finals (I'M BACK ON BRAINSCAPE) Flashcards

for bio 1 final

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1
Q

What is the purpose of the respiratory system? How is the purpose of the circulatory system related to this?

A

circulatory system
* function and purpose: transports oxygen, carbon dioxide, waste, and nutrients around the body

respiratory system
* function and purpose: to take in oxygen and exchange it for carbon dioxide

how they’re related
the oxygen that the respiratory system takes in is delivered to the bloodstream and “handed off” to the circulatory system

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2
Q

What are the major differences between arteries and veins?

A

arteries
* carry blood Away from the heart
* have a thicker muscular wall
* carry blood with a higher pressure
* help to regulate blood pressure
* carry O2 rich blood
veins
* carry blood towards the heart
* have a larger opening (lumen) and valves to prevent backflow of blood
* carry blood with little pressure
* don’t help regulate blood pressure
* carry O2 poor blood

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3
Q

What is the role of capillaries? How does their structure allow them to carry out this function?

A
  • capillaries are very thin blood vessels where nutrients and oxygen diffuse into your body tissue and cells
  • they connect small arteries to small veins
  • they are thin (walls are one cell thick) so this allows for diffusion of many different substances, such as nutrients, fluids, and gases between cells and bloodstream
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4
Q

red blood cell

A

transports oxygen and carbon dioxide to and from body cells (contains the protein hemoglobin which binds to oxygen)

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5
Q

white blood cells

A

defends against pathogens and cancer cells

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6
Q

platelets

A

function in blood clotting

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7
Q

plasma

A

the liquid part of blood

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8
Q

Describe the four main chambers of the heart

A

right atrium
* receiving chamber
* in upper left corner of diagram
* receives o2 poor blood
left atrium
* receiving chamber
* in upper right corner of diagram
* receives o2 rich blood
right ventricle
* pumping chamber
* in lower left corner of diagram
* pumps o2 poor blood to lungs
left ventricle
* pumping chamber
* in lower right corner of diagram
* pumps o2 rich blood to the rest of the body

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9
Q

What is the role of the AV valves (tricuspid and mitral) and semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonary)? Where are they in the heart?

A

semilunar valves
* where blood is pumped out of the heart into major arteries
* pulmonary valve (left on diagram) goes into the pulmonary artery out the upper right
* aortic valve (right on diagram) goes into the aorta on top
* like in the middle of the heart?
AV valves
* between atria and ventricles
* tricuspid valve (left on diagram)
* mitral/bicuspid valve (right on diagram)

generally they prevent the backflow of blood in the heart

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10
Q

Describe a diagram of the heart. Where is everything in relation to each other?

A
  • aorta is at the top
  • superior vena cava is to the left of the aorta
  • the inferior vena cava is directly below the superior vena cava but at the lower left corner
  • right atrium is right below superior vena cava
  • tricuspid valve is in between right atrium and right ventricle
  • right ventricle is at the lower left corner but not super close to the inferior vena cava
  • pulmonary valve is in between right ventricle and pulmonary artery
  • pulmonary artery makes like a right angle and goes out to the upper right corner
  • left ventricle is at the lower right corner, goes into the aorta
  • aortic valve is in between left ventricle and aorta
  • mitral/bicuspid valve is in between left atrium and left ventricle
  • left atrium is kind of “inside” the pulmonary vein, which is at the slightly upper right corner
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11
Q

What are the purposes of the things listed in the answer in the circulatory system?

Feel free to ask guiding questions with this.

A

superior vena cava
* receives o2 poor blood from upper body
* brings it to the right atrium, then it goes through the tricuspid valve to the right ventricle, then through the pulmonary valve to the pulmonary artery, which brings the o2 poor blood to the lungs
pulmonary vein
* receives o2 rich blood from lungs
* brings it to the left atrium, then through the mitral vave to the left ventricle, then through the aortic valve to the aorta
inferior vena cava
* receives o2 poor blood from lower body
right atrium
right ventricle
left atrium
left ventricle

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12
Q

Describe one possible pathway of a red blood cell through the body starting from the right atrium and ending back at the right atrium. Be sure to mention the blood vessels that the blood is traveling through AND the oxygen/carbon dioxide content of the blood at each point.

A
  1. it is in o2 poor co2 rich blood at this point in the right atrium
  2. as the right atrium is filled with blood, it contracts and the tricuspid valve opens, which pumps blood into the right ventricle
  3. when the right ventricle is full, the tricuspid valve closes to prevent blood from flowing back into the right atrium
  4. the right ventricle contracts, opening the pulmonary valve, which then pumps blood to the pulmonary artery and to lungs
  5. pulmonary valve closes to prevent blood from flowing back into the right ventricle
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13
Q

What is atherosclerosis and how does high blood pressure affect this process?

A
  • disease of the arterial wall caused by the formation of plaques
  • cholesterol is deposited in damaged artery wall (this becomes plaque)
  • when plaques rupture, a blood clot can form leading to blockage of small arteries (can cause heart attacks or strokes) and stops the delivery of blood to important organs
  • atherosclerosis causes arteries to thin, lose strength, and lose flexibility
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14
Q

Where are blood cells made?

A

in bone marrow

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15
Q

What is blood pressure?

A
  • the force exerted on a vessel wall by the bloodstream
  • usually refers to pressure in arteries closest to the heart
  • pressure is higher during systole (when the left ventricle pumps blood) and lower during diastole (when the left ventricle receives blood)
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16
Q

What affect does hypertension have on the heart?

A
  • heart must work harder to pump against a greater resistance (can cause the heart to weaken over time)
  • hypertension damages the artery walls and can damage capillaries in many organs (brain, heart, kidneys, eyes, etc.)
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17
Q

Put the following structures in the correct order in which oxygen molecules pass through on their way into the blood: larynx, trachea, alveoli, pharynx, bronchi, nasal cavity, bronchioles

A
  1. nasal cavity
  2. pharynx
  3. larynx
  4. trachea
  5. bronchi
  6. bronchioles
  7. alveoli
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18
Q

What important event occurs in the alveoli of the lungs? Why must capillaries surround the alveoli in order for this to happen?

A
  • alveoli are air sacs at the end of our airways
  • oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into the blood
  • carbon dioxide diffuses out of the blood into the alveoli so it can be exchanged
  • capillaries allow for this diffusion to occur
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19
Q

Describe the relationship between atmospheric pressure, intrapulmonary pressure (the pressure inside the lungs) and the movements of the diaphragm and rib cage during both inspiration (breathing in) and exhalation (breathing out).

