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study what you don't know july > fire tech moodle > Flashcards

fire tech moodle Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which unit is responsible to confirm the evacuation stairway door(s) have been closed on the fire floor and are maintained in a closed position during operations in high-rise fireproof multiple dwellings? (Multiple Dwelling Fires 6.16.2)

Select one:

a. The 2nd ladder to arrive
b. The 1st ladder to arrive
c. The 4th ladder to arrive
d. The 3rd ladder to arrive

A

Any stairway not designated as the attack stairway is considered an evacuation stairway

The correct answer is: The 3rd ladder to arrive

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2
Q
  1. When placing the bucket to the roof for access, the preferred position is with the bucket?

Select one:

a. Adjacent to the roof, parapet or cornice with the gate parallel to the roofline
b. Over the roof, parapet or cornice with the gate parallel to the roofline
c. Over the roof, parapet or cornice with the gate angled to the roofline
d. Adjacent to the roof, parapet or cornice with the gate angled to the roofline

A

(L-6—Ch 3—Pg 4)

The correct answer is: Over the roof, parapet or cornice with the gate parallel to the roofline

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3
Q
  1. Tool assignments for LRFPMDs are correctly indicated in which point(s)?

Select one:

a. 1st Roof FF—Life Saving Rope—all fires except top floor fires
b. 2nd Roof FF—Life Saving Rope—all fires except top floor fires
c. 2nd Ladder Inside team—KO Curtain for all fires

A

(MDs 7.7.3, 7.8) - 1st Roof FF - Life Saving Rope - all fires - 2nd Ladder Inside team - KO Curtain for all fires except top floor fires - 2nd Roof takes curtain at top floor fires

The correct answer is: 2nd Roof FF—Life Saving Rope—all fires except top floor fires

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4
Q
  1. When a LSR Rescue is not practical from the roof of a LRFPMD, who can be instructed to bring a LSR to the apartment on the floor above? (more than one)

Select one or more:

a. Rescue
b. Engine Company
c. 2nd Roof FF
d. Squad

A

all

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5
Q
  1. Where the fire apartment door is found closed on arrival and window failure has not occurred, but sizeup indicates wind conditions exist, which tactic(s) should be implemented prior to entry into the fire apartment?

Select one or more:

a. A hose line can be advanced to and charged at the fire apartment door
b. The IC shall assign a member with a TIC to scan the windows of the fire apartment
c. A High Rise Nozzle should be ordered to the apartment on the floor below
d. A WCD should be in position above, ready for immediate deployment
e. A WCD may be deployed over an intact window on the orders of the Ladder Officer

A

e incorrect ic

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6
Q
A
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7
Q
  1. The supply inlet of the Blitzfire monitor is _________. It should not be operated at more than _______ psi inlet pressure with any type of solid stream or fog nozzle.

Select one:

a. 1 ¾” /250
b. 2 ½”/ 250
c. 1 ¾” /175
d. 2 ½”/ 175

A

The correct answer is: 2 ½”/ 175

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8
Q
  1. The bucket has the potential to get caught on objects such as parapets, walls, tree limbs, and release violently due to the design of the ____ Bracket?

Select one or more:

a. “C”
b. “A”
c. “L”
d. “O”

A

l an o

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9
Q
  1. The second ladder operating at a fire in a HRFPMD has which responsibilitie(s)?

Select one or more:

a. Control ventilation in areas other than the fire apartment as directed by the IC
b. Search the evacuation stairway for five floors above the fire floor
c. Search the public hallway on the fire floor
d. Coordinate WCD deployment, if ordered by the IC
e. Ensure all evacuation doors are closed on the fire floor
f. Ensure all elevators are recalled and searched

A

b in incorrect attack

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10
Q
  1. Regarding elevator operations, it is correct to state that?

Select one:

a. The first arriving ladder shall recall and search the elevators, whether or not they will be used
b. The second arriving ladder shall that all elevators are recalled and searched
c. The IC must ensure that all elevators are recalled and searched before leaving the scene
d. The third arriving ladder shall that all elevators are recalled and searched

A

(MDs 6.4.2) A—1st Ladder—recalled only, C—IC ensures early in the operation

The correct answer is: The second arriving ladder shall that all elevators are recalled and searched

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11
Q
  1. Of the following, which states incorrect information regarding MET-L-X and LITH-X extinguishers? (TB Tools 34 Page 3)

Select one:

a. The high velocity, self-closing discharge nozzle, swivels 360 degrees.
b. Discharge time is approximately 30 seconds.
c. Coverage is up to 3 square feet at a 1-inch thickness.
d. The optimum distance to start extinguishment is approximately 20 feet from the burning material, which is well within the range of these extinguishers

A

d 10 freet

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12
Q
  1. The 2nd arriving ladder Roof FF would be correct to take which action at a fire on the 9th floor of an 18-story Class 2 High Rise Residential Building?

Select one:

a. Bring the LSR to the roof
b. Drop the KO Curtain off on the 10th floor prior to proceeding to the roof
c. Bring the KO Curtain to the roof
d. Drop the LSR off on the 10th floor prior to proceeding to the roof

A

If the fire was within 2 floors of the top floor, then the LSR should be brought to the roof. (8.8.9)

The correct answer is: Drop the LSR off on the 10th floor prior to proceeding to the roof

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13
Q
  1. The officer of a company drilling with a Training KO Curtain that finds a defect with the curtain should telephone _____________.

Select one:

a. Administrative Battalion
b. Research and Development
c. Technical Services
d. Bureau of Training

A

(TB Tools 2 Addendum 1 3.3) - Telephone Tech Services and if instructed to place the Curtain out of service, notify the Division Training Chief and prepare an RT-2.

The correct answer is: Technical Services

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14
Q

Engine 153 and Ladder 77 have just extinguished a car fire. The car has been stripped of all doors and wheels and has out of state license plates. The officers would be correct to transmit which one of the following codes?

Select one:

a. 10-24
b. 10-23
c. –com- (Communications Chap. 8) (10-24 for any car with plates or value greater than salvage)

A

The correct answer is: 10-24

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15
Q

Charges shall be withheld during weather emergencies when members are unable to report for duty on time. Individual reports for such members shall be submitted to the Chief of Operations with fully detailed circumstances and correct endorsements.

Select one:

a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

agree

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16
Q

Which member is responsible to designate an area or areas on the apparatus floor where on duty members shall properly and safely don their Personal Protective Clothing (PPC)?

