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Hematology and Oncology > First Aid Review > Flashcards

First Aid Review Flashcards

1
Q

Azurophilic granules contain…

A

Proteinases, acid phosphatase, myeloperoxidase, and beta-glucuronidase

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2
Q

Hypersegmented polys (5 or more lobes) are seen in…

A

Vitamin B12/folate deficiency

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3
Q

Increase in % band cells (immature neutrophils) reflects state of…

A

Increased myeloid proliferation (bacterial infections, CML)

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4
Q

Important neutrophil chemotactic agents include…

A

C5a, IL-8, LTB4, kallikrein, platelet-activating factor

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5
Q

Which cell type is characterized by a large, kidney-shaped nucleus and extensive “frosted glass” cytoplasm?

A

Monocyte.

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6
Q

Macrophages are activated by…

A

Gamma-interferon.

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7
Q

Lipid A from bacterial LPS binds…on macrophages to initiate septic shock.

A

CD14

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8
Q

…defend against helminthic infections by producing…

A

Eosinophils; major basic protein

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9
Q

Which cell type is characterized by a bilobate nucleus and a cytoplasm packed with large eosinophilic granules of uniform size?

A

Eosinophils

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10
Q

Causes of eosinophilia (hint: NAACP)

A
  1. Neoplasia
  2. Asthma
  3. Allergic processes
  4. Chronic adrenal insufficiency
  5. Parasites (invasive)
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11
Q

Eosinophils produce…

A

Histaminase and major basic protein (a helminthotoxin)

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12
Q

The densely basophilic granules of basophils contain…

A

Heparin (anticoagulant) and histamine (vasodilator).

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13
Q

Basophils mediate…

A

Allergic reaction.

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14
Q

Basophilia is uncommon, but can be a sign of…

A

Myeloproliferative disease, particularly CML.

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15
Q

Mast cells contain…and originate from the same precursor as…but are not the same cell type.

A

Basophilic granules; basophils

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16
Q

Mast cells can bind…

A

The Fc portion of IgE to membrane

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17
Q

IgE…upon antigen binding, causing…, which releases…

A

Cross-links; degranulation; histamine, heparin, and eosinophil chemotactic factors

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18
Q

Drug used for asthma prophylaxis

A

Cromolyn sodium – prevents mast cell degranulation

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19
Q

Mast cells mediate…

A

Type I hypersensitivity reactions in local tissues.

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20
Q

Dendritic cells are called…in the skin.

A

Langerhans cells

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21
Q

B cells originate from…and mature in…

A

Stem cells in bone marrow; marrow

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22
Q

When antigen is encountered, B cells differentiate into…

A

Plasma cells (which produce antibodies) and memory cells.

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23
Q

B cells express which CD molecules?

A

CD19, CD20, CD21

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24
Q

T cells originate from…, but mature in…

A

Stem cells in the bone marrow; the thymus

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25
Q

CD molecule that provides a costimulatory signal necessary for T-cell activation.

A

CD28

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26
Q

Which cell type is characterized “clock-face” chromatin distribution, abundant RER, and well-developed Golgi apparatus?

A

Plasma cell

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27
Q

Cancer of plasma cells

A

Multiple myeloma

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28
Q

Universal donors of RBCs

A

Individuals with type O blood

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29
Q

Universal recipients of plasma

A

Individuals with type O blood

30
Q

Universal recipients of RBCs

A

Individuals with type AB blood

31
Q

Universal donors of plasma

A

Individuals with type AB blood

32
Q

Antibodies in plasma of individuals with type A blood

A

Anti-B IgM antibodies

33
Q

Antibodies in plasma of individuals with type B blood

A

Anti-A IgM antibodies

34
Q

Antibodies in plasma of individuals with type O blood

A

Anti-A and anti-B IgM antibodies

35
Q

Individuals with type A blood experience a hemolytic reaction if they receive RBCs from…

A

Individuals with either type B or type AB blood

36
Q

Individuals with type B blood develop a hemolytic reaction if they receive RBCs from…

A

Individuals with type A or type AB blood.

37
Q

Individuals with type O blood experience a hemolytic reaction if they receive…

A

Any non-O RBCs.

38
Q

Rh- individuals produce…if exposed to Rh+ blood.

A

Anti-D IgG antibodies.

