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study what you don't know july > 11/8 wrong answers > Flashcards

11/8 wrong answers Flashcards

1
Q
  1. When conducting an interior operation using the TIC, operators should begin by looking?

Select one:

a. At the left, then right side of the area
b. At the floor area
c. Straight up overhead at the ceiling
d. At the seam of the ceiling and the wall

A

The correct answer is: Straight up overhead at the ceiling

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2
Q
  1. When the Evolution 5200 Thermal Imaging Camera switches to the “L mode”, the temperature range expands from 0 to 1000 degrees F and the Quick-Temp Bar Gauge and Digital Temperature measurement change to what color?

Select one:

a. Yellow
b. Blue
c. Orange
d. Green

A

Blue

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3
Q
  1. The Evolution 5200 Thermal Imaging Camera will shift into the “L mode” when the colors Yellow through Red (275 degrees F to 320 degrees F) appear in more than _____% of the viewed area?

Select one:

a. 25
b. 15
c. 50
d. 10

A

15

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4
Q
  1. An officer utilizing the Evolution 6000 Thermal Imaging Camera will know that it has shifted into the High Heat (Low Sensitivity) mode when they see a ________ located in the upper left corner of the display?

Select one:

a. Green triangle inside a green square
b. Blue L inside a blue square
c. Blue triangle inside a blue square
d. Red triangle inside a red square

A

green green

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5
Q
  1. When the battery power status indicator on the Evolution 6000 Thermal Imaging Camera has one Red LED flashing, this indicates that the battery has?

Select one:

a. 5 minutes or less remaining
b. Less than 15 minutes left
c. 1 - 2 hours left
d. Less than 1 hour left

A

less tghan 5

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6
Q
  1. Which point concerning the Lobster Rebar cutter is inaccurate?

Select one:

a. This tool will not work well when the temperature is below 32 degrees F, thus in these situations, it must be warmed up prior to use
b. Its fully charged battery will last for approximately 60 cuts
c. It has a swivel head that has a 180-degree turning angle
d. It should be operated weekly to check for defects

A

.4, 3.7, 3.8) (40 cuts)

The correct answer is: Its fully charged battery will last for approximately 60 cuts

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7
Q
  1. An officer discussing the use of sound-powered phones by was incorrect to state that?

Select one:

a. A. Headsets have less interference and background noise then handsets, and are preferred for use
b. When using an amplifier, place the talk level knob at the highest setting
c. When using an amplifier, the Push to Amplify Button must be pressed and held to transmit or receive a message
d. When maintaining a Sound Powered Phone communications link, members should be paired with another member who monitors HT communications

A

(TB Tools 31—2.2, 2.6.1) (Hold the PTA to Transmit only)

The correct answer is: When using an amplifier, the Push to Amplify Button must be pressed and held to transmit or receive a message

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8
Q
  1. In Under-River Tubes, Sound Powered Phone connectors can be found approximately ____ feet apart?

Select one:

a. 600
b. 800
c. 500
d. 200

A

200

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9
Q
  1. Which extinguisher(s) have a yellow label affixed indicating its use on Class “D” fires?

Select one:

a. Only the MET-L-X extinguisher
b. Neither extinguisher
c. Both the MET-L-X and LITH-X extinguishers
d. Only the LITH-X extinguisher

A

: Only the MET-L-X extinguisher

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10
Q
  1. Which extinguisher(s) forms a crust to exclude air from contacting the metal and are superior in adhering to hot metal surfaces?

Select one:

a. Only the LITH-X extinguisher
b. Only the MET-L-X extinguisher
c. Neither extinguisher
d. Both the MET-L-X and LITH-X extinguishers

A

Only the MET-L-X extinguisher

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11
Q
  1. Which extinguisher is superior on very hot burning metal fires?

Select one:

a. The LITH-X extinguisher
b. The MET-L-X extinguisher

A

nswer is: The LITH-X extinguisher

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12
Q
  1. A High Pressure “ALERT” will flash on the Digital In-Line Gauge showing ______ when the pressure on the gauge exceeds _____ psi?

Select one:

a. HI-P, 200
b. HI-F, 150
c. HI-P, 150
d. HI-F, 200

A

HI-P, 200

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13
Q

high flow alarm on inline ?

