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circulatory and respiratory systems Flashcards

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Biology 101 flashcards
1
Q

term

trachea/windpipe

A
  • filters air
  • air passes through here on the way to the lungs
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2
Q

term

bronchi

A

two branches from the trachea that lead to lungs

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3
Q

objective

What are the three types of blood cells and their jobs?

A

red blood cell
* collects carbon dioxide from body cells and brings it back to lungs
white blood cell
* defends against pathogens and cancer cells
platelet
* function with blood clotting

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4
Q

term

alveoli

A
  • air sacs surrounded by capillaries
  • exchange of oxygen (inhaled) and carbon dioxide (exhaled) happens here
  • oxygen diffuses from the alveoli into blood
  • carbon dioxide diffuses out of the blood into alveoli so it can be exhaled
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5
Q

term

diaphragm

A
  • dome-shaped muscle below lungs that controls breathing
  • during inhalation, it flattens out and pulls forwar
  • during exhalation, it expands to force air out of the lungs
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6
Q

objective & terms

What are the differences between arteries and veins?

A

ARTERIES
* carry blood away from the heart
* thicker muscular wall
* smaller opening
* carry high pressure blood
* help to regulate blood pressure
VEINS
* carry blood toward the heart
* valves to prevent backflow of blood
* larger opening (lumen)
* carry low pressure blood
* thinner muscular wall

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7
Q

term

capillary

A
  • very thin blood vessels where nutrients and oxygen diffuse into your body tissues and cells
  • connects small arteries and veins
  • walls are thin to allow for diffusion of nutrients, fluids, and gases, such as carbon dioxide and oxygen between cells and bloodstream
  • function in groups
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8
Q

term

ventricles

A
  • two of four chambers in the heart
  • pumping chambers
  • below the atria
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9
Q

term

atria

A
  • two of four chambers in the heart
  • receiving chambers
  • above the ventricles
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10
Q

objective

Describe the path of blood through the heart.

A

path one (deoxygenated blood)
* deoxygenated blood from the body returns to the right atrium of the heart (blood from the upper body returns through the superior vena cava, while blood from the lower body returns through the inferior vena cava)
* as the right atrium is filled with blood, it contracts and the tricuspid valve opens, which pumps blood to the right ventricle
* when the right ventricle is full, the tricuspid valve closes to prevent blood from flowing back into the right atrium
* the right ventricle contracts, opening the pulmonary valve, which then pumps blood to the pulmonary artery and to lungs
* pulmonary valve closes to prevent blood from flowing back into the right ventricle

path two (oxygenated blood)
* oxygenated blood from the lungs returns through the pulmonary veins to the left atrium
* as the left atrium is filled with blood, it contracts, and the mitral valve opens, which pumps blood into the left ventricle
* as the left ventricle fills, the bicuspid valve closes, the left ventricle contracts, and the aortic valve opens, and oxygenated blood is pumped to the aorta
* the aortic valve closes quickly to prevent blood from flowing back into the heart

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11
Q

objective

Which chamber receives deoxygenated blood?

A

right atrium

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12
Q

objective

Which chamber receives oxygenated blood?

A

left atrium

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13
Q

objective

Which chamber pumps deoxygenated blood to the lungs?

A

right ventricle

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14
Q

Which chamber pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body?

A

left ventricle

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15
Q

term

aorta

A
  • artery that receives oxygenated blood from the left ventricle
  • it then pumps this oxygenated blood to the rest of the body
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16
Q

term

pulmonary artery

A
  • artery that receives deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle
  • it then pumps this deoxygenated blood to the lungs
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17
Q

term

venae cavae

A
  • veins that carry deoxygenated blood to the right atrium
  • superior vena cava carries it from above the diaphragm, while inferior vena cava returns it from below the diaphragm
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18
Q

term

tricuspid valve

A
  • valve between the right atrium and right ventricle
  • opens when right atrium contracts and closes when right ventricle fills with blood
  • prevents backflow of blood
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19
Q

term

bicuspid/mitral valve

A
  • valve between the left atrium and left ventricle
  • opens when left atrium contracts and closes when left ventricle fills with blood
  • prevents backflow of blood
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20
Q

term

semilunar valves

A
  • valves where blood is pumped out of the ventricles into major arteries
  • prevents backflow of blood
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21
Q

term

pulmonary/systemic circulation

A

pulmonary
* blood goes from the right side of the heart to lungs and back to the left side of the heart
systemic
* blood goes from the left side of the heart to rest of body and back to the right side of the heart

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22
Q

term

coronary arteries

A
  • arteries that supply the heart with oxygen and nutrients
    *
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23
Q

objective

What is atherosclerosis and how does high cholesterol and blood pressure affect this process?