Select one:

a. Officer on Duty
b. House-watchman
c. Company commander
d. Chauffeur

A

c

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17
Q

FDNY Engine Company Chauffeurs should be aware that when they are supplying water to a Port Authority / ARFF crash truck at JFK International Airport, FDNY ECC’s should not exceed _______ psi discharge pressure?

Select one:

a. 100
b. 90
c. 80
d. 70

A

80

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18
Q

Engine 222 arrives first at a fire in an occupied 3-story Row Frame building. They find the building is fully involved with fire and that fire has already extended to exposure 2. In this situation, they would be most correct to?

Select one:

a. Stretch a 1 ¾” line into exposure 2, and stretch a 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder.
b. Stretch a 2 ½” line into the fire building, and stretch a 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder.
c. Stretch a 1 ¾” line into the fire building, and stretch a 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder.
d. Drop two 1 ¾” lines in front of the building, and stretch the first line into the fire building. Also position the engine apparatus for possible use of the multiversal

A

(Row Frames — 6.5)

The correct answer is: Stretch a 1 ¾” line into the fire building, and stretch a 3 ½” supply line for a tower ladder.

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19
Q

First alarm units arrive at an emergency in a building where a high-pressure steam riser in the wall of the building has failed and created serious steam conditions. In this situation, members would be correct to think?

Select one:

a. In an emergency, members may shut the Outside Service Valve
b. Steam pipes inside of buildings are typically insulated with asbestos
c. Steam temperatures in a supplied building can be as high as 900 degrees Fahrenheit
d. Members should shut all of the steam valves inside of the steam control room

A

The correct answer is: Steam pipes inside of buildings are typically insulated with asbestos

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20
Q

In an emergency at a HELB inside a building, FD members may shut which valve?

Select one:

a. Curb Valve
b. Outside Steam Shutoff Valve
c. Inside Service Valve
d. Head of Service Valve

A

(Steam 4.4) There is a building steam shutoff located outside the building. FD members should NOT attempt to shut this valve. This valve shall only be shut by Con Ed personnel

The correct answer is: Inside Service Valve

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21
Q

First alarm units are responding to a 10-77 in a 26 story HRFPMD. Fire is located on the 18th floor and is wind-impacted. Regarding the use of the High-Rise Nozzle in this situation, it would be correct to state that?

Select one:

a. It is the responsibility of the 4th due engine to bring the HRN to the Command Post
b. A spotter equipped with a handie-talkie and a pair of binoculars will provide direction and progress reports to the IC and also to members operating via the company officer supervising the HRN.
c. A shut-off should be placed in the hose line one length from the standpipe outlet
d. The high-rise nozzle will produce flows of 225 to 250 gpm at 50 psi nozzle pressure with water flowing

A

(TB - Tools 7 — DS 17 — 2.3, 4.3, 5.5, 5.11)

The correct answer is: A spotter equipped with a handie-talkie and a pair of binoculars will provide direction and progress reports to the IC and also to members operating via the company officer supervising the HRN.

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22
Q

Which type of brush fire is listed as the most common type of brush fire found in New York City?

Select one:

a. Crown fires
b. Bog fires
c. Spot fires
d. Surface fires

A

The correct answer is: Surface fires

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23
Q

A company officer who is instructed to “10-3” by the Borough Dispatcher would be correct to?

Select one:

a. Call the dispatcher by telephone
b. Return t o their quarters
c. Call their quarters

A

The correct answer is: Call the dispatcher by telephone

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24
Q
  1. The LCD symbol “XXX” displayed under the COMB/EX icon indicates all of the following except?

Select one:

a. The atmosphere is above 30 % LEL
b. The meter is now in a “Lock Alarm State” and the LEL Sensor is shut down and can no longer read natural gas levels
c. The atmosphere is potentially explosive
d. The atmosphere is extremely dangerous

A

(Nat Gas Add 2—4.1, 4.2) (Above 100 % LEL)

The correct answer is: The atmosphere is above 30 % LEL

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25
Q
  1. The guideline for extending and lowering stabilizers for aerial ladders when the ground is NOT level is correctly stated in which point?

Select one:

a. Extend the stabilizer on the lowest side first until the stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, then lower that stabilizer to its maximum.
b. Extend the stabilizer on the high side first until the stabilizer is fully extended horizontally, and then lower that stabilizer to its maximum.

A

CFR 2—Add 1—3.1)

The correct answer is: Cardiac or respiratory arrest

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26
Q
  1. In the event of a missed pickup of Red Bags by Solid Waste Technologies, the CFR-D Depot Officer shall contact?

Select one:

a. EMS
b. The Resource Center
c. FDOC
d. Their Battalion

A

resorce

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27
Q
  1. A member overexposed to bleach shall be moved to fresh air. In case of contact with bleach, immediately flush the skin or eyes with running water for at least ______ minutes?

Select one:

a. 20
b. 15
c. 10
d. 5

A

15

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28
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a possible indicator of a victim who was killed before a fire started?

Select one:

a. Soot in or around the nose and mouth
b. Pink to cherry red lips or eyelids
c. A pugilistic position
d. Pink or red skin on the lowest horizontal areas of a body

A

The correct answer is: Pink or red skin on the lowest horizontal areas of a body d

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29
Q
  1. At a suspended scaffold incident, whether the scaffold is level or off-level, unless the workers are in danger of falling, injured, or there is another imminent dangerous condition requiring immediate action, removal should be accomplished via?

Select one:

a. High Angle Rope
b. Glass cutting
c. Life Saving Rope
d. Utility Rope

A

The correct answer is: High Angle Rope

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30
Q
  1. At an occupied suspended scaffold incident that is off-level, from an open window, going onto the scaffold only if necessary, attempt to attach a Life Saving Rope snap hook onto the victim’s harness.

Select one:

a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

(WITHOUT going onto the scaffold)

The correct answer is: Disagree

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31
Q
  1. Which one of the following is a legitimate Flagging Column entry?

Select one:

a. HF
b. ACC
c. PR
d. AFID

A

pr

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32
Q
  1. Engine companies are classified by their pumping capabilities, equipment and training as follows: Choose the most correct answer(s) from the list below?

Select one:

a. All correct.
b. Conventional Engines: Two-stage 1000 gpm or 2000 gpm engines.
c. High-Pressure Engines: Three-stage 1000 gpm or 2000 gpm engines retro-fitted with a special high-pressure discharge elbow, and have been issued specialized high- pressure equipment to pump at discharge pressures over 250 psi and up to 600 psi.
d. 3rd Stage Engines: An engine with a 3rd Stage. This 3rd Stage can supply a maximum of 700 gpm up to 500 psi.