A

*diaphragm moves down during inhalation and up during exhalation
*during inhalation, intrapulmonary pressure is lower than atmospheric pressure and vice versa during exhalation
*during inhalation, intercostal muscles contract and expand ribcage
*during exhalation, intercostal muscles relax and ribcage collapses

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20
Q

What is the purpose of stretching and recoiling of arteries as blood moves through them?

A

it can help blood move away from the heart

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21
Q

How does hypertension affect the following: elastic arteries, muscular arteries, heart attacks, and heart failure?

A

elastic arteries
hypertension allows elastic fibers in the tunica media to expand and contract
muscular arteries
hypertension causes friction to occur on the wall of the arteries
heart attacks
hypertension causes damage to the tunica intima, cholesterol then forms plaque on the walls of the artery
heart failure
heart failure weakens the heart muscle so it is unable to pump enough blood

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22
Q

What can happen if a plaque ruptures and why is it dangerous?

A
  • if a plaque ruptures, plaque can clot at the sight of the plaque rupture (thrombosis)
  • the bigger the blood clot gets, the less blood it lets flow
  • if the artery is fully blocked, artery supplied tissues can die
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23
Q

What happens leading up to and during a heart attack?

A
  1. plaque builds up in coronary arterial walls
  2. if it ruptures, blood clots inside the artery (thrombosis) can occur
  3. this causes less blood to reach the heart
  4. if the clot fully blocks the coronary arterial walls, all muscle tissue below the clot can die, causing a heart attack
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24
Q

What is an ischemic stroke and why is it dangerous?

A
  1. in the internal carotid artery, plaque from atherosclerosis causes less blood flow
  2. if the plaque ruptures, small pieces of plaque and clotted blood can go to the brain
  3. it’s dangerous bc if an embolus, a foreign piece of mass, is in the artery, it stops blood flow to part of the brain
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25
Q

What is a hemorrhagic stroke and why is it dangerous?

A
  1. if arteries penetrate brain tissue, they can rupture and cause bleeding
  2. cerebral artery aneurysms can be the cause of subarachnoid bleeding
  3. small arteries bleed and rupture into brain tissue
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26
Q

Compare and contrast TIAs and ischemic strokes.

A
  1. literally the only difference is that with TIAs, if the blockage dissolves, blood flow resumes
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27
Q

What is an angiogram? How and why is it performed?

A
  1. radiopaque dye is injected to determine if there is narrowing or a blockage in the right coronary artery
  2. the balloon catheter is inserted over the guide wire and it’s put in the correct position
  3. the balloon is inflated, which then crushes the plaque to resume the bloodstream
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28
Q

What is a stent? How and why is it used?

A
  1. after an angioplasty the balloon is reinflated to use the stent
  2. drug eluting stents have a polymer coating them that releases drugs which prevents the artery from narrowing again
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29
Q

How does coronary bypass surgery help to prevent heart attacks?

A
  • it creates new passages for the blood to flow to your heart muscle
  • it takes blood vessels from other parts of your body, called grafts, and it uses those blood vessels to reroute clogged arteries
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30
Q

What is the location and purpose of cilia in the respiratory system?

A

they trap foreign particles from the air and push them to the throat so they don’t enter the lungs

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31
Q

Which structure prevents food from entering the airways?

A

epiglottis

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32
Q

In which structure are the vocal folds (a.k.a vocal cords) located? How does testosterone affect the thickness of vocal cords and how does this affect how deep a person’s voice is (Google this one to find out)?

A
  • they’re in the larynx
  • testosterone thickens them, which lowers a person’s voice
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33
Q

What is the diaphragm?

A

a flat muscle below the lungs

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34
Q

What is bronchitis?

A
  • airways get infected, causing mucus creation and coughing
  • inflammation also occurs
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35
Q

What is emphysema?

A
  • alveoli break down, resulting in less surface area than is needed for gas exchange with capillaries on the alveoli
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36
Q

What is the structure of nucleotides?

A

Nucleotides are linked together by bonds between phosphate groups and deoxyribose sugars (sides of molecule)
phosphates are the ladder backbones of the DNA

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37
Q

DNA strands are antiparallel to each other. What does that mean?

A
  • each strand has a 5’ end and a 3’ end
  • the two strands run in opposite directions
  • The 5 and 3 refer to the carbon atoms on the deoxyribose sugar
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38
Q

Describe the process of DNA replication.

A
  1. two strands are separated by an enzyme called helicase, resulting in the formation of a replication fork
  2. each strand provides a template for creating a new strand of DNA
  3. an enzyme called primase starts the process, making a small piece of RNA called a primer
  4. an enzyme called DNA polymerase binds to the primer and makes a new strand of DNA
  5. it can only add bases in one direction: from the 5’ end to the 3’ end
  6. one of the new strands, a leading strand, is made continuously, from 5’ to 3’
  7. the lagging strand can’t be made continuously because it’s made in the opposite direction, from 3’ to 5’
  8. DNA polymerase can only make the lagging strand in a series of small chunks known as Okazaki fragments
  9. each fragment is started by an RNA primer
  10. DNA polymerase then adds a short row of RNA bases in the 5’ to 3’ direction
  11. the next primer is added further down the lagging strand
  12. another Okazaki fragment is made and the process repeats
  13. once the DNA is made, the enzyme exonuclease removes all RNA primers from the new strands of DNA
  14. DNA polymerase fills in the gaps left behind w/DNA
  15. enzyme DNA ligase seals up DNA fragments in both strands to form a continuous double strand
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39
Q

What are the base pairing rules of DNA?

A
  • A and T have 2 hydrogen bonds
  • G and C have 3 hydrogen bonds
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40
Q

What happened during the Hershey Chase experiment?

A

first phase
1. phage was produced in a medium that also contained S-35 amino acids
2. this led to a phage population with S-35 labeled proteins, but no label in DNA
3. phage infected the bacteria by attaching to the outside of the cell and injected the DNA into the cell, but the protein coat stayed on the outside of the cell
4. phage in these cells were not radioactive
5. when intense shaking occurred, protein coat shook off, but phage production in the cell was unaffected

second phase
6. phage were produced in a medium that had P-32 nucleotides
7. this led to a population with P-32 labeled nucleotides, but no label in the protein
8. when the phage infected the bacteria, radioactive DNA entered the cell and was found in phage that was later produced in the bacteria

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41
Q

Why would radiation help combat cancer?

A
  • it damages cancer cells
  • interferes with uncontrolled cell division
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42
Q

What phase of the cell cycle is most affected by radiation?

A

G1

mitosis is also affected a bit though

it can also cause DNA errors during synthesis and if apoptosis doesn’t occur DNA damage can spread, causing tumors

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43
Q

How does semi-conservative replication help prevent mutations during DNA replication?