A

atherosclerosis=disease of the arteries
* disease of the arterial wall caused by formation of plaques
* cholesterol is deposited in damaged artery wall (this becomes plaque)
* when plaque ruptures, a blood clot can form, leading to blockage of small arteries (this can lead to heart attacks or strokes)
* causes arteries to thin, lose strength, and lose flexibility
* hypertension makes this more likely

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24
Q

term

blood pressure

A
  • the force exerted on a vessel wall by the bloodstream (usually used to refer to arteries close to the heart)
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25
Q

term/objective

systole/diastole

A

systole
* when blood pressure is highest (when the left ventricle is ejecting blood)
diastole
* when blood pressure is lowest (when the left ventricle is receiving blood)

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26
Q
A
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27
Q

objective

What affect does hypertension have on the heart?

A

high blood pressure
* heart must work harder to pump against a greater resistance (can cause heart to weaken over time)
* can damage artery walls and can damage capillaries in many organs (brain, heart, kidney, eyes, etc.)

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28
Q

term

hemorrhagic stroke

A
  • if arteries penetrate brain tissue, they can rupture and cause bleeding
  • cerebral artery aneurysms can cause subarachnoid bleeding
  • small arteries bleed and rupture into brain tissue
  • it’s dangerous because part of the brain is deprived of oxygen
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29
Q

term

What is an ischemic stroke and why is it dangerous?

A
  • in the internal carotid artery, plaque from atherosclerosis causes less blood flow
  • if the plaque ruptures, small pieces of plaque and clotted blood can get to the brain
  • it’s dangerous because if an embolus (a foreign piece of mass) is in the artery, it stops blood flow to part of the brain and the brain is deprived of oxygen
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30
Q

term

pharynx

A

throat

31
Q

term

larynx

A

contains vocal cords/vocal folds

32
Q

term

bronchioles

A

smaller branches of bronchi

33
Q

objective

What is the relationship between intrapulmonary pressure and atmospheric pressure?

A

since air moves from high to low pressure, intrapulmonary pressure must be lower than atmospheric pressure

34
Q

objective

What is the purpose of stretching and recoiling of arteries as blood moves through them?

A

it can help move blood away from the heart

35
Q

objective

How does hypertension affect elastic arteries, muscular arteries, and heart attacks?

A

elastic arteries
* hypertension allows elastic fibers in the tunica media to expand and contract

muscular arteries
* hypertension causes friction on the wall of the artery

heart attack
* chances of it are increased

36
Q

objective

What forms if a plaque ruptures? Why is this dangerous?

A
  • thrombosis (blood clot inside the artery) can occur
  • the larger the blood clot is, the less blood it lets flow
  • it’s dangerous because it can get to the point where the artery is fully blocked, causing artery-supplied tissues to die
37
Q

objective

Describe what happens leading up to a heart attack.

A
  • plaque builds up in coronary arterial walls
  • if it ruptures, a blood clot can form inside the artery
  • this causes less blood to reach the heart
  • if the clot fully blocks the coronary arterial walls, all muscle tissue beneath the clot can die, causing a heart attack
38
Q

objective

What is TIA and why is it dangerous?

A
  • in the internal carotid artery, plaque from atherosclerosis causes less blood flow
  • if the plaque ruptures, small pieces of plaque and clotted blood can get to the brain
  • it’s dangerous because if an embolus (a foreign piece of mass) is in the artery, it stops blood flow to part of the brain and the brain is deprived of oxygen
39
Q

objective

What is an angiogram? How and why is it performed?

A
  • a catheter is inserted into the femoral artery and goes up to the aorta
  • the right coronary artery is ingested with X-ray contrast dye to determine if there is blocking or narrowing in the artery
40
Q

objective

What is angioplasty? How and why is it performed?