A

b. HI-F, 250

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14
Q
  1. At an extended operation using the Digital In-Line Gauge, the Control FF sees the digital readout rapidly flash “LO batt”. In this situation she should know that there are approximately ______ minutes of battery life remaining?

Select one:

a. 30
b. 15
c. 10
d. 45

A

10

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15
Q

Ladder 111 arrives at a gas boiler incident that is causing high levels of carbon monoxide in a 4-story brownstone. They find initial readings of 200-300 ppm of CO throughout, no detectors are activated anywhere, and the occupants all have nausea and headaches. In this situation, the ladder officer would be most correct to think that?

Select one:

a. Any serious or fatal injuries at this incident must be reported to BFI through the Borough Dispatcher
b. A 10-38 Code 3 should be transmitted
c. The occupants should be informed that the FDNY has detected potentially dangerous levels of CO and it is recommended that they leave the building
d. CO has a vapor density which makes it slightly heavier than air, so it will disperse evenly in the rooms of the building

A

(HM 4—2.4, 4.5.2, 4.5.4, 5.1)

The correct answer is: Any serious or fatal injuries at this incident must be reported to BFI through the Borough Dispatcher

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16
Q

Units operating a fire in a new law tenement notice an almond odor while searching the fire apartment. They would be correct to know which one of the following gases gives off this type of odor?

Select one:

a. Phosgene
b. Acetaldehyde
c. Hydrogen Chloride
d. Hydrogen Cyanide

A

(TB SCBA Add. 3) Know your odors, it is a very easy test question for the writers.

The correct answer is: Hydrogen Cyanide

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17
Q

Units arrive at the scene of a hazardous material incident where they find a DOT placard with the number “4”. In this situation, they should recognize that this placard indicates the possibility of?

Select one:

a. Flammable Liquids
b. Combustible Liquids
c. Flammable Solids
d. Oxidizers

A

solids

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18
Q
  1. Carbon Monoxide is a flammable gas with an auto ignition temperature of 1128 Degrees F., and a Lower Explosive Level (LEL) of _____% and an Upper Explosive Level (UEL) of _____ %.

Select one:

a. 5 / 15
b. 10 / 20
c. 12.5 / 74
d. 15 / 70

A

The correct answer is: 12.5 / 74

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19
Q
  1. Distinct search markings will be made inside the four quadrants of the “X” to clearly denote the search status and findings at the time of the assessment. Which quadrant of the “X” will denote personal hazards to units/teams, such as utilities, open shafts, dangerous areas, rats)

Select one:

a. Right quadrant
b. Left quadrant
c. Bottom quadrant
d. Top quadrant

A

(Collapse Addendum 2 4.5) Top - The time / date that the company/team personnel left the structure/area. Bottom - Number of live and/or expired victims still inside the structure/area. “0” = No Victims. Left - FDNY Company or Team designation given at the Command Post.

The correct answer is: Right quadrant

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20
Q
  1. Which choice correctly describes the possible height of a cockloft in a taxpayer?

Select one:

a. 1 foot to a height tall enough for a man to stand in.
b. 4 inches to more than six feet
c. 2 - 3 feet

A

1 ft to a height tall enough for a person is correct for a Rowframe. 2 – 3 feet is correct for a brownstone. (Taxpayers 3.2.1)

The correct answer is: 4 inches to more than six feet

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21
Q
A
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22
Q
  1. When supplied by 2 ½” hose, the High Rise Nozzle will produce flows of _______ gpm at _____ psi nozzle pressure with water flowing?

Select one:

a. 180-200, 40
b. 225-250, 50
c. 200-225, 40
d. 200-225, 50

A

is: 200-225, 50

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23
Q
  1. A saw operator cutting a roof where fresh smoke is coming from the blade should know that this usually indicates?

Select one:

a. Too deep a cut through heavy material
b. The cut is on a beam
c. The saw blade is broken
d. A cut perpendicular to a beam

A

(Tools 9 - 6.1.8)

The correct answer is: Too deep a cut through heavy material

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24
Q
  1. Air Bags should only be inflated to ________ of their rated height capacity?

Select one:

a. 2/3 to 3/4
b. 1/4 to 1/ 2
c. 1/3 to 2/3
d. 1/2 to ¾

A

(TB Tools 20 - 6.5)

The correct answer is: 1/2 to ¾

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25
Q
  1. When operations are being conducted with a chain saw it would be incorrect to think that?