A

half of the original molecule is already there to serve as a template for the new strand

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44
Q

Define cancer. What are some characteristics of cancer cells?

A
  • often have at least 60 mutations
  • they take nutrients from healthy cells
  • they can’t perform the tasks that healthy cells need to do
  • they crowd out healthy cells
  • does not have much apoptosis (cell suicide)
  • uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells
  • shortens the cell cycle and affects gap1 and mitosis the most
  • since the cell cycle is shortened, doctors have to act quickly
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45
Q

angiogenesis

A

when cancer cells release chemicals that cause bloood vessels to grow towards the tumor to supply it with nutrients and allow it to metastasize (spread

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46
Q

benign vs. malignant

A

benign
* confined to one area; slow growing
* stage 0 tumors are benign

malignant
* can spread to other areas; fast growing
* stages I, II, III, and IV tumors are malignant

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47
Q

cleavage furrow

A

indentation in the cell membrane of an animal cell during cytokinesis

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48
Q

cell plate

A

new cell wall formed during a plant cell’s cytokinesis

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49
Q

Describe each stage of mitosis.

A

prophase
* nuclear membrane breaks down
* spindle fibers made of microtubules begin to lengthen as centrioles move apart
* chromatin coils into visible chromosomes

metaphase
* spindle fibers are attached to the centromeres of the chromatids
* chromosomes are pulled to the equator (or middle) of the cell)
* nucleus is gone btw

anaphase
* sister chromatids of duplicated chromosomes are pulled apart as spindle fibers shorten and move to opposite ends of the cell

telophase
* new nucleus forms around each set of chromosomes
* cell membrane pinches inward at center
* chromosomes unwind into chromatin
* spindle fibers break down

cytokinesis
* division of the cytoplasm

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50
Q

Describe each stage of the cell cycle.

A

gap1 (11 hrs)
* cell grows bigger and functions normally
* has checkpoints (is the cell big enough? are there enough energy and other reserves? is the DNA damaged?)
gap0
* cell stops dividing
* happens to damaged cells to ensure the damage doesn’t spread
* goes into this phase during G1
synthesis (8 hrs)
* cell copies DNA
gap2 (4 hrs)
* cell makes more organelles and proteins for division
* has checkpoints (did all our DNA get replicated together? is the DNA damaged?)
mitosis (1 hr)
* cell divides duplicated chromosomes/DNA evenly
* cell divides cytoplasm and organelles (cytokinesis)

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51
Q

What are stem cells?

A
  • Cells that give rise to all of the cells in the body
  • Stem cells can divide to create many different types of cells in the body (or to make new stem cells)
  • When stem cells become a particular specialized type of cell (like a white blood cell, for example), they are said to have differentiated
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52
Q

Why is cell division important?

A
  • The cell’s interior grows at a faster rate than the plasma membrane
  • At a certain point, membrane transport cannot supply the needs of the cell (nutrient uptake, excretion of waste, etc.)
  • Cells must stay small to remain efficient
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53
Q

Describe the role of proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes in the cell cycle. Also explain how these genes can be involved in the development of cancer

A

proto-oncogenes
* start cell division
tumor suppressor genes
* stop cell division
* p53 is a tumor suppressor gene (mutated in more than half of all cancers)
* it activates DNA repair (stops cell cycle from G1 going into S phase)
* It initiates apoptosis (cell self-destruction) if DNA damage is too much to fix

When both types of genes are mutated in the same cell, the cell can divide out of control

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54
Q

In a plasmodial slime mold, which is one huge cytoplasmic mess with many nuclei, what stage of the cell cycle is skipped?

A
  • during mitosis the cell splits, but in this single cell, there are many nuclei, indicating that mitosis was skipped
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55
Q

How is chemotherapy a good cancer treatment? How can some side effects, such as hair loss and nausea be targeted by this?

A
  • it stops cell division and therefore contains cancerous cells
  • cells that divide rapidly are targeted by chemo, so that explains the side effects
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56
Q

Describe transcription.

A
  1. Transcription factors assemble at a specific promoter region along the DNA.
  2. The length of DNA following the promoter is a gene and it contains the recipe for a protein.
  3. A mediator protein complex arrives carrying the enzyme RNA polymerase.
  4. It manoeuvres the RNA polymerase into place… inserting it with the help of other factors between the strands of the DNA double helix.
  5. The assembled collection of all these factors is referred to as the transcription initiation complex… and now it is ready to be activated.
  6. The initiation complex requires contact with activator proteins, which bind to specific sequences of DNA known as enhancer regions (These regions may be thousands of base pairs distant from the start of the gene.)
  7. Contact between the activator proteins and the initiation-complex releases the copying mechanisM.
  8. The RNA polymerase unzips a small portion of the DNA helix exposing the bases on each strand.
  9. Only one of the strands is copied.
  10. It acts as a template for the synthesis of an RNA molecule which is assembled one sub-unit at a time by matching the DNA letter code on the template strand.
  11. The sub-units can be seen here entering the enzyme through its intake hole and they are joined together to form the long messenger RNA chain snaking out of the top.
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57
Q

Describe mRNA editing and splicing.

A
  1. As DNA is transcribed into RNA it needs to be edited to remove non-coding regions, or introns, shown in green.
  2. This editing process is called splicing, which involves removing the introns, leaving only the yellow, protein-coding regions, called exons..
  3. RNA splicing begins with assembly of helper proteins at the intron/exon borders.
  4. These splicing factors act as beacons to guide small nuclear ribo proteins to form a splicing machine, called the spliceosome.
  5. The spliceosome then brings the exons on either side of the intron very close together, ready to be cut.
  6. One end of the intron is cut and folded back on itself to join and form a loop
  7. The spliceosome then cuts the RNA to release the loop and join the two exons together.
  8. The edited RNA and intron are released and the spliceosome disassembles.
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58
Q

How do introns allow for many different proteins to be produced from a singular gene?

A

Exons from the same gene can be spliced together in different combinations to make different proteins

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59
Q

Describe translation.