A

(Engines chap 9, Add 1, sec 1.1) High-Pressure Engines – Two stage , 3rd Stage Engines: An engine with a 3rd Stage. This 3rd Stage can supply a maximum of 500 gpm up to 700 psi. Code = 357 Magnum

The correct answer is: Conventional Engines: Two-stage 1000 gpm or 2000 gpm engines.

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33
Q
  1. Choose an incorrect choice regarding the KO Curtain.

Select one:

a. Each Battalion has been issued Training KO Curtains for drill.
b. Under no circumstance is a company’s KO Curtain to be deployed for drill purposes.
c. Repeated use of the KO Curtain for drill can cause unnecessary damage to the KO Curtain.
d. If a company’s KO Curtain is damaged in other than fire operations, the Company Commander will complete a letterhead report with all details to the Chief of Operations.

A

(TB Tools 2 6.5, 6.6) - Each DIVISION has been issued Training KO Curtains

The correct answer is: Each Battalion has been issued Training KO Curtains for drill.

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34
Q
  1. The Emergency Evacuation Device (EED) was designed by the New York City Transit Authority’s Office of System Safety. EEDs are provided for FDNY use and are located throughout the Transit Authority’s subway system. The EED is a yellow, 7-foot long device with steps on the front and a flat surface on the backside. A non-skid surface is applied to both sides. Please choose the incorrect location for the EED from the list below?

Select one:

a. At underground and grade level stations, the EED is located at the first Blue Light location south of the southbound platform (typically within 50 feet of the platform end).
b. Keys to remove EEDs from their mounting brackets are available at every token booth.
c. At elevated stations, the EED will be located in the area of the full time token booth.
d. An EED is located at the top of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.

A

(AUC 207 add # 11, section 3) An EED is located at the base of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.

The correct answer is: An EED is located at the top of the emergency exit, at both ends of each under river tunnel.

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35
Q

Ladder 111 arrives at a gas boiler incident that is causing high levels of carbon monoxide in a 4-story brownstone. They find initial readings of 200-300 ppm of CO throughout, no detectors are activated anywhere, and the occupants all have nausea and headaches. In this situation, the ladder officer would be most correct to think that?

Select one:

a. Any serious or fatal injuries at this incident must be reported to BFI through the Borough Dispatcher
b. The occupants should be informed that the FDNY has detected potentially dangerous levels of CO and it is recommended that they leave the building
c. A 10-38 Code 3 should be transmitted
d. CO has a vapor density which makes it slightly heavier than air, so it will disperse evenly in the rooms of the building

A

(HM 4—2.4, 4.5.2, 4.5.4, 5.1)

The correct answer is: Any serious or fatal injuries at this incident must be reported to BFI through the Borough Dispatcher

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36
Q
  1. Each _________ has been issued a training Fire Window Training Blanket.

Select one:

a. Battalion
b. Division

A

division

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37
Q
  1. Evacuating passengers via emergency exit stairs may be a viable choice in some Under River Rail operations, please choose the incorrect item to consider prior to using these stairs?

Select one:

a. Stairway configuration
b. Depth of the stairway shaft
c. Smoke condition
d. 3rd Rail power

A

3rd rail

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38
Q

A “10-31” should be transmitted for all but which of the following incident(s)?

Select one or more:

a. A stuck elevator
b. A highway incident in which FDNY units blocked traffic for EMS
c. A lock-out
d. A medical assignment that FDNY units did not perform patient care
e. Any calls that are handled by another agency

A

(Communications Chap. 8) (10-31 for calls for assistance other than medical assignments, Stuck Elevators use 10-29 with appropriate code. D.O. 72/19)

The correct answers are: A stuck elevator, A medical assignment that FDNY units did not perform patient care

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39
Q
  1. A Tunnel is a general term which describes a below-grade passageway. There are numerous underground tunnels between transit stations throughout the NYCT system. The Transit Authority also refers to its 14 sets of under river crossings as tunnels. Most under river tunnels actually consist of two separate structures referred to as tubes. Please choose an incorrect description of Under River Tube construction?

Select one:

a. Most tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide, which is large enough to contain 2 tracks.
b. Most tubes were bored into solid bedrock but a few tubes run through composites of clay, sand, and silt.
c. Tubes are cylindrical in shape and are constructed of brick, concrete or tubular cast iron. Some cast iron tubes are lined with concrete. Tube walls are between 2 and 2-1/2 feet thick.

A

(Under River Rail Ops, section 2.2.1) Most tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide, which is only large enough to contain 1 track.

The correct answer is: Most tubes are between 14 and 19 feet wide, which is large enough to contain 2 tracks.

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40
Q

First alarm units arrive at an emergency in a building where a high-pressure steam riser in the wall of the building has failed and created serious steam conditions. In this situation, members would be correct to think?

Select one:

a. In an emergency, members may shut the Outside Service Valve
b. Steam temperatures in a supplied building can be as high as 900 degrees Fahrenheit
c. Members should shut all of the steam valves inside of the steam control room
d. Steam pipes inside of buildings are typically insulated with asbestos

A

(EP - Steam — 2.2, 4.4)

The correct answer is: Steam pipes inside of buildings are typically insulated with asbestos

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41
Q
  1. When making assignments at an Under River Rail operation, the Incident Commander (IC) must attempt to keep sufficient SOC units available for specialized tasks, particularly if the use of Rebreather Masks is under consideration. For extended operations into a tunnel with a distance of up to _______ feet from the point of entry, consider using SOC units with their supplied air cart and hose.

Select one:

a. 750
b. 300
c. 400
d. 500

A

300

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42
Q
  1. Each engine company shall carry a “standpipe kit” with the following minimum basic complement of tools: Choose the incorrect tool(s) from the list below?

Select one:

a. Pipe wrench (minimum 18” in length). Spanner wrenches.
b. Door chocks. Special adapters as required.
c. Hand control wheel(s) for outlet valve. 2-1/2” x 2-1/2” in-line pressure gauge.
d. 2-1/2” controlling nozzle with 1-1/8” mainstream tip and 1/2” outer stream tip.

A

(Engines chap 9, sec 9.4) 2 ½” controlling nozzle with 1 ⅛” main stream tip and 1 ½” x 2 ½” increaser. No ½” outer stream tip. Note: Hand control wheels are optional and not supplied by the Department.

The correct answer is: 2-1/2” controlling nozzle with 1-1/8” mainstream tip and 1/2” outer stream tip.

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43
Q
  1. Each engine company shall carry a “standpipe kit” with the following minimum basic complement of tools: Choose the incorrect tool(s) from the list below?

