.

52
Q

What is the status of rudder trim on landing?
- Automatic rudder trim inputs remain. Manual rudder trim inputs are zeroed.
- Automatic and manual rudder trim inputs remain.
- Automatic rudder trim inputs are zeroed. Manual rudder trim inputs remain.
- Automatic and manual rudder trim inputs are zeroed.

A

Automatic and manual rudder trim inputs are zeroed.

53
Q

FLIGHT CONTROL MODE displayed on the EICAS indicates…
- the flight control system is operating in the secondary mode.
- the flaps primary mode is failed.
- the flaps are operating in secondary mode.
- the flight control system is operating in direct mode.

A

the flight control system is operating in the secondary mode.

54
Q

With the autopilot off, moving the the control wheel pitch trim switches in the normal flight control mode while airborne changes the trim reference speed.
- True
- False

A

True

55
Q

Regarding normal mode pitch control,…
- the control column input commands the Primary Flight Computers (PFCs) to generate a pitch maneuver where the rate is dependent on column displacement.
- the PFCs provide pitch compensation by utilizing control surface commands to minimize airplane pitch responses to thrust changes, configuration changes, turbulence and turns up to 30° of bank.
- as airspeed changes, the PFCs require the pilot to make control column inputs or trim changes to maintain a constant flight path.
- All of the above are correct.

A

All of the above are correct.

56
Q

What is used to validate the FMC calculated green band?
- Main gear truck tilt sensor data
- Main and nose-gear tire pressure data
- Information from main gear and nose gear oleo proximity switches
- Two nose gear pressure transducers.

A

Two nose gear pressure transducers.

57
Q

When will the spoilers automatically retract and the speed brake lever be driven foward?
- On the ground, when either thrust lever is moved to the takeoff range.
- On the ground, if there is a transition to the air.
- In the air, when either thrust lever is beyond 90% full travel.
- All of the above answers are correct.

A

All of the above answers are correct.

58
Q

When the PRIMARY FLIGHT COMPUTERS DISC light is illuminated (amber),…
- the primary flight computers are inoperative.
- the primary flight computers are disconnected either automatically or manually and the system is in the secondary mode.
- the primary flight computers are disconnected either automatically or manually and the system is in the direct mode.
- the primary flight computers are disconnected and are rebooting.

A

the primary flight computers are disconnected either automatically or manually and the system is in the direct mode.

59
Q

Flight control system secondary mode can be manually selected.
- True
- False

A

False

60
Q

The autopilot is available in…
- normal mode only.
- normal and secondary mode only.
- normal, secondary and direct modes.
- secondary Law only.

A

normal mode only.

61
Q

Flight Control System Direct Mode can be manually selected.
- True
- False

A

True

62
Q

Automatic speedbrakes are available in Secondary and Direct flight control modes.
- True
- False

A

False

63
Q

Autodrag is only available in the normal flight control mode.
- True
- False

A

True

64
Q

The flap lever moves during flap load relief operations.
- True
- False

A

False

65
Q

The primary flight control system is highly redundant, with three operating modes. These modes consist of:
- Normal mode, Secondary mode, and Standby mode
- Normal mode, Standby mode, and Alternate mode
- Normal mode, Secondary mode, and Direct mode
- Direct mode, Normal mode, and Standby mode

A

Normal mode, Secondary mode, and Direct mode

66
Q

The autopilot is available in…
- normal mode only.
- normal and secondary modes only.
- all operating modes.
- normal, secondary, and alternate modes.

A

normal mode only.

67
Q

During manual flight (pilot hand flying) the primary flight control system provides flight envelope protection, this protection consists of….
- bank angle protection
- overspeed protection
- stall protection
- All of the above.

A

All of the above.

68
Q

As indicated by the EICAS message and the associated Master Caution light together with an aural beeper, your aircraft’s Primary Flight Computers (PFC) have automatically reverted to secondary mode. Which of the following would cause the PFCs to revert to secondary mode?
- Insufficient inertial data.
- Insufficient air data.
- All slat and flap position data unavailable.
- All of the above.

