First opinion Flashcards

1
Q

Active immunity

A

exposure to an antigen which stimulates the production of antigen-specific antibody (humoral) and cellular immunity.

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2
Q

Duration of active immunity

A

Takes days or weeks to develop but may result in lifelong protection

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3
Q

Natural active immunity

A

Exposure to an antigen

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4
Q

Acquired active immunity

A

Exposure to a non-virulent antigen (vaccination)

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5
Q

Passive immunity

A

Providing IgG antibodies to protect against infection

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6
Q

Duration of passive immunity

A

It gives immediate, but short-lived protection—several weeks to 3 or 4 months.

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7
Q

Natural passive immunity

A

The transfer of maternal tetanus antibody (mainly IgG) via colostrum.

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8
Q

Acquired passive immunity

A

obtaining serum from immune individuals, concentrating pooled immunoglobulin fractions and then injecting it to protect a susceptible foal or horse. Examples: tetanus antitoxin, plasma transfusion.

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9
Q

What is the most common type of equine vaccine?

A

Inactivated pathogen

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10
Q

Inactived pathogen vaccine

A

Microorganisms treated in a way which inactivates their virulence but still stimulates the immune response

Safe, easily replicated and easy to prepare

Weak humoral and cellular responses - regular boosters required and adjuvant

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11
Q

Protein/subunit vaccines

A

Extracted and purified proteins naturally produced by pathogens.

Easy to prepare, non virulent

Weak inducers of cell mediated immunity, require multiple boosters and adjuvant

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12
Q

Toxoid vaccines

A

Toxoids of bacteria

Safe, efficacious, stimulates humoral immunity

Only useful where the bacterial toxin is the agent of pethogenicity - used for tetnus and botulism in horses

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13
Q

Recombinant DNA vaccines

A

Viruses/bacteria can be genetically engineered to serve as carriers or vectors for expression of foreign DNA

Good immune response generated due to replication, safe

Difficult to engineer

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14
Q

Adjuvant for vaccines

A

Poorly understood mechanism of action; enhance antigenic presentation, improve antigenic stability, immunomodulate.

Carbomers

Aluminium salts

Immune stimulating complexes

Cytokines

Bacterial derivatives

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15
Q

Influenza vaccine schedule (from jan 1st 24)

A

First vaccine, a second 21-60 days later, and a third or booster at 120 - 180 days. Subsequent vaccines are then annual or 6-monthly for horses competing under FEI regulations.

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16
Q

Which two subtypes of influenza causes disease in horses?

A

Two subtypes of influenza A viruses: H7N7 and H3N8, of the family Orthomyxoviridae

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17
Q

Which is the only influenza vaccine that complies with 2010-2014 OIE?

A

Proteq-flu

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18
Q

Clinical signs of tetanus

A

o Erect ears, stiff tail head, muscular spasm, “rocking horse” stance

o Prolapsed nictitating membrane

o Ataxia, difficulty in walking

o Sweating, pyrexia

o Death through respiratory paralysis

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19
Q

What type of vaccine is the tetanus vaccine?

A

Purified tetanus toxoid

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20
Q

Vaccine protocol for tetanus

A

Varies between products

Primary course is 2 injections 4-6 weeks apart (from 3-6 months old)

Boosters repeated every 2-3 years

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21
Q

Which are the most important EHV viruses in horses?

A

EHV-1 and EHV-4

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22
Q

Clinical signs of EHV

A

predominantly respiratory signs, but also neurological symptoms and abortion

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23
Q

When is abortion caused by EHV most likely seen?

A

Third trimester

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24
Q

What kind of vaccine is used for EHV?

A

Inactivated - does not prevent disease but reduces severity

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25
Q

Which form of disease caused by EHV does the vaccine not protect against?

A

Neurological form

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26
Q

Which is the only EHV vaccine licensed in the UK?

A

Equip EHV 1,4 (zoetis)

Inactivated vaccine with carbomer adjuvant

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27
Q

Protocol of the Equip EHV 1,4 vaccine

A

Two initial doses 4-6 weeks apart then 6 monthly boosters. Suitable in foals from 5 months age

Use in pregnant mares to decrease abortion and reduce the risk of neonatal death is at 5,7 and 9 months gestation

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28
Q

Clinical signs of strangles

A

Highly contagious respiratory infection with widespread side effects including systemic abscessation and purpura haemorrhagica.

Respiratory signs are what give the disease its name, due to lymphadenomegaly impeding airways.

Common signs include profuse purulent nasal discharge, pyrexia and lymphadenopathy.