A
  • during an angiogram, radiopaque dye is injected to determine if there is blocking or narrowing in the right coronary artery
  • the balloon catheter is inserted over the guide wire and is put into the correct position
  • balloon is inflated, which crushes plaque to continue bloodflow
41
Q

objective

What is a stent? How and why is it used?

A
  • after angioplasty, the balloon is reinflated to use the stent
  • drug-eluting stents have a polymer coating that releases drugs which prevent the artery from narrowing again
42
Q

objective

How does coronary bypass surgery help prevent heart attacks?

A
  • it creates new passages for blood to flow to your heart muscle from other parts of your body, called grafts, and it uses those blood vessels to reroute clogged arteries
43
Q

What are the 3 main parts of nucleotides? How are nucleotides arranged to make DNA molecules?

A
  • nitrogen base (make up the “rungs of the ladder”)
  • phosphate
  • deoxyribose (sugar)
  • sugar and phosphate make up the sides/backbone of the ladder
  • nucleotides are linked together by bonds between phosphate groups and deoxyribose sugars (sides of molecule)

nucleotides make basically polymers which is basically DNA

44
Q

What are the base pairing rules of DNA?

A
  • adenine (A) and thymine (T) are always paired together with 2 hydrogen bonds, as are cytosine (C) and guanine (G), which are held together by 3 hydrogen bonds
  • A:T=C:G
45
Q

Describe what is meant by DNA strands being “antiparallel” to each other.

A
  • the 2 strands of DNA run in opposite directions (antiparallel) - one 5’ to 3’ and the other 3’ to 5’
  • the 5 and 3 refer to carbon atoms on the deoxyribose sugar
46
Q
A
47
Q

Describe how DNA replicates.

A
  • occurs during cell synthesis
  • helicase breaks the hydrogen bonds between base pairs, “unzipping” the 2 DNA strands
  • single strand binding proteins stabilize the unwound parental DNA
  • the leading strand is synthesized continuously in the 5’ —–>3’ direction
  • the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously
  • a short RNA primer is synthesized, which is extended by DNA polymerase to form an Okazaki fragment
  • after the RNA primer is replaced by DNA (by another DNA polymerase
  • the Okazaki fragment is added to the new strand
  • DNA polymerase enzymes make 2 copies of each strand to make 2 new identical DNA molecules

(you need to know helicase, DNA polymerase as the key enzymes involved (many others are involved too, but you do not need to know them for this test)
When a new DNA molecule is made, one strand of the new molecule is conserved from the original “parent” DNA molecule.

48
Q

Explain the importance of cell division to an organism and the reasons why cells must stay small.

A
  • growth of organism (adding more cells)
  • to replace dead or damaged cells (tissue healing and regeneration)
  • the cell’s interior grows at a faster rate than the plasma membrane
  • at a certain point, membrane transport can’t supply the needs of the cell

cells must stay small to stay efficient

49
Q

What are stem cells?

A
  • stem cells are involved in regenerating and replacing cells throughout the body (blood, bone, skin, muscle, etc.)
  • cells that give rise to all of the cells in the body
  • stem cells can divide to create many different types of cells in the body or to make new stem cells
50
Q

Describe the events of each stage of the cell cycle: interphase (G1, S, and G2), each of the stages of mitosis (prophase, metaphase, anaphase, and telophase), and cytokinesis.

A
  • G1 (11 hrs)
    1. cell grows bigger and functions normally
    2. has checkpoints (is the cell big enough? are there enough energy and other reserves? is the DNA damaged?)
    S (8 hrs)
    1. DNA replication occurs (I describe that in another flashcard. I’m not doing it again here.)
    G2 (4 hrs)
    1. cell makes more organelles and proteins for division
    2. has checkpoints (did all our DNA get replicated together? is the DNA damaged?)
    mitosis (1 hr)
    1. cell division occurs in the following phases:
    2. prophase
    2. metaphase
    3. anaphase
    4. telophase
    cytokinesis
    cell divides cytoplasm and organelles

the actual events of mitosis are in another card so dw abt those for this one

51
Q

Describe each of the stages of mitosis.