Select one:

a. Pipe wrench (minimum 18” in length). Spanner wrenches.
b. Door chocks. Special adapters as required.
c. Hand control wheel(s) for outlet valve. 2-1/2” x 2-1/2” in-line pressure gauge.
d. 2-1/2” controlling nozzle with 1-1/8” mainstream tip and 1/2” outer stream tip.

A

(Engines chap 9, sec 9.4) 2 ½” controlling nozzle with 1 ⅛” main stream tip and 1 ½” x 2 ½” increaser. No ½” outer stream tip. Note: Hand control wheels are optional and not supplied by the Department.

The correct answer is: 2-1/2” controlling nozzle with 1-1/8” mainstream tip and 1/2” outer stream tip.

44
Q

Probationary firefighters are designated on the electronic riding list by the ___________?

Select one:

a. Suffix “(PR)” after their name
b. Suffix “(PF)” after their name
c. Prefix “(PF)” before their name
d. Prefix “(PR)” before their name

A

The correct answer is: Prefix “(PR)” before their name

45
Q

Company commanders shall determine special needs for winter operations and requisition or obtain such supplies and equipment in advance of winter weather. Requisitioning shall commence on what date to permit sufficient time for materials to be delivered?

Select one:

a. July 1st
b. October 1st
c. August 1st
d. September 1st

A

The correct answer is: July 1st

46
Q
  1. A fire on the 100th floor of a high-rise building will require a 3rd Stage engine. Only an IC at the rank of Battalion Chief or higher may order the use of the 3rd stage.

Select one:

a. Disagree
b. Agree

A

Engine Ops. Chap. 9 Add.1 4.2) Pressures EXCEEDING 600 psi require a 3rd stage engine. A fire on the 100th floor requires 600 psi. A fire above the 100th floor would require the 3rd Stage engine.

The correct answer is: Disagree

47
Q

Which statement made about company operations at Buckeye Pipeline emergencies is incorrect?

Select one:

a. The potential for explosion is greatest on hot, humid, and calm days.
b. Department apparatus should not be brought closer than 600’ to a leak
c. All engine companies responding on the second alarm for a street box associated with a leak should place additional cans of foam on the apparatus.
d. Units special called to an incident that do not have the necessary equipment (wrenches, Instruction Cards, etc.) shall ascertain from the dispatcher the location of the nearest unit so equipped.

A

(AUC 149 4.12, 4.8.1, 6.5.4, 6.5.7) Engines responding FROM QUARTERS should bring additional foam. Engine companies out of quarters, receiving a run for pipeline leak, MUST NOT return to quarters for additional foam.

The correct answer is: All engine companies responding on the second alarm for a street box associated with a leak should place additional cans of foam on the apparatus.

48
Q
  1. Engine Company operational procedures are incorrectly listed in which choice below, when operating at an Under River Rail incident?

Select one:

a. Confirm power removal, but operate as if power is on. Use FT-2 nozzle.
b. Never stretch a hose-line through a train, due to the numerous doors that could close on the hose-line.
c. It is most likely that hand-lines will be operated from standpipe outlets.
d. If the incident is very close to an emergency exit, it may be feasible to stretch a hand-line via the exit. However, we cannot operate from an emergency exit in a manner that hinders passenger evacuation.

A

(Under River Rail Ops, section 8.1.3) When stretching a hose-line through a train, it may be necessary to chock numerous car doors to reach the fire. Many chocks would be required.

The correct answer is: Never stretch a hose-line through a train, due to the numerous doors that could close on the hose-line.

49
Q
  1. Please choose an incorrect construction characteristic for mill lofts from the list below?

Select one:

a. Automatic sprinkler and standpipe systems, as required by law, are supplied by either a city water main or gravity tank located on the roof.
b. Fire tower stairs and elevators are placed in the inner part of the building.
c. Mill Lofts also known as heavy timber lofts, range from 4 to 6 stories in height having all 4 exterior walls load-bearing and constructed of brick, concrete block or stone.
d. Beams and girders supporting roof rafters and roof trusses are a minimum 6 inches in any dimension.

A

(Lofts, sec 4) Fire tower stairs and elevators are placed on the perimeter of the building.

The correct answer is: Fire tower stairs and elevators are placed in the inner part of the building.

50
Q

During a recent day tour, the FDNY responded to the following emergencies. Which incident would not be considered a Single Command operation with the FDNY as the primary agency?

Select one:

a. A child falls through a lake of ice in Central Park. FDNY on scene prior to NYPD
b. A child impaled on a fence. NYPD ESU on scene prior to FDNY.
c. A boat in distress. FDNY on scene prior to the NYPD
d. A confined space operation. NYPD on scene prior to FDNY

A

(AUC 276 5.1) NYPD is the primary agency for Water/ Ice Rescue operations

The correct answer is: A child falls through a lake of ice in Central Park. FDNY on scene prior to NYPD

51
Q
  1. Firemen Service is required in all elevators that serve ______ or more landings or travel ______ feet or more if plans were filed for the elevator after 1/01/1980?

Select one:

a. 4, 30
b. 2, 25
c. 3, 25
d. 3, 30

A

(TB Emer 1—5.1.1)

The correct answer is: 3, 25

52
Q
  1. When are all elevator cars required to be equipped with Firemen Service in Occupancy Class E buildings that are 100 feet or more in height?

Select one:

a. If a floor is serviced by four or less cars or the total load capacity for all cars serving the floor is less than 7500 pounds
b. If a floor is serviced by three or less cars or the total load capacity for all cars serving the floor is less than 7500 pounds
c. If a floor is serviced by four or less cars or the total load capacity for all cars serving the floor is less than 6000 pounds
d. If a floor is serviced by three or less cars or the total load capacity for all cars serving the floor is less than 6000 pounds

A

The correct answer is: If a floor is serviced by three or less cars or the total load capacity for all cars serving the floor is less than 6000 pounds

53
Q
  1. The Lobby Keyed Switch for Firemen Service elevators is required to be within _____ feet of the Lobby Call Button?

Select one:

a. 5
b. 4
c. 6
d. 3

A

4 four four

54
Q
  1. Ladder 99 arrives first at a High-Rise Office building which has a confirmed fire on the 35th floor. The “B” elevator bank goes from floors 21-40 and there are access stairs from floors 33 thru 35. In this situation, if Ladder 99 uses an elevator car in the “B” bank, they would be most correct to exit on the?

Select one:

a. 32nd floor or below
b. 34th floor or below
c. 31st floor or below
d. 33rd floor or below

A

The correct answer is: 31st floor or below

55
Q
  1. In a single car blind hoistway emergency access openings shall be provided every ______, but not more than ______ apart?