A

All of the above.

69
Q

After silencing the aural alert beeper with the EICAS Caution message displayed, the secondary flight control mode can be selected manually.
(Image shows: Amber “[] FLIGHT CONTROL MODE” EICAS message)
- False
- True

A

False

70
Q

In Flight Control System Secondary Mode, the Primary Flight Computers (PFC) no longer generate control surface commands.
- True. Pilot inputs received by the Actuator Control Electronics (ACE) are sent directly to the control surface actuators.
- False. The PFCs use simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands.

A

False. The PFCs use simplified computations to generate flight control surface commands.

71
Q

With the Primary Flight Computers switch manually selected to DISC or Primary Flight Computers DISC light illuminated, the flight control system will be in the…
(Image shows: Amber EICAS “[] PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS” & “DISC” Illuminated on the Primary Flight Computers panel)
- direct mode.
- secondary mode.
- alternate mode.
- standby mode.

A

direct mode.

72
Q

As indicated, system faults automatically caused the fight control system to switch to direct mode. With these indications, … (Image shows: Amber EICAS “[] PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS” & “DISC” Illuminated on the Primary Flight Computers panel)
- one autopilot is operable.
- airplane handling qualities are the same as normal mode.
- yaw damping is the same as normal mode.
- the airplane handling qualities are almost the same as the secondary mode.

A

the airplane handling qualities are almost the same as the secondary mode.

73
Q

While flying in DIRECT mode, pilot inputs received by the Actuator Control Electronics are sent… (Image shows: Amber EICAS “[] PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS” & “DISC” Illuminated on the Primary Flight Computers panel)
- to the autopilots.
- to the PFCs.
- directly to the control surface actuators.
- to the Secondary Control Units (SCU).

A

directly to the control surface actuators.

74
Q

In flight, you are presented with the EICAS advisory message indicated. This indicates… (Image: Amber EICAS “[]STABILIZER R2”)
- the left stabilizer control path is failed. R2 stabilizer is the sole source of pitch trim.
- the R2 stabilizer channel has not automatically shutdown.
- the right stabilizer control path is failed.
- pitch trim is now available through the elevators.

A

the right stabilizer control path is failed.

75
Q

Prior to engine start, the above EICAS stabilizer trim position indications indicates that… (Image: STAB trim showing 14.0 out of the green band)
- the FMC stabilizer trim calculation is 14.00.
- stabilizer trim needs to be set at 14.00 for takeoff.
- the FMC stabilizer trim calculation is 10.25.
- FMC data has not yet been entered.

A

FMC data has not yet been entered.

76
Q

The stabilizer display indicates that… (Image: STAB trim showing white 14.0 out of the green band, magenta 10.25 above 14.0)
- FMC data has been entered.
- FMC data is unknown.
- FMC data is invalid.
- a valid signal from the main gear has been sent with gross weight and CG to the FMC.

A

FMC data has been entered.

77
Q

Pressing the Alternate Flaps Arm (ALTN FLAPS ARM) Switch will…
- disable primary and secondary flap/slat mode operation.
- arm the alternate flap selector.
- make asymmetry/skew and uncommanded motion protection, slat autogap, and flap/slat load relief unavailable.
- All of the above are correct.

A

All of the above are correct.

78
Q

This EICAS display in flight indicates that… (image magenta 15 for flaps)
- the slats and flaps are operating in the secondary mode.
- flap extension time will be normal.
- the slats and flaps are controlled separately by only electric motors.
- the flaps are limited to 25 by non-normal procedures.

A

the slats and flaps are operating in the secondary mode.

79
Q

With this indication,… (Image: Green flaps 20)
- the flaps are at 20 and the slats are in transit.
- the flaps are at 20 and the slats are in the middle position.
- the flaps are at 20 and the slats are fully extended.
- the flaps and slats are in transit to 20.

A

the flaps are at 20 and the slats are in the middle position.

AA787 (20 decks)

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