39
Q

Treat Rh- mothers with…after each pregnancy to prevent…

A

Rh(D) immunoglobulin; anti-D IgG formation

40
Q

Administration of…to Rh- pregnant women during the third trimester prevents…

A

RhoGAM; maternal anti-Rh IgG production

41
Q

Hemophilia A

A

Deficiency of factor VIII (X-linked recessive)

42
Q

Hemophilia B

A

Deficiency of factor IX (X-linked recessive)

43
Q

Hemophilia C

A

Deficiency of factor XI (autosomal recessive)

44
Q

High molecular weight kininogen is cleaved by…to yield…

A

Kallikrein; bradykinin

45
Q

Bradykinin mediates…

A
  1. Increased vasodilation
  2. Increased vascular permeability
  3. Pain
46
Q

Bradykinin is inactivated by…

47
Q

Extrinsic coagulation pathway involves…

A

Activation of factor VII through interaction with thromboplastin (i.e., tissue factor), which is expressed by vascular smooth muscle cells, pericytes, and adventitial fibroblasts.

48
Q

Intrinsic coagulation pathway involves…

A
  1. Activation of factor XII to XIIa by interaction with collagen, basement membrane, activated platelets, and HMWK
  2. XIIa activates factor XI to XIa
  3. XIa activates factor IX to IXa
49
Q

Both the intrinsic and extrinsic coagulation pathways converge on factor X and proceed via the combined coagulation pathway. Describe this shared pathway.

A
  1. Factor VIIa of the extrinsic pathway activates factor X to Xa OR factor IXa of the intrinsic pathway (alongside factor VIIIa) activates factor X to Xa
  2. Factor Xa (alongside factor Va) activates factor II (prothrombin) to IIa (thrombin)
  3. Factor IIa (thrombin) then activates factor I (fibrinogen) to factor Ia (fibrin)
  4. Factor XIIIa (along with Ca2+) stabilizes fibrin aggregation
50
Q

Anticoagulants that target factor Xa

A
  1. LMWH (greatest efficacy)
  2. Unfractionated heparin
  3. Direct Xa inhibitors (apixaban, rivaroxaban)
  4. Fondaparinux
51
Q

Anticoagulants that target factor IIa (thrombin)

A
  1. Unfractionated heparin (greatest efficacy)
  2. LMWH (dalteparin, enoxaparin)
  3. Direct thrombin inhibitors (argatroban, bivalirudin, dabigatran)
52
Q

tPA activates…to…

A

Plasminogen; plasmin

53
Q

Activators of plasminogen include…

A
  1. Alteplase
  2. Reteplase
  3. Streptokinase
  4. Tenecteplase
54
Q

Inhibitor of tPA

A

Aminocaproic acid

55
Q

Plasmin acts on…to produce…

A

Fibrin; fibrin degradation products

56
Q

Warfarin inhibits…

A

Vitamin K epoxide reductase

57
Q

Neonates lack…, which produce…

A

Enteric bacteria; vitamin K

58
Q

Vitamin K deficiency leads to decreased synthesis of…

A

Factors II, VII, IX, X, protein C, protein S.

59
Q

vWF carries/protects…

A

Factor VIII

60
Q

Protein C becomes activated through interaction with…

A

thrombin-thrombomodulin complex.

61
Q

Activated protein C interacts with…to cleave and inactivate…

A

Protein S; factors Va, VIIIa

62
Q

Antithrombin inhibits activated forms of factors…

A

II, VII, IX, X, XI, XII

63
Q

Heparin enhances the activity of…

A

Antithrombin

64
Q

Principal targets of antithrombin

A
  1. Thrombin

2. Factor Xa

65
Q

Factor V Leiden mutation produces a factor V resistant to…

A

Inhibition by activated protein C.

66
Q

Acanthocytes (“spur cells”) are associated with…

A
  1. Liver disease

2. Abetalipoproteinemia (states of cholesterol dysregulation)

67
Q

Basophilic stippling of RBCs is associated with…

A

Lead poisoning

68
Q

Degmacytes (“bite cells”) are associated with…

A

G6PD deficiency

69
Q

Elliptocytes are associated with…

A

Hereditary elliptocytosis

70
Q

Macro-ovalocytes are associated with…

A
  1. Megaloblastic anemia

2. Marrow failure

71
Q

Ringed sideroblasts are seen in…and represent…

A

Sideroblastic anemia; excess iron in mitochondria

72
Q

Specific granules contain…

A

ALP, collagenase, lysozyme, lactoferrin

Hematology and Oncology (38 decks)

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