Select one:

a. 4th floor, 36 feet
b. 3rd floor, 30 feet
c. 2nd floor, 30 feet
d. 3rd floor, 36 feet

A

The correct answer is: 3rd floor, 36 feet

56
Q
  1. Emergency side exit doors in elevator cars, when provided, must line up with the door of the adjacent car and be within _____ of the adjacent car side door?

Select one:

a. 5 feet
b. 2 feet
c. 4 feet
d. 3 feet

A

The correct answer is: 3 feet

57
Q
  1. Which point is incorrect concerning tides?

Select one:

a. Slack tide is 60 minutes between high and low tides
b. High tides are incoming
c. Low tides are outgoing
d. There are 4 tides in 24 hours, two incoming, two outgoing

A

The correct answer is: Slack tide is 60 minutes between high and low tides

58
Q
  1. When a primary rescuer performs a surf rescue, it would be incorrect to think?

Select one:

a. When arriving at the vicinity of the victim, stop before reaching the victim and place the torpedo between the primary rescuer and the victim to assess and reassure the victim
b. D. If the victim is non-ambulatory, the rescuer will hold the torpedo against the victim’s chest
c. If the victim is ambulatory, reach out and hold the torpedo along with the victim
d. If the victim is non-ambulatory grab them from the rear resting the victim’s back on the rescuer’s chest.

A

(WR 3 Pg 5) (Hand the torpedo to the victim)

The correct answer is: If the victim is ambulatory, reach out and hold the torpedo along with the victim

59
Q
  1. At a Dive Assist operation it would incorrect to think?

Select one:

a. A charged hoseline can be used to cool backup divers, decontaminate divers, or decontaminate victims
b. An Engine shall be dedicated to CFR duties and stage as near as practical to the EMS ambulance
c. A member with binoculars shall watch maritime traffic and members in the water
d. An Engine should hook up to a hydrant and have a hoseline stretched and charged

A

(WR 5- 3.4) (Stage near the exit point of the victim / rescuers)

The correct answer is: An Engine shall be dedicated to CFR duties and stage as near as practical to the EMS ambulance

60
Q
  1. Engine 100 is returning from a CFR-D response when they are flagged down by a civilian about two blocks from their firehouse who states the dance hall she just left across the street is overcrowded. The Engine Officer, who is aware that the dance hall is in Ladder 99’s district would be most correct to?

Select one:

a. Immediately advise the dispatcher to have the first due Battalion respond to the scene
b. Immediately phone the administrative Battalion Chief
c. Promptly inspect the dance hall
d. Request the borough dispatcher to immediately advise Ladder 99 regarding this complaint

A

(Regs 12.1.6)

The correct answer is: Immediately phone the administrative Battalion Chief

61
Q
  1. Any injury / exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 7 days from the date of the injury / exposure require a CIRS-1 report forwarded through the chain of command to the?

Select one:

a. Chief of Safety
b. Borough Commander
c. Chief of Operations
d. Bureau of Health Services

A

The correct answer is: Chief of Safety

62
Q
  1. It would be incorrect to state that Group Reporting for exposures is permitted on CIRS for multiple members if?

Select one:

a. They are assigned to the same unit
b. They had a biological exposure
c. They have no symptoms from the exposure
d. The exposure for all members is identical

A

The correct answer is: They had a biological exposure

63
Q
  1. You are a Lieutenant covering a vacation leave spot in Ladder 99. During your 3-week stay you go to a lot of 10-75’s where members suffer many injuries. When preparing reports as per Safety Bulletin 7, you would be correct to know that which of the following injury report(s) must also be endorsed and signed by the Company Commander?

Select one:

a. Smoke Injury reports
b. Heat exhaustion reports
c. Burn Injury reports
d. Multiple Member Injury reports

A

d

64
Q
  1. E43 and Ladder 59 arrive first at a compactor fire on the 15th floor of a 40-story High Rise Multiple Dwelling. Fire is burning at the compactor chute door on the 15th floor. In this situation, it would be correct to think Engine 43 should stretch?

Select one:

a. A 2 ½” line from the standpipe outlet to the 15th floor chute door to extinguish the fire
b. A 1 ¾” line from the standpipe outlet to the 15th floor chute door to extinguish the fire
c. A 1 ¾” line from the standpipe outlet to the 16th floor chute door to extinguish the fire
d. A 2 ½” from the standpipe outlet to the 16th floor chute door to extinguish the fire

A

(Fires 7—8.2 A)

The correct answer is: A 2 ½” from the standpipe outlet to the 16th floor chute door to extinguish the fire

65
Q
  1. While formulating a CIDS message, Captain Jones had several thoughts. Which one was correct?

Select one:

a. Use slashes to separate information or thoughts.
b. Grammatically complete sentences are required
c. Do not split a word at the end of a line.
d. Common or universal abbreviations shall never be used

A

(Ch. 4 Sec. 4.4.1) (Common or universal abbreviations shall be Used when necessary, Grammar not required, Use DASHES to separate info)

The correct answer is: Do not split a word at the end of a line

66
Q
  1. In addition to using construction classifications from the 1938 Building Code, three additional construction classifications have been added for use. Which one is incorrectly described?

Select one:

a. A Fire-Protected structure using metal “C” joist or steel bar joist would be classified as a CL2LW.
b. A Wood Frame structure using any type of structural Light-Weight materials would be classified as CL4LW.
c. A Non-Fireproof structure renovated or repaired using any type of structural Light-Weight materials would be classified as CL3LW.
d. A Non-Fireproof structure renovated or repaired using Wooden I-Beams would be classified as CL4LW.

A

4.4.2 D) (NFP structure renovated or repaired using ANY type of structural Light-Weight Materials would be classified as CL3LW)

The correct answer is: A Non-Fireproof structure renovated or repaired using Wooden I-Beams would be classified as CL4LW.

67
Q
  1. Which point is correct regarding hydrant inspection duty?

Select one:

a. Relocated companies shall perform hydrant inspection duty when relocated for the day tour
b. Hydrant inspection duty shall be performed between 1000-1600 hours
c. If a unit does not perform hydrant inspection duty as per their schedule, they shall promptly notify the Deputy Chief, Battalion Chief and dispatcher by telephone
d. An officer, or acting officer and not less than 2 firefighters, exclusive of the chauffeur, shall perform inspectional duty

A

(28.2.2, 28.2.8, 28.2.9) And not less than 3 FF’s, between 0930-1700 hours, Relocated companies shall NOT perform)

The correct answer is: If a unit does not perform hydrant inspection duty as per their schedule, they shall promptly notify the Deputy Chief, Battalion Chief and dispatcher by telephone

68
Q
  1. In refuse chutes constructed in new buildings, sprinklers shall be provided?

Select one:

a. On every story for the height of the chute
b. On every story for the height of the chute unless electrically operated
c. Spaced not more than three stories apart for the height of the chute.
d. Spaced not more than two stories apart for the height of the chute

A

The correct answer is: Spaced not more than two stories apart for the height of the chute

69
Q
  1. If an officer wishes to request the installation of a new hydrant, the request must be submitted in writing through the chain of command to the ________________?