Select one:

a. The Control member should be positioned to permit easy visual contact with the officer
b. Anytime the control member approaches the immediate cutting area, the operator must first apply the chain break and signal the control member to approach
c. The control member must not remove cutting debris while the operator is cutting
d. Hand signals must be established between the operator, control person and officer

A

(TB Tools 24 - 4.5, 4.6) (Easy visual contact with the operator)

The correct answer is: The Control member should be positioned to permit easy visual contact with the officer

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26
Q
  1. Apparatus, Post and Marine radios should not be operated within________ feet of a suspected explosive device.

Select one:

a. 200
b. 300
c. 350
d. 500

A

300

27
Q
  1. When members suspect or discover any type of clandestine lab, they shall immediately stop, do not touch anything, retrace their steps and back out of the area. Members shall not attempt to determine the type of lab prior to leaving. All of the following should be notified when finding one of these labs except?

Select one:

a. BFI and NYPD (Including the bomb squad when necessary)
b. Request Haz Mat to respond
c. Safety Battalion
d. Battalion Chief and Deputy Chief

A

The correct answer is: Safety Battalion

28
Q
  1. Radiological materials come in all three physical states—solid, liquid and gas. Which point below concerning radiological materials is incorrect?

Select one:

a. Neutron can affect the whole body and its range is up to several hundred feed.
b. Beta can penetrate skin up to ¼” thick and its range is up to 10 feet.
c. Gamma can affect the whole body and its range is up to 25 feet.
d. Alpha is an inhalation hazard and its range is 1 to 2 inches.

A

(ERP Ch4 1.1 Table) (several hundred feet)

The correct answer is: Gamma can affect the whole body and its range is up to 25 feet.

29
Q
  1. The dose of radiation received by a member at a radiological incident is ________ proportional to the length of time of exposure?

Select one:

a. Inversely
b. Exponentially
c. Directly
d. Indirectly

A

The correct answer is: Directly

30
Q
  1. The determining factor as to whether the entrance door to the fire apartment will remain open or closed while a search is being conducted is whether or not?

Select one:

a. The Engine has a charged hoseline and is ready to advance
b. There is fire showing from failed windows
c. There is a significant wind condition
d. There is a known life hazard

A

(TB Search—9.10.1)

The correct answer is: The Engine has a charged hoseline and is ready to advance

31
Q
  1. Which point below about the KO Curtain is accurately stated?

Select one:

a. It has four, 3/8 inch diameter; 15 foot long fire proof ropes at each corner of the curtain
b. It is 10 feet wide by 12 feet long
c. It should be inspected daily
d. The Battalion should be contacted for a replacement KO Curtain

A

(TB Tools 2—1, 3.1, 6.3) (8’ x 6’, Weekly at MUD, Division should be contacted)

The correct answer is: It has four, 3/8 inch diameter; 15 foot long fire proof ropes at each corner of the curtain

32
Q
  1. Which point indicated below regarding the Fire Window Blanket is not correctly stated?

Select one:

a. The bottom of the blanket is weighted to facilitate positioning
b. When a replacement Fire Window Blanket is required, the company officer should contact the Division
c. A spotter shall be designated by the assigned unit or IC and be equipped with a HT and binoculars obtained from the battalion vehicle
d. Members assigned to the floor below must be in place prior to deploying the blanket

A

TB Tools 3—3.2, 3.4, 4.3) (Contact R & D during business hours, Contact SOC during non-business hours)

The correct answer is: When a replacement Fire Window Blanket is required, the company officer should contact the Division

33
Q
  1. Please pick from the choices below when evacuation would not be best considered?

Select one:

a. People not yet in the path of a release will be threatened by changing conditions.
b. The potential for a discharge is small, and it has not taken place
c. The discharge has taken place but people are sufficiently protected to permit time for evacuation.
d. There is an immediate danger of fire or explosion.

A

(ERP) (The potential for a discharge is great, it has not taken place, and there is time to relocate people.)

The correct answer is: The potential for a discharge is small, and it has not taken place

(ERP) (The potential for a discharge is great, it has not taken place, and there is time to relocate people.)

The correct answer is: The potential for a discharge is small, and it has not taken place

34
Q
  1. The Casualty Collection Point is located in the?

Select one:

a. Exclusion Zone/Hot Zone
b. Contamination Reduction Zone/Warm Zone
c. Support Zone/Cold Zone
d. Decontamination Zone

A

: Support Zone/Cold Zon

35
Q
  1. During a hazardous materials incident the first arriving ladder company will be divided into teams. Team 2 from the First arriving ladder is responsible for?