A

prophase
1. nuclear membrane breaks down
2. spindle fibers made of microtubes begin to lengthen as centrioles move apart
3. chromatin coils into visible chromosomes
metaphase
1. spindle fibers are attached to the centromeres of the chromatids
2. chromosomes are pulled to the equator (or the middle of the cell)
3. nucleus is gone btw
anaphase
1. sister chromatids of duplicated chromosomes are pulled apart as spindle fibers shorten and move to opposite ends of the cell
telophase
1. new nucleus forms around each set of chromosomes
2. cell membrane pinches inward at center
3. chromosomes unwind into chromatin
4. spindle fibers break down

52
Q

How does cytokinesis differ between plants and animals?

A
  • with plant cells it’s different bc a cell plate forms for a new cell wall
  • with animal cells a cleavage furrow forms (indentation in the cell membrane)
53
Q

Define cancer

A

the uncontrolled growth of abnormal cells in the body
* cancer cells can secrete a growth hormone that makes blood vessels divert over to those cancer cells and supply the cancer cells with nutrients, which can take nutrients away from healthy cells (this is angiogenesis)
* this allows it to metastasize and spread
* they don’t respond to normal cell signals
* most cancer cells have at least 60 mutations

54
Q

Describe the role of proto-oncogenes and tumor suppressor genes in the cell cycle. Also explain how these genes can be involved in the development of cancer.

A

proto-oncogenes
* accelerate (start) cell division
* when proto-oncogenes are mutated, they become hyperactive and produce cells that respond too much to growth promoting genes
tumor suppressor genes
* stop cell division
* in the case of p53, a tumor suppressor gene that is mutated in over 1/2 of all cancers, it activates DNA repair (stops cell cycle from G1 going into S phase)
* it also initiates apoptosis (cell suicide) if DNA damage is too much to fix
* if mutated, they get deactivated

when both genes are mutated in the same cell, they can lead to uncontrollable cell division
* one tumor suppressor gene

55
Q

What parts of the cell cycle are most affected by cancer?

A

G1 and mitosis

56
Q

How does cancer change the cell cycle?

A

It shortens it, so doctors have to act quickly

57
Q

How can mutations such as UV radiation affect the cell cycle?

A
  1. it affects G1 and also f%cks up synthesis bc it causes mutations and errors
  2. damaged cells can keep dividing and the damaged DNA could spread
58
Q

When does a cell go into G0? What is G0?

A
  • a phase in which a cell is not preparing to divide
  • a cell can go into G0 during G1
  • cells can enter G0 if they’re damaged to ensure that the damage doesn’t spread
  • if their cells don’t go through apoptosis, tumors could form
59
Q

Why does radiation help treat cancer?

A
  • it damages cancer cells and also messes with the cell division
60
Q

In a plasmodial slime mold, which is one huge cytoplasmic mass with many nuclei, which phase is skipped?

A
  • mitosis because that’s when the cell splits and this thing is not doing that
61
Q

How does chemo help treat cancer?

A

it kills rapidly-dividing cells, which leads to some side effects such as hair loss and nausea

62
Q

What was the purpose of the Hershey-Chase experiment?

A

to prove that DNA carried genetic information

63
Q

What is a bacteriophage?

A

a bacterial virus (DNA molecule coated in protein)

64
Q

What happened in the first and second phases of the Hershey Chase Experiment?

A

phase i
1. phage was produced in a medium which also had S-35 amino acids
2. this led to a phage population with S-35 labeled proteins, but no label in DNA
3. the phage then infected the bacteria by attaching to the outside of the cell and injecting the DNA into the cell, but the protein coat stayed on the outside of the cell
4. the phage in these cells weren’t radioactive
5. when intense shaking occurred, the protein coat was removed, but it didn’t affect phage production within the cell
phase ii
1. phage were produced in a medium which had P-32 nucleotides
2. this led to a phage population with P-32 labeled nucleotides, but no label in the proteins
3. when the phage infected the bacteria, radioactive DNA entered the cell and was found in phage that was later produced in the bacteria

65
Q

Define benign.

A

non cancerous

66
Q

Define malignant.

A

cancerous, growing uncontrollably

67
Q

What could happen if there are errors in the checkpoint cycle of a cell?