Select one:

a. Borough Commander
b. Chief of Operations
c. Division Commander
d. Brooklyn Boro Command Water Supply Officer

A

The correct answer is: Chief of Operations

70
Q
  1. A Two-sided, Operational Guide has been developed to provide information regarding each individual under river tube. Side “A” contains maps, pictures and information to locate a particular set of tubes, the associated emergency exits, and stations. Side “B” contains a diagram of the tube and information about emergency exits, distances, and crossovers. The IC can use side _______ of the guide to determine where to assign resources. Individual units can use side ________ to understand where they need to go to carry out their assignments.

Select one:

a. “B” / “A”
b. “A” / “B”
c. “B” / “B”
d. “A” / “A”

A

aa

71
Q
  1. Carbon Monoxide is a flammable gas with a Lower Explosive Limit (LEL) of ________% and an Upper Explosive Limit (UEL) of _____%.

Select one:

a. 15.5 / 35
b. 10 / 20
c. 12.5 / 74
d. 5 / 15

A

12.5-74

72
Q
  1. Choose an incorrect standpipe procedure from the list below?

Select one:

a. If a second line is required on the fire floor, it may have to be stretched from a hose outlet two (2) floors below the fire or from another standpipe riser. Both of these situations often require at least four lengths of hose.
b. Scissor stairs create additional complexities and will usually require the stretching of four or more lengths of hose. This information should be included in CIDS.
c. Due to the complexity of supplying and stretching from standpipe systems, the first and second due engine companies should consider operating together in order to ensure prompt and efficient placement of the first hose-line.
d. The in-line pressure gauge should always be used to ensure correct nozzle pressure and a good fire stream.

A

(Engines chap 9, sec 9.4) Due to the complexity of supplying and stretching from standpipe systems, the first and second due engine companies will always operate together in order to ensure prompt and efficient placement of the first hose-line.

The correct answer is: Due to the complexity of supplying and stretching from standpipe systems, the first and second due engine companies should consider operating together in order to ensure prompt and efficient placement of the first hose-line.

73
Q

The Buckeye Pipeline basic components are (2), 12” steel pipes which carry which two of the following products?

Select one or more:

a. Gasoline
b. Kerosene based aviation fuel
c. Natural gas
d. Diesel

A

(AUC 149 1.1)

The correct answers are: Gasoline, Kerosene based aviation fuel

74
Q

Normal subway operations dictate that the Engine Company shall not stretch a hose line until the location of the fire is determined and a stairway is selected which would best serve as the closest access point. Any firefighter who recognizes that the involved station is served by a dry standpipe system shall relay this information to which of the following member(s)?

Select one or more:

a. The engine officer
b. The engine Chauffeur
c. The IC
d. The ladder officer

A

The correct answers are: The engine officer, The engine Chauffeur

75
Q
  1. Which point is correct about operations with flares at motor vehicle incidents?

Select one:

a. Three members should be utilized to place flares and or cones
b. Flares burn for approximately 60 minutes.
c. Carry lit flares in a diagonal position, pointed away from your body
d. The furthest flare is placed about 2 feet from the edge of the roadway. Subsequent flares should be moved 2 feet further into the roadway at each point.

A

(TB Fires 8) (two members to place flares, 3o minutes, carry Horizontal)

The correct answer is: The furthest flare is placed about 2 feet from the edge of the roadway. Subsequent flares should be moved 2 feet further into the roadway at each point.

76
Q
  1. Units operating at the scene of a highway accident at 0400 hours find it necessary to operate across a center divider. In this situation they would be correct to think?

Select one:

a. Traffic shall be stopped on the incident side only
b. The safe crossing corridor shall be the only means of access and egress unless otherwise directed by the IC
c. The safe crossing corridor must be selected by the 1st arriving ladder officer
d. The preferred area of crossing shall be illuminated with lighting and visually identified with cones or flares

A

TB Fires 8 9.1 C) (Traffic stopped in both directions, Cones / Barrier tape, corridor selected by the IC)

The correct answer is: The safe crossing corridor shall be the only means of access and egress unless otherwise directed by the IC

77
Q
  1. Passenger cars that are propane powered should have a reflectorized warning sticker on the _____ side of the bumper with the 4 digit number _____ and the single digit number _____ below that?

Select one:

a. Right, 1961, 2
b. Left, 1075, 2
c. Left, 1075, 3
d. Right, 1075, 2

A

(TB Fires 8 Pg 19 Reference 4)

The correct answer is: Left, 1075, 2

78
Q
  1. Units often respond to BARS, Class E and Class J alarms. Which response is incorrect concerning these types of alarms?

Select one:

a. A Class J response between 0700 and 1900 is a single unit response. The 1st due Engine or Ladder will respond in the Emergency Mode.
b. A Class E response is a single unit response. The 1st due Engine or Ladder will respond in the Emergency Mode.
c. A Class J response between 1900 and 0700 will be a Box assignment. All units shall respond in the Emergency Mode.
d. On a BARS alarm, only the 1st due Engine responds. The Engine responds in the Emergency Mode.

A

(Ch. 6 Add. 1 Sec. 2.2) (Only the 1st DUE UNITS shall respond in the Emergency Mode)

The correct answer is: A Class J response between 1900 and 0700 will be a Box assignment. All units shall respond in the Emergency Mode.

79
Q
  1. Asbestos is typically found in all of the following locations except?

Select one:

a. Most steam piping buried under the street
b. Steam manholes
c. Steam pipes in generating plants
d. Many steam pipes in buildings supplied with steam

A

(EP - Steam 4.1, 4.2)

The correct answer is: Steam manholes

80
Q
  1. Which guideline for the transmission of alarms at a Row Frame building is stated incorrectly?

Select one:

a. Prompt consideration must be given to transmitting a 3rd alarm when it extends beyond two buildings.
b. When two or more floors are fully involved, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, a 2nd alarm must be transmitted.
c. When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear it is advisable to call for an additional engine and ladder.
d. When two buildings are involved, we have a 2nd alarm situation.