Select one:

a. Information resources
b. Site access control
c. Evacuation to gross decon
d. Hazard identification

A

er is: Information resources

36
Q
  1. During a hazardous materials incident the second arriving ladder company will be divided into teams. Team 2 from the Second arriving ladder is responsible for?

Select one:

a. Information resources
b. Initial exclusion zone
c. Hazard identification
d. Evacuation to gross decon

A

r is: Initial exclusion zone

37
Q
  1. During a chemical attack underground the first arriving ladder company will be divided into teams. The First arriving ladder TEAM 2 will be responsible for?

Select one:

a. Back-Up Team
b. Evacuation & Hazard Assessment
c. Site Access Control
d. Evacuation to Gross Decon

A

Back-Up Team

38
Q
  1. During a chemical attack underground the second arriving ladder company will be divided into teams. The Second arriving ladder TEAM 1 will be responsible for?

Select one:

a. Site Access Control
b. Evacuation & Hazard Assessment
c. Evacuation to Gross Decon
d. Back-Up Team

A

Evacuation to Gross Decon

39
Q
  1. During a chemical attack underground the second arriving ladder company will be divided into teams. The Second arriving ladder TEAM 2 will be responsible for?

Select one:

a. Evacuation to Gross Decon
b. Evacuation & Hazard Assessment
c. Back-Up Team
d. Site Access Control

A

(ERP Ch2 6.6)

The correct answer is: Site Access Control

40
Q
  1. While operating at a chemical attack underground, which tactic below is an incorrect action?

Select one:

a. The 1st arriving ladder - Team 1, should bring a search rope to mark the route for later arriving CPC entry / Rescue teams.
b. If a dispersal device is found still operational, make no attempt to stop the device. Responders shall immediately retreat and proceed directly to gross decon.
c. Members operating in bunker gear should not proceed in the exclusion zone any further than the farthest live victim when performing hazard assessment or rescue of ambulatory victims.
d. The 1st arriving ladder - Team 2, shall bring a stokes stretcher / Sked if available with a length of utility rope to drag non-ambulatory victims to the gross decontamination area.

A

(ERP Ch2 5.2, 5.2, 6.1.3, 6.4) (2nd Arriving Ladder Team 1 shall bring a stokes stretcher/Sked if available with a length of utility rope to drag non-ambulatory victims to the gross decon area.)

The correct answer is: The 1st arriving ladder - Team 2, shall bring a stokes stretcher / Sked if available with a length of utility rope to drag non-ambulatory victims to the gross decontamination area.

41
Q
  1. At a chemical attack, which engine informs the second arriving ladder company and the Incident Commander that victims are collapsing on their way from the subway exit to the gross decontamination area?

Select one:

a. 3rd Engine
b. 4th Engine
c. 2nd Engine
d. 1st Engine

A

d first engine

42
Q
  1. A small group of local residents enters your quarters and requests a spray cap for a hydrant on their block. You should issue the spray cap as long as all but which one of the following conditions is met?

Select one:

a. The requesting party is at least 16 years old.
b. The “Request for Spray Caps Form” is completed
c. The cap is not placed on a hydrant that is located on a main larger than 20 inches in diameter.
d. The cap is not placed on a hydrant on a two-way street, near an intersection, on a bus route, or on an access route to main traffic arteries.

A

(AUC 205 5.3, Add.1 Page 2) (Ensure the requesting party is at least 18 years old)

The correct answer is: The requesting party is at least 16 years old.

43
Q
  1. Upon receiving a request for a Fire Safety Education Event, other than a visit to Quarters, the Officer on Duty shall have the requester contact whom?

Select one:

a. Fire Prevention
b. FDNY Press Desk
c. Fire Safety Education Unit
d. Administrative Battalion

A

The correct answer is: Fire Safety Education Unit

44
Q

First alarm units arrive at an emergency in a building where a high-pressure steam riser in the wall of the building has failed and created serious steam conditions. In this situation, members would be correct to think?