A
  1. the ribosome is composed of one large and one small sub-unit that assemble around the mRNA, which then passes through the ribosome like a computer tape.
  2. The amino acid building blocks are carried into the ribosome attached to specific tRNAs.
  3. The small sub-unit of the ribosome positions the mRNA so that it can be read in groups of three letters known as a codon.
  4. Each codon on the mRNA matches a corresponding anti-codon on the base of a tRNA molecule.
  5. The larger sub-unit of the ribosome removes each amino acid and join it onto the growing protein chain.
  6. As the mRNA is ratcheted through the ribosome, the mRNA sequence is translated into an amino acid sequence.
  7. There are three locations inside the ribosome, designated the A-site, the P-site and the E-site.
  8. The addition of each amino acid is a three step cycle: First, the tRNA enters the ribosome at the A-site and is tested for a codon/anti-codon match with the mRNA.
  9. Next, provided there is a correct match, the tRNA is shifted to the P-site and the amino acid it carries is added to the end of the amino acid chain.
  10. The mRNA is also ratcheted on three nucleotides or one codon.
  11. Thirdly, the spent tRNA is moved to the E-site and then ejected from the ribosome to be recycled.
  12. As the protein synthesis proceeds, the finished chain emerges from the ribosome.
  13. It folds up into a precise shape, determined by the exact order of amino acids.

review

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60
Q

Transcribe and translate the following strand: TACGCACATTTACGTACGCGG. What is a mutation came and changed the fourth G to a T?

A
  1. AUGCGUGUAAAUGCAUGCGCC
  2. Met Arg Val Asn Ala Cys Ala
  3. it would be TCA, transcribed to AGU instead. Met Ser Val Asn Ala Cys Ala. A different protein would be formed. The mRNA code is changed and therefore changes the tRNA code and that changes the protein and therefore changes the function it carries out.
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61
Q

Explain the difference between the types of single base mutations we learned about in class (substitution (ex. nonsense, missense and silent) AND frameshift (deletions, insertions)).

A
  • substitution: 1 base is changed
  • missense substitution: one base is changed so it codes for another amino acid
  • silent substitution: they don’t change the protein that is coded for by a gene
  • nonsense substitution: changes the codon for an amino acid to a stop codon
  • deletion/insertion: self explanatory tbh. but it changes ALL the codons after the mutation
62
Q

Explain what the process of meiosis is. What is the outcome of meiosis in an organism?

Produces haploid cells (cells with half the normal number of chromosomes - just one from each homologous pair)
From each diploid germ cell, meiosis produces 4 genetically different haploid cells

A
  • generates the gametes for reproduction
  • happens in germ cells in the testes (AMAB) or in the ovaries (AFAB)
  • produces haploid cells
  • from each diploid germ cell, meiosis produces 4 genetically different haploid cells
63
Q

What are homologous chromosomes?

They are similar in size, shape, and the type of genes they contain
Each chromosome could have different variations of the same type of genes

A
  • 1 chromosome in each pair comes from each parent
  • they’re similar in size, shape, and the type of genes they contain
  • each chromosome could have different variations of the same type of genes
64
Q

Describe what happens to the chromosome # of an organism after meiosis and why this is important. Use the terms haploid and diploid in your answer.

A
  • haploid cells have half the normal number of chromosomes - just one from each homologous pair
65
Q

Explain what crossing-over is and how it contributes to genetic diversity.

A
  • homologous chromosomes exchange genetic info forming new combos of genes
  • mutations in gametes change the genetic info that will be passed onto offspring
  • since each chromosome is randomly distributed during meiosis, each kid could get different combos of chromosomes from their parents

homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information forming new combinations of genes (see diagram)

Mutations in gametes (NOT somatic cells) change the genetic information that will be passed on to the offspring

66
Q

Describe what an allele is and explain where you get your alleles from.

Every gene comes in different variations called alleles (uh-leels)
Most genes have two different alleles that exist in a population (some genes have multiple alleles)
One person can have no more than two different alleles for the same gene (we get one allele from each parent)

A
  • every gene comes in different variations called alleles
  • most genes have 2 different alleles that exist in a population
  • 1 person can have no more than 2 different alleles for the same gene (we get 1 allele from each parent)
67
Q

What are the 3 main parts of nucleotides? How are nucleotides arranged to make DNA molecules?

A
  • nitrogen base (make up the “rungs of the ladder”)
  • phosphate
  • deoxyribose (sugar)
  • sugar and phosphate make up the sides/backbone of the ladder
  • nucleotides are linked together by bonds between phosphate groups and deoxyribose sugars (sides of molecule)
68
Q

What are the base pairing rules of DNA?

A
  • adenine (A) and thymine (T) are always paired together with 2 hydrogen bonds, as are cytosine (C) and guanine (G), which are held together by 3 hydrogen bonds
  • A:T=C:G
69
Q

What are stem cells?

A
  • stem cells are involved in regenerating and replacing cells throughout the body (blood, bone, skin, muscle, etc.)
  • cells that give rise to all of the cells in the body
  • stem cells can divide to create many different types of cells in the body or to make new stem cells
70
Q

Describe the events of each stage of the cell cycle: interphase (G1, S, and G2), each of the stages of mitosis (prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase), and cytokinesis.

A
  • G1 (11 hrs)
    1. cell grows bigger and functions normally
    2. has checkpoints (is the cell big enough? are there enough energy and other reserves? is the DNA damaged?)
    S (8 hrs)
    1. DNA replication occurs (I describe that in another flashcard. I’m not doing it again here.)
    G2 (4 hrs)
    1. cell makes more organelles and proteins for division
    2. has checkpoints (did all our DNA get replicated together? is the DNA damaged?)
    mitosis (1 hr)
    1. cell division occurs in the following phases:
    2. prophase
    2. metaphase
    3. anaphase
    4. telophase
    cytokinesis
    cell divides cytoplasm and organelles
71
Q

Describe each of the stages of mitosis.

A

prophase
1. nuclear membrane breaks down
2. spindle fibers made of microtubes begin to lengthen as centrioles move apart
3. chromatin coils into visible chromosomes
metaphase
1. spindle fibers are attached to the centromeres of the chromatids
2. chromosomes are pulled to the equator (or the middle of the cell)
3. nucleus is gone btw
anaphase
1. sister chromatids of duplicated chromosomes are pulled apart as spindle fibers shorten and move to opposite ends of the cell
telophase
1. new nucleus forms around each set of chromosomes
2. cell membrane pinches inward at center
3. chromosomes unwind into chromatin
4. spindle fibers break down

72
Q

How does cytokinesis differ between plants and animals?

A
  • with plant cells it’s different bc a cell plate forms for a new cell wall
  • with animal cells a cleavage furrow forms (indentation in the cell membrane)
73
Q
  • with plant cells it’s different bc a cell plate forms for a new cell wall
  • with animal cells a cleavage furrow forms (indentation in the cell membrane)
A

the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the body
* cancer cells can secrete a growth hormone that makes blood vessels divert over to those cancer cells and supply the cancer cells with nutrients, which can take nutrients away from healthy cells (this is angiogenesis)
* this allows it to metastasize and spread
* they don’t respond to normal cell signals
* most cancer cells have at least 60 mutations
* cancer shortens the cell cycle, meaning doctors have to act quickly

74
Q

Describe the role of proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes in the cell cycle. Also explain how these genes can be involved in the development of cancer.