A

(Row Frames 7.6) (THE NEED FOR A 2ND ALARM MUST BE CONSIDERED)

The correct answer is: When two or more floors are fully involved, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, a 2nd alarm must be transmitted.

81
Q
  1. When implementing a defensive attack at a vacant building, which engine company tactic below is described incorrectly?

Select one:

a. Engine companies may be ordered to stretch 2 ½” hose lines to exposures in order to operate exterior hose streams on the fire building.
b. During wash down operations, the 15/16” main-stream tip may reduce the amount of water weight (live load) added within the structure.
c. Engine companies should consider the collapse zone surrounding the fire building. This may call for apparatus that was originally placed in a safe position to be repositioned based on changing conditions as the fire evolves.
d. Once an interior risk assessment has been completed, 1 ¾” hose lines may be advanced within the fire building to complete final extinguishment.

A

(Vacants 6.1) (the ½” OUTER-STREAM TIP)

The correct answer is: During wash down operations, the 15/16” main-stream tip may reduce the amount of water weight (live load) added within the structure.

82
Q
  1. When using foam equipment, it would be incorrect to state?

Select one:

a. Handlines with foam nozzles that are used with an eductor are useful for small spills of approximately 600 feet
b. Master Stream Nozzles are to be used at large spills over 1500 square feet
c. Self-Educting Nozzles on Foam Tankers provide effective knockdown of spills over 600 square feet
d. A first alarm assignment of three engines and two ladders should provide 65 gallons of AR-AFFF, which will provide approximately 17 minutes of finished firefighting foam at a 3 % setting

A

(TB Foam 6.2, 6.3, 6.4) (Over 2000 square feet)

The correct answer is: Master Stream Nozzles are to be used at large spills over 1500 square feet

83
Q
  1. A foam handline should be stretched and put into operation at all of the following except?

Select one:

a. The product is on fire
b. The product is a combustible or flammable liquid
c. The product causes an exposure problem
d. Members will be operating in the area

A

(TB Foam 8.2) (Flammable liquid only)

The correct answer is: The product is a combustible or flammable liquid

84
Q
  1. At a spill fire that is contained and not flowing, the widest pattern at the lowest velocity is obtained by?

Select one:

a. Deflecting the stream against something so the foam will slide down
b. Directing the foam stream skyward in a slow back and forth motion
c. Bouncing the foam on the ground ahead of the fire
d. Applying the foam directly onto the front edge of the spill

A

The correct answer is: Bouncing the foam on the ground ahead of the fire

85
Q
  1. When operating at a Bulk Oil Storage Facility where there is fire in a Bulk Oil tank, water should be applied to exposed pressurized tanks to cool them?

Select one:

a. Always, operating streams from the sides of the tanks
b. Only when a pressurized tank is steaming, operating streams from the sides of the tank
c. Always, operating streams from the ends of the tanks
d. Only when a pressurized tank’s pressure relief valve is making increased noise, operating streams from the ends of the tank

A

The correct answer is: Always, operating streams from the sides of the tanks

86
Q
  1. All Engine Company eductors should be tested?

Select one:

a. Weekly at MUD
b. Monthly at MUD
c. Quarterly
d. Daily

A

The correct answer is: Weekly at MUD

87
Q
  1. Upon arrival at a response for smoke in the area, Ladder 91 discovers that fire from an overhead transformer has extended into a detached garage. What would be the correct signal to transmit?

Select one:

a. 10-25 Code 2
b. 10-25 Code 3
c. 10-25 Code 4
d. 10-25 Code 1

A

(Ch. 8 p. 8-8) (10-25 Code 1 shall be transmitted for fire that has extended from a manhole, conduit or transformer into a building)

The correct answer is: 10-25 Code 1

88
Q
  1. On a CFR-D run for a “Major Injury”, Lieutenant Waldo encounters a patient with a minor burn to his arm caused by leaning against a radiator. What would be the proper signal to transmit?

Select one:

a. 10-45-3
b. 10-45-4
c. 10-37-2
d. 10-37-3

A

The correct answer is: 10-37-3

89
Q
  1. Units respond to a fire on the 51 floor of a high-rise office building. Members of the first engine company are hooking up to a standpipe on the 50th floor. What is the recommended pump pressure at this operation?

Select one:

a. 450 psi
b. 400 psi
c. 300 psi
d. 350 psi

A

The correct answer is: 400 psi

90
Q
  1. How many of the following locations have two-way communications with the fire command station? 1. Floor warden stations, 2. Mechanical control center, 3. Elevators, 4. Air handling control rooms; 5. Elevator machinery rooms; 6. Fire pump room.

Select one:

a. 6
b. 4
c. 3
d. 5

A

(HRO 4.1.6, 7.2.2 C) (Code is “WAMEE PUMP”)

The correct answer is: 6

91
Q
  1. The recommended placement of the eductor at a Hi-Ex Foam operation is?

Select one:

a. One length from the generator
b. At the pumper
c. At the generator
d. One length from the pumper

A

TB Foam 13.10)

The correct answer is: One length from the pumper

92
Q
  1. When operating in a Hi-Ex Foam environment, the use of the HT may be difficult. When transmitting, the HT microphone should be placed?

Select one:

a. Directly on the voicemitter, while the other hand uses a circular motion
b. Near the voicemitter, while the other hand uses a waving motion
c. Directly on the voicemitter, while the other hand uses a waving motion
d. Near the voicemitter, while the other hand uses a circular motion

A

(TB Foam 13.16)

The correct answer is: Directly on the voicemitter, while the other hand uses a waving motion

93
Q
  1. Regarding the use of the AFFF Foam extinguisher, it would be inaccurate to state?

Select one:

a. It should never be used on a Class “A” fire
b. It should have 100 pounds of pressure
c. It can be used on Class “B” fires like pit or grease fires
d. Its distance reach is 35 to 40 feet

A

(TB Foam Add 2) (May be used on Special Class A fires like tires or small rubbish)

The correct answer is: It should never be used on a Class “A” fire

94
Q
  1. When an Officer transmits a “Mayday” for a Missing Member, they shall provide several pieces of information. Which one is incorrect?

Select one:

a. Name of the affected member.
b. The assigned unit of the member.
c. Last known location or reference point.
d. Assignment (e.g. roof, nozzle)

A

(Ch. 9 p. 9-6) (The unit the member is working in THAT TOUR.)

The correct answer is: The assigned unit of the member.

95
Q
  1. An incorrect point concerning an “Emergency Alert Tone Assisted Rescue” can be found in which choice?

Select one:

a. The member designated to perform the operation should be located remote from search activity.
b. The Emergency Alert Tone is created by the designated member by placing the HT on the newly designated primary tactical channel.
c. It requires only one HT.
d. The Emergency Alert Button is pressed every few seconds.