Select one:

a. Members should shut all of the steam valves inside of the steam control room
b. In an emergency, members may shut the Outside Service Valve
c. Steam pipes inside of buildings are typically insulated with asbestos
d. Steam temperatures in a supplied building can be as high as 900 degrees Fahrenheit

A

(EP - Steam — 2.2, 4.4)

The correct answer is: Steam pipes inside of buildings are typically insulated with asbestos

45
Q
  1. When a fire in a High-Rise Office Building is confirmed, transmit a ___________.

Select one:

a. 10-76
b. 2nd Alarm
c. 10-75
d. 10-77

A

76

46
Q
  1. The officer of a company drilling with a Training KO Curtain that finds a defect with the curtain should telephone _____________.

Select one:

a. Administrative Battalion
b. Technical Services
c. Bureau of Training
d. Research and Development

A

(TB Tools 2 Addendum 1 3.3) - Telephone Tech Services and if instructed to place the Curtain out of service, notify the Division Training Chief and prepare an RT-2.

The correct answer is: Technical Services

47
Q
  1. Engine companies using the fog pattern on the FT-2 tip to relieve an area of smoke and heat would be correct to adjust the fog pattern to the width of the opening and stand back how many feet?

Select one:

a. 1 - 2
b. 3 - 4
c. 4 - 5
d. 2 - 3

Feedback

(Taxpayers 5.4.16)

A

4 - 5

48
Q
  1. Distinct search markings will be made inside the four quadrants of the “X” to clearly denote the search status and findings at the time of the assessment. Which quadrant of the “X” will denote personal hazards to units/teams, such as utilities, open shafts, dangerous areas, rats)

Select one:

a. Right quadrant
b. Bottom quadrant
c. Top quadrant
d. Left quadrant

A

(Collapse Addendum 2 4.5) Top - The time / date that the company/team personnel left the structure/area. Bottom - Number of live and/or expired victims still inside the structure/area. “0” = No Victims. Left - FDNY Company or Team designation given at the Command Post.

The correct answer is: Right quadrant

49
Q
  1. Filtered air respirators (APR’s) should NOT be used in which one of the following atmospheres, even with continuous air monitoring?

Select one:

a. 20% oxygen level
b. Radiological fire
c. 23% oxygen level
d. Biological incident

A

The correct answer is: Radiological fire

50
Q
  1. When the Pak-Tracker receives an alarm signal, who will attempt to contact the member to determine if the signal is for an emergency or an inadvertent activation?

Select one:

a. The Incident Commander
b. The member of the FAST Unit monitoring the Pak-Tracker
c. The Officer from the FAST Unit
d. The EFAS FF

A

is: The Officer from the FAST Unit

51
Q
  1. Which point regarding the use of the Pak-Tracker in the search mode is correctly stated?

Select one:

a. Always move towards the highest relative signal strength displayed
b. Use the Pak-Tracker in a sweeping motion, very slowly in a vertical direction first
c. When the signal strength rises above the 75% level, the row of LEDs will begin to light
d. Always pause 5 - 6 seconds for a reading

A

(TB—SCBA—Add 8—7.6, 7.7, 7.8, 7.9) (slowly in a horizontal first, 3 - 4 seconds, above the 50% level)

The correct answer is: Always move towards the highest relative signal strength displayed

52
Q
  1. Which point regarding the use of the Pak-Tracker in the search mode is correctly stated?

Select one:

a. Always move towards the highest relative signal strength displayed
b. Use the Pak-Tracker in a sweeping motion, very slowly in a vertical direction first
c. When the signal strength rises above the 75% level, the row of LEDs will begin to light
d. Always pause 5 - 6 seconds for a reading

A

(TB—SCBA—Add 8—7.6, 7.7, 7.8, 7.9) (slowly in a horizontal first, 3 - 4 seconds, above the 50% level)

The correct answer is: Always move towards the highest relative signal strength displayed

53
Q
  1. When operating at an incident involving Energy Storage Systems where there is no fire or smoke showing and there is no rise in temperature from the container or cabinet on arrival, it would be correct to?

Select one:

a. Shut down the ESS
b. Transmit a 10-80 No Code
c. Exhaust the container or cabinet using the exhaust override switch at the FDC.
d. Stretch a precautionary handline and charge the FDC of the water extinguishing system of the container/ cabinet if available.

A

(HM19 5) (DO NOT charge the FDC, 10-80 Code 1, Do not shut down the ESS)

The correct answer is: Exhaust the container or cabinet using the exhaust override switch at the FDC.