A

proto-oncogenes
* accelerate (start) cell division
* when proto-oncogenes are mutated, they become hyperactive and produce cells that respond too much to growth promoting genes
tumor suppressor genes
* stop cell division
* in the case of p53, a tumor suppressor gene that is mutated in over 1/2 of all cancers, it activates DNA repair (stops cell cycle from G1 going into S phase)
* it also initiates apoptosis (cell suicide) if DNA damage is too much to fix
* if mutated, they get deactivated

when both genes are mutated in the same cell, they can lead to uncontrollable cell division

75
Q

What parts of the cell cycle are most affected by cancer?

A

G1 and mitosis

76
Q

How can mutations such as UV radiation affect the cell cycle?

A
  1. it affects G1 and also f%cks up synthesis bc it causes mutations and errors
  2. damaged cells can keep dividing and the damaged DNA could spread
77
Q

When does a cell go into G0? What is G0?

A
  • a phase in which a cell is not preparing to divide
  • a cell can go into G0 during G1
  • cells can enter G0 if they’re damaged to ensure that the damage doesn’t spread
  • if their cells don’t go through apoptosis, tumors could form
78
Q

Why does radiation help treat cancer?

A
  • it damages cancer cells and also messes with the cell division
79
Q

In a plasmodial slime mold, which is one huge cytoplasmic mass with many nuclei, which phase is skipped?

A
  • mitosis because that’s when the cell splits and this thing is not doing that
80
Q

How does chemo help treat cancer?

A

it kills rapidly-dividing cells, which leads to some side effects such as hair loss and nausea

81
Q

What was the purpose of the Hershey-Chase experiment?

A

to prove that DNA carried genetic information

82
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

a bacterial virus (DNA molecule coated in protein)

83
Q

What happened in the first and second phases of the Hershey Chase Experiment?

A

phase i
1. phage was produced in a medium which also had S-35 amino acids
2. this led to a phage population with S-35 labeled proteins, but no label in DNA
3. the phage then infected the bacteria by attaching to the outside of the cell and injecting the DNA into the cell, but the protein coat stayed on the outside of the cell
4. the phage in these cells weren’t radioactive
5. when intense shaking occurred, the protein coat was removed, but it didn’t affect phage production within the cell
phase ii
1. phage were produced in a medium which had P-32 nucleotides
2. this led to a phage population with P-32 labeled nucleotides, but no label in the proteins
3. when the phage infected the bacteria, radioactive DNA entered the cell and was found in phage that was later produced in the bacteria

84
Q

Define benign.

A

non cancerous

85
Q

Define malignant.

A

cancerous, growing uncontrollably

86
Q

What could happen if there are errors in the checkpoint cycle of a cell?

A

cell death/cancerous growth

87
Q

What is the human genome? What is the significance of knowing the base sequence of the human genome?

A
  • the complete set of genetic instructions (DNA sequence) in humans
  • it’s important bc it lets us know what amino acids we have
88
Q

Explain the process of transcription. Describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process.

A
  1. transcription factors assemble at a specific promoter region along the DNA
  2. the length of DNA following the promoter is a gene and it contains the recipe for a protein
  3. a mediator protein complex arrives carrying the enzyme RNA polymerase
  4. it manoeuvres the RNA polymerase into place, inserting it with the help of other factors between the strands of the DNA double helix
  5. the assembled collection of all these factors is referred to as the transcription initiation complex and now it’s ready to be activated
  6. the initiation complex requires contact with activator proteins, which bind to specific sequences of DNA known as enhancer regions (these regions may be thousands of base pairs distant from the start of the gene)
  7. contact between the activator proteins and the initiation-complex releases the copying mechanism
  8. the RNA polymerase unzips a small portion of the DNA helix exposing the bases on each strand
  9. only one of the strands is copied
  10. it acts as a template for the synthesis of an RNA molecule which is assembled one sub-unit at a time by matching the DNA leter code on the template strand
  11. the sub-units can be seen entering the enzyme through its intake hole and they’re joined together to form the long messenger RNA chain snaking out of the top
89
Q

Explain the mRNA editing and splicing process after transcription.

A
  1. RNA splicing begins with assembly of helper proteins at the intron/exon borders
  2. these splicing factors act as beacons to guide small nuclear ribo proteins to form a splicing machine, called the spliceosome
  3. the spliceosome then brings the exons on either side of the intron very close together, ready to be cut
  4. 1 end of the intron is cut and folded back on itself to join and form a loop
  5. the spliceosome then cuts the RNA to release the loop and join the 2 exons together
  6. the edited RNA and intron are released and the spliceosome disassembles
90
Q

How do introns allow for many different proteins to be produced from a single gene?

A

exons from the same gene can be spliced together in different combos to make different proteins

91
Q

Explain the process of translation – describe the role of the mRNA, tRNA, ribosomes, codons and anticodons in the process.

A
  1. the ribosome is composed of one big and one small sub unit that assemble around the mRNA which then passes through the ribosome like a computer tape
  2. the amino acid building blocks are carried into the ribosome attached to specific tRNAs
  3. the small sub-unit of the ribosome positions the mRNA so that it can be read in groups of 3 letters (a codon)
  4. each codon on the mRNA matches a corresponding anti-codon on the base of a tRNA molecule
  5. the bigger sub-unit of the ribosome removes each amino acid and joins in onto the growing protein chain
  6. as the mRNA is ratcheted through the ribosome, the mRNA sequence is translated into an amino acid sequence
  7. there are three locations inside the ribosome (the A-site, the P-site, and the E-site)
  8. the tRNA enters the ribosome at the A-site and is tested for a codon/anti-codon match with the mRNA
  9. if there’s a correct match, the tRNA is shifted to the P-site and the amino acid it carries is added to the end of the amino acid chain
  10. the mRNA is also ratcheted on 3 nucleotiddes or one codon
  11. the spent tRNA is moved to the E-site and then ejected from the ribosome to be recycled
  12. as protein synthesis proceeds, the finished chain emerges from the ribosome
  13. it folds up into a precise shape, determined by the exact order of amino acids
92
Q

Transcribe and translate this code: TACGCACATTTACGTACGCGC. What if the foourth G were changed to a C?