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29
Q

Vaccine for strangles

A

Live modified deletion mutant strain

Intramucosal vaccine into upper lip; minor local reaction (warmth, swelling, pustules) at the injection site is common. Occasional mild lymph node reactions may be seen, or in rare cases, even abscessation.

Poor efficacy, not protective in the face of an outbreak, hence not commonly used.

Two initial doses 4 weeks apart followed by boosters every 3-6 months depending on anticipated risk

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30
Q

Transmission of EVA

A

Infection transmitted through nasal secretions or semen.

Stallions can become persistent carriers with potential for life long viral shedding through semen.

Mares infected in late pregnancy can produce foals with potentially fatal interstitial pneumonia.

31
Q

Clinical signs of EVA

A

non-specific:
o Mild respiratory disease
o Conjunctivitis
o Skin rash
o Oedema of scrotum and other dependent areas
o Abortion (3-10 months)

32
Q

Equip artervac vaccine for EVA

A

Adjuvanted inactivated vaccine

Should not be used in pregnant mares

Primary vaccination can begin from 9 months of age (2 doses 3-6 weeks apart).

Booster vaccinations every 6 months

The Equine Viral Arteritis Order 1995 – the vaccine cannot differentiate between vaccinated and positive cases; blood testing for seronegativity prior to vaccination is recommended, all vaccinations must be recorded.

33
Q

Signs of rotavirus

A

Potentially fatal viral enteritis in young foals

34
Q

Rotavirus vaccination

A

Vaccination of pregnant mares produces antibodies which can transfer passive immunity via colostrum; reduced disease severity in the first 2 months of life, and continuous intake of milk from the vaccinated mare is required for continued passive mucosal immunity

Equip Rotavirus (Zoetis)

Adjuvanted inactivated vaccine

Administered at 8, 9 and 10 months gestation

Colostral antibodies coat the gut and block the adherence and multiplication of rotavirus thus preventing disease

Serum neutralising antibodies of foals born to vaccinated dams are significantly higher for the first 90 days, which is the risk period for disease

35
Q

Where can IM injections go?

A

Pectorals

Neck

Gluteal

36
Q

Borders of IM injection area of neck

A

Cranial border of scapula

Nuchal ligament

Cervical spine

37
Q

Borders of IM injection area of gluteal

A

Tuber coxa

Tuber sacrale

Tuber ischium

38
Q

Idiosyncratic reactions to vaccinations

A

unpredictable, might or might not recur, and/or might become worse with repeated exposure, such as allergic reactions or hypersensitivity

Dose related

39
Q

Clinical signs of idiosyncratic vaccine reactions

A

Variable

Hives

Diarrhoea

Distal limb oedema

Petechiation

40
Q

How can you manage a vaccine reaction?

A

Concurrent NSAID usage (2.2-4.4mg/kg phenylbutazone IV or PO 24 hours before and after vaccination; 0.5 - 1.1mg/kg flunixin may also be used).

Trialling a different brand is advised as this will change the drug adjuvant, which is usually the source of the reaction

41
Q

What do we vaccinate against in the UK?

A

Flu, Tetanus, rotavirus, EHV, EVA, strangles

42
Q

What common environmental pathogen causes viral enteritis in foals under 3 months of age? Can it be vaccinated against?

A

Rotavirus - yes (vaccinate mares)

43
Q

True or false: EVA is notifiable

A

True

44
Q

Which pathogen causes tetanus?

A

Clostridium tetani

45
Q

How often should horses competing under FEI regulations be vaccinated against Equine Influenza?

A

6 monthly

46
Q

What is the purpose of a pre-purchase exam?

A

To identify and assess factors of a veterinary nature that could affect the horse’s suitability for its intended use by carrying out a thorough clinical examination on behalf of a potential purchaser.

Enables vets to identify certain medical conditions or lameness at the time of the examination.

Not a long term warranty!

47
Q

Can a pre-purchase exam be carried out for a current or previous client (as in the person who is trying to sell the horse)?

A

Can perform for a current or previous client as long as this fact and the full medical history is disclosed to the prospective purchaser.

48
Q

What are the 5 stages of a pre-purchase exam?

A
  1. thorough clinical examination
  2. observation of the horse walking and trotting in hand
  3. observation of the horse performing strenuous exercise (normally under saddle)
  4. period of rest in the stable, passport examined
  5. secoda examination of the horse at trot in hand

Blood sample is taken and stored for 6 months

49
Q

Thorough clinical exam in PPE (stage 1)

A

at rest to detect any apparent signs of injury, disease or physical abnormality; thorough palpation of all the limbs, cardiothoracic auscultation, ophthalmic exam

50
Q

Observation of the horse walking and trotting in PPE (stage 2)

A

in hand in a straight line on a hard, level surface, including flexion tests. The horse is normally also trotted on a small diameter circle on a firm surface to detect subtle lameness issues.