A

(Ch. 9 Sec. 9.5.1, 9.5.3, 9.5.5, 9.5.6) (HT is placed on the channel which the missing, lost or trapped member was operating)

The correct answer is: The Emergency Alert Tone is created by the designated member by placing the HT on the newly designated primary tactical channel.

96
Q
  1. When the first hoseline is stretched through the front door at a cellar fire in a private dwelling, which consideration mentioned below would be incorrect?

Select one:

a. Initial size-up indicating a serious fire condition would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs.
b. The safety of members is the paramount concern in making a decision to advance down the interior cellar stairs.
c. High heat conditions at the bottom of the stairs would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs.
d. Questionable stability of the stairway would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs

A

(PD Ch 3 2.7.2) (Top of the stairs)

The correct answer is: High heat conditions at the bottom of the stairs would preclude the descent of the first hoseline down the interior cellar stairs.

97
Q
  1. The repositioning of the first hoseline from inside a house to a secondary entrance at a cellar fire in private dwelling must be coordinated and communicated to all units operating inside the building? When this is done, which tactic below is incorrect?

Select one:

a. Ladder company members operating on the floors above must be withdrawn before the first hoseline is repositioned.
b. The IC must ensure that his/her urgent transmission is acknowledged by all units/members operating in the interior.
c. The IC shall transmit an urgent message utilizing the emergency alert button to broadcast the tactic to all members.
d. The forcible entry team of the first ladder company will operate with the engine company and facilitate the advance of the hoseline via a secondary entrance.

A

(PD Ch 3 2.7.4) (First floor)

The correct answer is: Ladder company members operating on the floors above must be withdrawn before the first hoseline is repositioned.

98
Q
  1. At a flat roof private dwelling fire which one of the following members brings the saw to the roof?

Select one:

a. 2nd Roof
b. 1st OV
c. 2nd OV
d. 1st Roof

A

(PD Ch 4 7.1 A&B, 7.2 A&B)

The correct answer is: 2nd Roof

99
Q
  1. For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction depending on the duration and intensity of fire, the size of the structural components, and the type of construction involved, the amount of time before a collapse occurs is generally estimated to be _____. However, when there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components, failure can occur within _____ minutes.

Select one:

a. Two hours; 30
b. One hour; 20
c. One hour; 30
d. Two hours; 20

A

The correct answer is: One hour; 20

100
Q
  1. For fires in “traditional” private dwellings built of ordinary/wood frame construction depending on the duration and intensity of fire, the size of the structural components, and the type of construction involved, the amount of time before a collapse occurs is generally estimated to be _____. However, when there is no ceiling to provide protection, therefore exposing structural components, failure can occur within _____ minutes.

Select one:

a. Two hours; 30
b. One hour; 20
c. One hour; 30
d. Two hours; 20

A

The correct answer is: One hour; 20

101
Q

232 Please choose an incorrect construction characteristic for newer cast iron lofts (1880s to 1901) from the list below?

Select one:

a. All exterior walls have a minimum 3 hour fire resistive rating.
b. Generally, there are two interior stairways located inside enclosed walls having a 2 hour fire resistive rating.
c. Interior structural elements consist of unprotected cast-iron columns and wrought- iron girders and beams supporting masonry or wooden floors.
d. They may be built higher (8-12 stories) and wider than older cast-iron lofts with common dimensions being 50 feet wide by 90 feet deep.

A

(Lofts, section 4) Interior structural elements consist of protected cast-iron columns and wrought- iron girders and beams supporting masonry or wooden floors.

The correct answer is: Interior structural elements consist of unprotected cast-iron columns and wrought- iron girders and beams supporting masonry or wooden floors.

102
Q

While operating at a taxpayer fire, your Roof firefighter just informed you that a white powdery residue is present as the roof is being cut. You would be correct to tell the firefighter to take which action?

Select one:

a. Stop the roof cut and evacuate the roof.
b. Continue the roof cut
c. Stop the roof cut but continue to open other openings such s skylights and scuttles.

A

(SB 85 3.4) White powdery residue indicates a Gypsum Roof Deck. Upon this observation, members shall make immediate notification and proceed to evacuate the roof.

The correct answer is: Stop the roof cut and evacuate the roof.

103
Q
  1. When two ladder companies arrive at approximately the same time but out of response sequence, care must be exercised to avoid loss of efficiency due uncertainty which may cause duplication or neglect of a duty assignment. They shall be guided by their actual arrival at the operation and operate in accordance with this bulletin.

Select one:

a. Agree
b. Disagree

A

(Ladders 3 2.4) They shall be guided by their box assignment and operate in accordance with this bulletin

The correct answer is: Disagree

104
Q
  1. The entire AirTrain guideway is provided with service walkways. These walkways are similar to the catwalks / bench-walls found in the MTA NYC Transit system, but they are at track level on the guideway. These walkways will be adjacent to the track, and are either center, or side walkways. Choose the most correct description about the Air Train Walkways from the list below?

Select one:

a. Side walkways will also be provided with approximately 3-foot high handrails.
b. All of the above.
c. Side Walkways are located on the outside of the track area, and are 5 1/2 feet wide.
d. Center Walkways will be located between the two tracks, and are 2 1/2 feet wide.

A

(AUC 207, add 12, sec 4) Center Walkways will be located between the two tracks, and are 5 1/2 feet wide. Side Walkways are located on the outside of the track area, and are 2 1/2 feet wide.

The correct answer is: Side walkways will also be provided with approximately 3-foot high handrails.

105
Q
  1. Engine companies are classified by their pumping capabilities, equipment and training as follows: Choose the most correct answer(s) from the list below?

Select one:

a. High-Pressure Engines: Three-stage 1000 gpm or 2000 gpm engines retro-fitted with a special high-pressure discharge elbow, and have been issued specialized high- pressure equipment to pump at discharge pressures over 250 psi and up to 600 psi.
b. All correct.
c. 3rd Stage Engines: An engine with a 3rd Stage. This 3rd Stage can supply a maximum of 700 gpm up to 500 psi.
d. Conventional Engines: Two-stage 1000 gpm or 2000 gpm engines.

A

(Engines chap 9, Add 1, sec 1.1) High-Pressure Engines – Two stage , 3rd Stage Engines: An engine with a 3rd Stage. This 3rd Stage can supply a maximum of 500 gpm up to 700 psi. Code = 357 Magnum

The correct answer is: Conventional Engines: Two-stage 1000 gpm or 2000 gpm engines.

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