A
  • AUGCGUGUAAAUGCAUGCGCC
  • MetArgValAsnAlaCysAla
  • it might change the amino acid produced, causing substitution, which would change the shape of the protein, which would change the way the person is affected by the protein
93
Q

What is an allele? Where do we get our alleles from?

A
  • Every gene comes in different variations called alleles (uh-leels)
  • Most genes have two different alleles that exist in a population (some genes have multiple alleles)
  • One person can have no more than two different alleles for the same gene (we get one allele from each parent)
94
Q

What are homologous chromosomes?

A
  • One chromosome in each pair comes from each parent
  • They are similar in size, shape, and the type of genes they contain
    (* Each chromosome could have different variations of the same type of genes
95
Q

Explain what the process of meiosis is. What is the outcome of meiosis in an organism?

A
  • Cell division that forms gametes (sex cells - sperm and egg)
  • Happens in germ cells in the testes (males) and ovaries (females)
  • Produces haploid cells (cells with half the normal number of chromosomes - just one from each homologous pair) from diploid germ cells
  • From each diploid germ cell, meiosis produces **4 genetically different haploid cells **
  • for meiosis to occur, chromosomes must be correctly sorted and distributed in a manner to create genetically unique cells with half the # of chromosomes as the OG cell
  • for the successful reduction in the # of chromosomes to occur in the new haploid daughter cells, 2 rounds of division are needed (meiosis i and meiosis ii)

meiosis i
1. meiosis begins after the cell has successfully completed interphase
2. during synthesis, DNA replicated, producing 2 copies of each chromosome called sister chromatids
3. the paired centrioles in the cytoplasm duplicate and begin extending microtubules that will form the meiotic spindle
4. sister chromatids stay attached at the centromere and condense as the cell enters….
prophase i (beginning of meiosis i)
1. rn it looks pretty similar to mitosis
2. homologous pairs of sister chromatids lie side by side in a process called synapses forming a tetrad/bivalent (same thing)
3. the homologous chromosomes share similar but not necessarily identical genes
4. once this structure’s formed, crossing over can occur
5. during crossing over, a physical exchange between chromosome segments of non sister chromatids occurs, increasing genetic diversity
6. nuclear envelope disintegrates as the duplicated centriole pairs move to opposite poles of the cell
7. as they move, the centrioles extend spindle fibers, forming the meiotic spindle
prometaphase i
1. with the paired centrioles in place, the meiotic spindle is fully formed
2. the sister chromatids attached to the spindle fibers by their kinetochores
3. because of synapses and crossing over in meiosis, homologous chromosomes stay aligned so that a pair of sister chromatids is attached to only 1 pole by the kinetochore microtubules
metaphase i
1. tetrads/bivalents randomly align along the metaphase plate
2. due to independent assortment, this alignment is random and adds to genetic diversity
anaphase i
1. the homologous chromosomes separate and move towards opposite poles
telophase i
1. the chromosomes decondense and the nuclear envelope reforms
cytokinesis (end of meiosis i)
1. separates the plasmic material and a cleavage furrow separates the 2 daughter cells
meiosis ii
1. meiosis ii begins without the chromosomes going through another round of synthesis
2. centrioles again duplicate and move to opposite poles of each cell
prophase ii
1. sister chromatids start condensing while spindle starts forming as the nuclear envelope disappears
prometaphase ii
1. the sister chromatids attached to the spindle by kinetochore microtubules with sister chromatids attached to opposite poles
metaphase ii
1. the spindle aligns the sister chromatids along the metaphase plate
anaphase ii
1. sister chromatids separate and individual chromosomes move toward the poles
telophase ii
1. chromosomes decondense and nuclear envelope reforms
cytokinesis ii
1. cytokinesis occurs and cleavage furrows separate the 2 daughter cells into 4 haploid daughter cells
2. the haploid cells will specialize as gametes, either egg or sperm depending on the sex of the human
3. these will join during fertilization, which will form a zygote that will become an offspring, which has half its chromosomes from each parent

96
Q

Explain what crossing-over is and how it contributes to genetic diversity.

A
  • Genetic recombination (crossing over) - homologous chromosomes exchange genetic information forming new combinations of genes (see diagram)
  • Mutations in gametes (NOT somatic cells) change the genetic information that will be passed on to the offspring

Since each chromosome is randomly distributed during meiosis, each child could get different combinations of chromosomes from their parents

97
Q

Explain the difference between genes and chromosomes.

A

genes
* genes determine the traits of an organism
* there may be a few hundred to over a thousand genes on a chromosome
chromosome
* coiled up DNA wrapped around proteins called histones
* humans have 46 chromosomes
* DNA is only in this form during mitosis

98
Q

Define incomplete dominance.

A

situation in which 1 allele isn’t completely dominant over another and thus heterozygotes display a phenotype in between that of the two homozygous parental varieties

ex. red and white petunias give rise to pink petunias

different letters are used in genetics problems in which incomplete dominance is displayed

99
Q

Define codominance.

A

situation in which both alleles of genes contribute to the organism and thus heterozygotes display a phenotype that includes traits of both alleles simultaneously

  • ex. red and white cattle give rise to calves with roan coloring (red and white patches)
  • in genetics problems with codominance, two different capital letters are used as superscripts to a common letter (ex. C^R, C^W)
100
Q

Define probability.

A

the chance or likelihood of an event occurring

101
Q

Define pedigree.

A

a diagram used to show the inheritance of a trait in a family

102
Q

Define carrier.

A

an individual who has 1 copy of the allele for a recessive trait

(heterozygote)

103
Q

Define affected.

A

an individual who displays a given phenotpe

104
Q

Define pleitropic trait.

A

when one gene affects many characteristics

ex. sickle cell anemia

105
Q

Define polygenic trait.

A

when many genes affect a single characteristc

ex. skin color

106
Q

Describe cystic fibrosis.

A

a disorder caused by recessive alleles that results in excess mucus in the lungs, digestive tracts, and liver as well as icreased susceptibility to infection

107
Q

Describe albinism.

A

a condition caused by recessive alleles in which the affected individual lacks pigment in their skin, hair, and eyes

108
Q

Describe phenylketonuria (PKU).

A
  • a condition in which affected individuals can’t break down the amino acid phenylalanine
  • results in accumulation of phenylalanine in tissues
  • lack of normal skin pigment
  • intellectual disability
  • caused by recessive alleles
109
Q

Describe Tay-Sachs disease.

A
  • caused by recessive alleles
  • results in nervous system breakdown due to lipid accumilation in brain cells
  • mental deficiency
  • blindness
  • death in early childhood
110
Q

Describe sickle-cell disease.