54
Q
  1. If there is fire or smoke showing from any ESS container or cabinet, members would be incorrect to think that they should?

Select one:

a. Transmit a 10-80 Code 1 and turn on the ESS (ESTOP).
b. Look for a sign indicating water pressures and water flow rates at the FDC.
c. Engine Company shall connect to the FDC and charge the water extinguishing system
d. Use exterior lines to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures if present and necessary. Use wide fog application and maximum reach of streams if possible.

A

(Narrow fog or straight streams)

The correct answer is: Use exterior lines to cool adjacent cabinets and exposures if present and necessary. Use wide fog application and maximum reach of streams if possible

55
Q
  1. The Exclusion Zone/Hot Zone is identified by?

Select one:

a. Yellow Rope
b. Red Tape
c. Yellow Tape
d. Red Rope

A

Red Tape

56
Q
  1. Bunker gear is classified as?

Select one:

a. Level B—CPC
b. Level D—CPC
c. Level C—CPC
d. Structural firefighter protective clothing Is not classified as chemical protective clothing.

A

(ERP 5.6)

The correct answer is: Structural firefighter protective clothing Is not classified as chemical protective clothing.

57
Q
  1. The optimal placement of the Positive Pressure Fan is _____ feet from the attack stairway door on the ground floor and directly facing the door to the stairwell at an angle tilt of _____ degrees.

Select one:

a. 4 - 6/ 60
b. 6 - 8/ 80
c. 6 - 8/ 60
d. 4 - 6/ 80

A

(AUC 349 7.2)

The correct answer is: 4 - 6/ 80

58
Q
  1. Incipient fires involving PV electrical systems can be extinguished using?

Select one:

a. AFFF extinguisher
b. Foam hoseline
c. Water from a hoseline
d. Dry Chemical extinguisher

A

The correct answer is: Dry Chemical extinguisher

59
Q
  1. Areas that have been designated as a “Danger Zone” should not be entered except to save life or if authorized by the IC or?

Select one:

a. SOC officer working in the area
b. Safety Chief
c. Sector Chief
d. Operations Chief

A

The correct answer is: Sector Chief

60
Q
  1. One quarter of an SCBA cylinder’s air is remaining when a ______ light at the far ______ of the Heads-Up Display flashes _________?

Select one:

a. Red, right, rapidly
b. Yellow, right, slowly
c. Yellow, left, rapidly
d. Red, left, rapidly

A
  1. When batteries for the SCBA’s “Heads Up Display” require changing, the round low battery indicator at the far right of the display will light for _____ seconds and then begin to flash ______ at _______ per second?

Select one:

a. 20, slowly, once
b. 20, rapidly, ten times
c. 10, rapidly, ten times
d. 10, slowly, once

61
Q
  1. Regarding inspection of the SCBA, it would be correct to state?

Select one:

a. The Company Officer supervising the inspection of SCBA’s shall make an entry in the Company Journal indicating SCBA number, names of inspecting members and inspection results
b. SCBA’s must be inspected before the start of Multi-Unit Drill and after each use
c. Defective SCBA’s shall be replaced with a Division spare and defects recorded on the SCBA Record Card.
d. SCBA’s must be inspected immediately after the 0900 and 1800 hour roll calls

A

(TB SCBA—4.1.1—4.1.3) (Battalion Spare)

The correct answer is: Defective SCBA’s shall be replaced with a Division spare and defects recorded on the SCBA Record Card.

62
Q
  1. When one member forcibly strikes another member with _____ distinct blows on the ________ and then pulls that member in a specific direction, the second member will recognize that the first member knows of an emergency and should promptly follow that direction?

Select one:

a. 3, shoulder
b. 4, back
c. 3, back
d. 4, shoulder

A

(TB—SCBA—7.4.1)

The correct answer is: 4, shoulder

63
Q
  1. Regarding High Pressure air supply with the Fast Pak, it would be incorrect to state that the UAC airline assembly from the Fast Pak should not be used if?

Select one:

a. The UAC dust cap is missing
b. A leak is detected at any time during the filling process
c. The UAC is impacted or blocked with debris
d. The UAC is damaged

A

(TB SCBA—Add 1—5.4.6) (If dust cap is missing—check the UAC to see if blocked, damaged or impacted)

The correct answer is: The UAC dust cap is missing

64
Q
A

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