51
Q

Observation of horse performing strenuous exercise in PPE (stage 3)

A

normally under saddle; further cardiothoracic assessment as well as lameness.
If ridden exercise is not possible (e.g. if the horse is unbroken), this stage may be conducted by exercising the horse on the lunge.

52
Q

Period of rest in a PPE (stage 4)

A

The horse’s markings are normally recorded and the passport examined. This gives time for any stiffness induced by the exercise to become apparent.

53
Q

Second examination of the horse at trot in hand in PPE (stage 5)

A

This is primarily to check that the strenuous exercise has not exacerbated a subtle underlying lameness problem. Flexion tests or trotting on a small diameter circle are sometimes repeated at this time.

54
Q

What are the limitations of a pre-purchase exam?

A

Pregnancy evaluations: does not include test for pregnancy

Accurate ageing: ageing is quite inaccurate therefore request documentary proof of horse’s age

In no way does it provide a guarantee of soundness or warranty for health of the future

Endoscopy and gastroscopy and sheath/penis exams are not routinely done

Radiographs may be specifically requested by insurers or client

55
Q

What is the purpose of a PPE?

A

To inform a potential buyer the veterinary nature of a horse at the time of purchase

56
Q

Is a PPE considered a day one competency?

A

No

57
Q

True or false; all PPEs must include a ridden component

A

False, e.g. If not broken in, too small etc

58
Q

Why is a dark room or stable important for a PPE?

A

Eye examination

59
Q

Typically used methods of euthanasia in the UK

A

a. Lethal Injection
b. Captive Bolt

“Conditionally acceptable” (Federation of European Equine Veterinary Associations)
a. Free Bullet
b. GA and intra-thecal lidocaine

Other procedures you may see done: sedation and aortic cut

60
Q

Indications for free bullet euthanasia

A

owner preference, poor venous access due to severe cardiovascular compromise or thrombophlebitis, severe emergencies may limit time or positioning for catheter placement

61
Q

Free bullet euthanasia - target

A

In horses the brain is situated high in the head, middle of the forehead

2 imaginary lines; middle of the eye to contralateral ear base

2cm proximal to this imaginary cross over

Slight distal tilt to allow for penetration of the cerebral cortex

62
Q

Complications with free bullet euthanasia

A

Agonal Actions (“Death Throes”)

Epistaxis

63
Q

Lethal injection

A

IV overdose of barbiturates - depress the CNS in descending order so loss of consciouness first- then apnoea and cardiac arrest

Sedation with alpha-2 then Somulose (secobarbitalsodium, cinchocaine hydrochloride)

64
Q

What can pentobarbital NOT be combined with?

A

A neuromuscular blocking agent

Due to potential to induce paralysis prior to loss of consciousness

65
Q

Aim of captive bolt

A

To induce immediate insensibility by administering a severe blow to the skull of the animal to allow time to pith or bleed.

66
Q

How to pith a horse

A

Insert flexible wire or polypropylene rod through the hole in the head towards the tail through the brain to the level of the brainstem.

If it is long enough, pass into the spinal cord. Initially the animal will show violent muscle contraction, but then reflex muscle movement is inhibited.

67
Q

Physical signs of an effective stun

A

Animal collapses

No rhythmic breathing

Fixed, glazed expression in the eyes

No corneal reflex

Relaxed jaw

Tongue hanging out

68
Q

If a second captive bolt shot is needed where should it be done?

A

A repeat shot must always be placed so as to avoid the immediate area of the first shot. If the first shot is off target, the second should be placed as close to the correct stunning position as possible. If the first shot is on target but fails to produce an effective stun, the second shot should be above and to one side. If a third shot is required, this should be above and to the other side of the first shot.

69
Q

How to confirm death

A

Lack of heartbeat

Lack of respiration (movement of thorax and airflow in nostrils)

Lack of corneal reflex (touching the surface of the eyeball)

70
Q

What does BEVA deem the primary responsibility of the veterinary surgeon in a euthanasia decision?

A

Welfare of the horse

71
Q

Name two commonly utilised methods of euthanasia in the UK?

A

Free bullet and lethal injection

72
Q

Why should an intravenous catheter be used before the administration of barbiturates as a method of euthanasia?

A

To ensure IV is not lost - large volumes

73
Q

How should you confirm death of a horse after euthanasia?

A

Lack of corneal reflex, palpebral reflex, cessation of breathing and heart beat, mydriasis and flaccid anal tone can also be evaluated