A
  • caused by codominant alleles
  • results in misshapen or “sicked” red blood cells
  • damge to many tissues is possible
111
Q

Describe achondroplasia.

A
  • form of dwarfism
  • caused by a dominant allele
112
Q

Describe Huntington’s disease.

A

a disease which causes progressive deterioration of the nervous system (starting in middle-age/40s) and results in loss of muscle control, mental deterioration & eventually death

caused by a dominant allele

113
Q

Describe mutliple alleles.

A

when there are more than 2 alleles for a particular gene

ex. human ABO blood type, coat color in rabbits

114
Q

Who the fuck is Thomas Hunt Morgan???????

A

American geneticist whose study with fruit flies led him to discover sex-linked inheritance

115
Q

Describe drosophila melanogaster.

A

the common fruit fly, ideal for genetic experiments due to its small size, easily observable characteristics, and large brood size (# of offspring born in 1 reproductive cycle)

116
Q

Describe autosomes.

A

non-sex chromosomes, chromosomes that carry genes that don’t involve sex determination

117
Q

Describe sex chromosomes.

A

chromosomes that carry genes which determine gender

the X and Y chromosomes in humans

117
Q

Describe hemophilia.

A

causes affected individual to bleed excessively when injured due to inability of blood to clot

118
Q

Describe red-green color chromosomes.

A

malfunction of light receptors in eyes such that individual can detect fewer colors than normal–individual can’t determine between red and green colors especially

119
Q

Describe Duchenne muscular dystrophy.

A

characterized by progressive muscular deterioration, leading to loss of strength and eventual death

120
Q

What is evolution?

A
  • a gradual change in the genes of a population over time
121
Q

Explain the basic components of Darwin’s theory.

A
  • a well tested explanation of observable events supported by experimental evidence collected over time
  • variation exists between individuals in any population
  • organisms compete with each other for survival
  • individuals with adaptations best suited for their environment survive, reproduce, and pass on their traits via their genes (natural selection)
  • all species share a common ancestor with each other (descent)
  • all species change over time due to natural selection (modification)
122
Q

Explain why the following statement is true: Individuals cannot evolve, only populations.

A
  • evolution happens to a population over generations, not a single individual
  • a single organism’s genes can’t be changed
123
Q

Explain the difference between directional selection, stabilizing selection and disruptive selection.

A
  • stabilizing: average phenotype is favored
  • directional: favors 1 of the extreme phenotypes
  • disruptive: favors both extreme phenotypes
124
Q

Explain how the fossil record, homologous/vestigial structures, embryological similarities, and molecular comparisons (DNA, RNA, and protein) provide evidence for evolution.

A

fossil record
* shows anatomical changes in a species over time
* transitional fossils show how one species may have given rise to another
homologous and vestigial structures
* homologous structures: structures with the similar design in different species but serve a different purpose (ex. human arm, cat leg, whale flipper)
* similarities in the structures suggest that the organisms shared a common ancestor that also had these structures
* vestigial structures: a structure that’s present in an organism but no longer serves its original purpose (ex. ear wiggling muscles, sperm whale hip bones)
comparative embryology
* early stages of development of many species have a similar appearance/structure
* the genes for early development of embryos are highly conserved (are the same or similar in many species)
genetic/molecular comparisons
* similarities in the genes and proteins of different species
* closely related organisms share a high percentage of similarity in their DNA
* these similarities can be used to construct evolutionary relationships

125
Q

Explain what Hox genes are and how they play a major role in the evolution of new body forms.

A
  • Hox genes determine the layout of the body (ex. the placement and structure of the arms and legs)
  • mutations to any Hox gene can alter the body of an organism significantly
  • these changes are reflected in the changes in species that we see in the fossil record
126
Q

Explain what a cladogram is and be able to determine how closely two organisms are related to each other by their positions on the cladogram.

A
  • cladograms show evolutionary relationships between different species
  • the more closely the species are related to each other, the closer they are to each other
  • DNA and amino acid sequences can be used to help construct a cladogram (more clsoely related species have less differences in the amino acid sequences for the same protein)
127
Q

What is the gene pool of a population?

A
  • gene pool is all the genes in a population of a species
  • evolution’s caused by changes in the gene pool of a population over time
  • the frequency of an allele in the gene pool is known as allelic frequency
  • factors that can change a gene pool over time: mutations, natural selection, gene flow (movement of genes into or out of the gene pool), genetic drift (changes in allelic frequency due to random events, ex. a human foot squishing bugs)
128
Q

List and describe the factors that can cause change to a gene pool over time.

A

mutations
natural selection
gene flow
* movement of genes into or out of the gene pool
genetic drift
* changes in allelic frequency due to random events, ex. a human foot squishing bugs
* bottleneck effect (pov. zombie apocalypse. some of us have immunity to zombies. the rest don’t. those who have immunity live and those who don’t die)
* founder effect (when a group of a population physically breaks away

129
Q

Explain the sequence of events that must occur in the speciation process in order for a single population to diverge into two different species.

A

members of a population become isolated from each other
* a magical barrier is placed between a population of unicorns.
each new population evolves through natural selection with no gene flow between populations
* over time, one of the groups develops silver horns while the other develops gold horns. they don’t interbreed
over time, the gene pool of each population changes due to natural selection and genetic drift
* self explanatory tbh. gene pool changes. genome changes.
when members from the 2 populations can’t successfuly reproduce with each other, they’re considered different species
* this could be because the barrier is still up or because if they reproduce it’ll be reproductively isolated

130
Q

What is the difference between sympatric and allopatric speciation?

A

sympiatric speciation
* The evolution of a new species from a surviving ancestral species while both continue to inhabit the same geographic region
* the evolution of a new species from a surviving ancestral species while both continue to inhabit the same geographic region
* this can be behavioral isolation/temporal isolation/reproductive isolation
allopatric speciation
* a geographic barrier stops them from interbreeding and sharing the same gene pool
* eventually, there can be change over time in the separated populations in their separated areas from mechanisms like natural selection or genetic drift
* over time these populations can have significant genetic differences that might not allow them to interbreed even if they were brought together
* populations separated geographically can form different species

131
Q

Explain the difference between geographic, temporal, and behavioral isolation and how these can lead to speciation.

A
  • geographic isolation: a natural barrier stops two groups from interbreeding
  • temporal isolation: different mating seasns stop individuals from interbreeding
  • behavioral isolation: different behaviors stops two groups from interbreeding

as a result of the above, reproductive isolation develops between different populations

132
Q

Describe the advantages of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction in terms of evolution and natural selection. Also describe how mutations are important for natural selection.

A
  • there’s basically more genetic diversity since it’s 2 gene sets instead of 1 gene set so there’s like so many more possibilities
  • there’s stuff like crossing over and independent assortment that just creates variety during sexual reproduction that is absent during asexual reproductions sooooooooooooooooooo
  • also mutations are great for natural selection because of how they increase genetic diversity and that’s just like really great for everyone involved like
133
Q

Explain how natural selection applies to how antibiotic resistance develops in bacteria.

antibiotic resistance in bacteria is being used as an example here

A
  • a bunch of bacteria, including a resistant variety get bathed in antibiotics
  • for context, this resistant variety has random mutations that allow for resistance
  • most of the normal bacteria die
  • the resistant bacteria multiply and become more common
  • eventually, the entire infection evolves into a resistant strain
134
Q

Give two examples that show the difference between a habitat and a niche. Explain what happens if the niches of two different species overlap.

A

habitat
* where an organism lives
niche
* an organism’s role in an ecosystem - its habitat + what it eats and what eats it
* if the niches of two different species overlap, competition occurs
* like hyenas have beef with lions because they live in the same habitat and like have similar prey and their niches overlap
* but like hyenas don’t have beef with blades of grass because they don’t even share the same prey (the grass doesn’t have prey to begin with because it’s a producer but we’ll get to that later)

135
Q

Explain the different trophic levels and describe the role of decomposers in an ecosystem.

A

producer/autotroph
* organism that makes its own energy/food
* autotrophs (photosynthetic)
* ex. plants, some bacteria
consumer/heterotroph
* organism that must eat another organism to obtain energy
* ex. animals, fungi, some bacteria
decomposer
* break down dead matter for their food
* ex. fungi, some insects, bacteria

136
Q

Explain the relationship between energy and biomass going up a food chain from producers to the top consumers. Also explain the REASON for this relationship.

A
  • pyramids of energy show the energy stored in the bodies of all the organisms in each trophic level
  • pyramids of energy always are widest at the base and get narrower toward the top
  • only 10% of the consumed energy moves up the food chain (from one level to the next)
  • 90% of energy is used for movement and metabolism by the organism
137
Q

Describe the different types of community interactions (predation/herbivory, competition, and symbiosis).

A

predation/herbivory
competition
* when niches of 2 species are similar, competition results since they’re trying to use the same resources (food, water, shelter, territory, etc.)
symbiosis
* relationship between 2 species in which at least 1 organism benefits

138
Q

Compare and contrast the three different types of symbiotic relationships and give an example of each.

A

mutualism
* both organisms benefit from the relationship (+,+)
* ex. clownfish and anemone
parasitism
* 1 organism benefits while 1’s harmed (+,-)
* ex. ticks and mammals
commensalism
* 1 organism benefits, 1’s unaffected (+,0)
* ex. remora and zebra shark

they’re all similar in that at least 1 organism benefits

139
Q

Describe the difference between inter/intraspecific competition.

A
  • interspecific: between members of different species
  • intraspecific: between members of the same species
140
Q

Explain what biodiversity is and why it is important to us and to ecosystems in general.

A

biodiversity: the variety of life in an area (this can include the variety of species, genes, or ecosystems)
* it’s important for human purposes (ex. medicine, food, fuel, industrial chemicals)
* stabilizes ecosystems by creating more niches (more food, better resistance to disease and climate change)
* helps biosphere stay healthy

141
Q

Understand and explain how habitat fragmentation/destruction and invasive species reduce biodiversity.

A

habitat fragmentation
* when a habitat’s divided into smaller pieces by human activity
* fragments provide less resources than whole intact habitats (less space), increasing extinction probability for many species
* decreases opportunities for organisms in 1 area to reproduce with organisms of the same species in another area, which decreases genetic diversity
invasive species
* a species that is from another habitat (may be another continent/country/or region of the same country)
* have no natural predators or parasites or regulation or competition to control their population in the new habitat
* they may compete with or prey on native species and disrupt the natural food web

invasive species, habitat fragmentation, pollution, more predators, disease, competition, etc. can lower the carrying capacity of native species

142
Q

Explain what carrying capacity is and what happens when a population exceeds its carrying capacity.

A
  • carrying capacity: the max population size of a particular species that an environment can support
  • the carrying capacity of any environment can change over time due to changes in that environment (biotic or abiotic)
  • invasive species, habitat fragmentation, pollution, more predators, disease, competition, etc. can lower the carrying capacity of native species
  • if a population exceeds its carrying capacity, resources are DEPLETED
143
Q

How do you set up a genetics problem with a monohybrid cross?

A
  • have a key
  • have each of the gametes that the parents can give (1 letter)
  • Punnett square stuff
144
Q

How do you find the number of possible gametes with a dihybrid cross?

A

multiply # of possible alleles from each gene pair

gametes in dihybrid crosses have 2 letters

to find specific gametes, do that tree thing

145
Q

What does Mendel’s Law of Independent Assortment state?

A

when two pairs of traits are followed in the same crosses, they’re found to be inherited independently

146
Q

What does the product rule in genetics state?

A
  • the chance of 2 independent events occurring simultaneously is equal to the product of the separate probabilities
147
Q

What are some traits of autosomal recessive inheritance?

A
  • males and females are usually equally affected
  • trait can skip generations and reappear later (though it doesn’t HAVE to)
  • if an offspring’s affected (has the trait), but neither parent is, both parents must be heterozygous
  • unaffected heterozygous individuals are called carriers when we’re discussing a recessive trait
148
Q

What are some traits of autosomal dominant inheritance?

A
  • males and females are usually equally affected
  • condition doesn’t skip a generation and reappear later
  • often when a pedigree is
149
Q

What is the Hardy-Weinberg Law?

A
  • in a single generation of random mating within a population, the binomial distribution of genes is approximated by the equation p^2+2pq+q^2=1
  • p+q=1
  • p=dominant allele frequency
  • q=recessive allele frequency
150
Q

Define epistasis.

A
  • term used to describe the interaction of gnes at different loci (positions) on the chromosomes
  • whenever a gene at one locus influences the expression of a gene at another locus, the first gene is said to be epistatic to the other
  • first set of genes masks/suppresses the expression of the second set of genes
  • second gene can be thought of as an on/off switch (in that example of albinism in rats in section iv)
151
Q

10) Explain what a keystone species is and why they are especially important in an ecosystem.

A
  • a species that can regulate the composition of a whole community
  • without keystone species, ecosystems can collapse
  • keystone species have trophic cascades

trophic cascade is when you have an apex predator controlling the distribution of resources and they lead to these cascades of indirect effects–lots and lots of indirect effects.