A

cell death/cancerous growth

68
Q

What is the human genome? What is the significance of knowing the base sequence of the human genome?

A
  • the complete set of genetic instructions (DNA sequence) in humans
  • it’s important bc it lets us know what amino acids we have
69
Q

Explain the process of transcription. Describe the role of RNA polymerase in this process.

A
  1. transcription factors assemble at a specific promoter region along the DNA
  2. the length of DNA following the promoter is a gene and it contains the recipe for a protein
  3. a mediator protein complex arrives carrying the enzyme RNA polymerase
  4. it manoeuvres the RNA polymerase into place, inserting it with the help of other factors between the strands of the DNA double helix
  5. the assembled collection of all these factors is referred to as the transcription initiation complex and now it’s ready to be activated
  6. the initiation complex requires contact with activator proteins, which bind to specific sequences of DNA known as enhancer regions (these regions may be thousands of base pairs distant from the start of the gene)
  7. contact between the activator proteins and the initiation-complex releases the copying mechanism
  8. the RNA polymerase unzips a small portion of the DNA helix exposing the bases on each strand
  9. only one of the strands is copied
  10. it acts as a template for the synthesis of an RNA molecule which is assembled one sub-unit at a time by matching the DNA leter code on the template strand
  11. the sub-units can be seen entering the enzyme through its intake hole and they’re joined together to form the long messenger RNA chain snaking out of the top

RNA polymerase attaches to the promoter region of the DNA upstream from (before) the gene
RNA polymerase moves along the DNA, copying the DNA bases into a complementary mRNA sequence (U replaces T in the RNA)
When a termination sequence is reached, the RNA polymerase releases the newly formed mRNA
The mRNA is now “edited” before it leaves the nucleus

70
Q

Explain the mRNA editing and splicing process after transcription. Explain how introns allow many different proteins to be produced from a single gene

RNA splicing begins with assembly of helper proteins at the intron/exon borders. These splicing factors act as beacons to guide small nuclear ribo proteins to form a splicing machine, called the spliceosome. The animation is showing this happening in real time. The spliceosome then brings the exons on either side of the intron very close together, ready to be cut. One end of the intron is cut and folded back on itself to join and form a loop. The spliceosome then cuts the RNA to release the loop and join the two exons together. The edited RNA and intron are released and the spliceosome disassembles.

This process is repeated for every intron in the RNA. Numerous spliceosomes, shown here in purple, assemble along the RNA. Each spliceosome removes one intron, releasing the loop before disassembling. In this example, three introns are removed from the RNA to leave the complete instructions for a protein.

A
  1. RNA splicing begins with assembly of helper proteins at the intron/exon borders
  2. these splicing factors act as beacons to guide small nuclear ribo proteins to form a splicing machine, called the spliceosome
  3. the spliceosome then brings the exons on either side of the intron very close together, ready to be cut
  4. 1 end of the intron is cut and folded back on itself to join and form a loop
  5. the spliceosome then cuts the RNA to release the loop and join the 2 exons together
  6. the edited RNA and intron are released and the spliceosome disassembles
71
Q

How do introns allow for many different proteins to be produced from a single gene?

Exons from the same gene can be spliced together in different combinations to make different proteins (see picture below)

A

exons from the same gene can be spliced together in different combos to make different proteins

72
Q

Explain the process of translation – describe the role of the mRNA, tRNA, ribosomes, codons and anticodons in the process.

A
  1. the ribosome is composed of one big and one small sub unit that assemble around the mRNA which then passes through the ribosome like a computer tape
  2. the amino acid building blocks are carried into the ribosome attached to specific tRNAs
  3. the small sub-unit of the ribosome positions the mRNA so that it can be read in groups of 3 letters (a codon)
  4. each codon on the mRNA matches a corresponding anti-codon on the base of a tRNA molecule
  5. the bigger sub-unit of the ribosome removes each amino acid and joins in onto the growing protein chain
  6. as the mRNA is ratcheted through the ribosome, the mRNA sequence is translated into an amino acid sequence
  7. there are three locations inside the ribosome (the A-site, the P-site, and the E-site)
  8. the tRNA enters the ribosome at the A-site and is tested for a codon/anti-codon match with the mRNA
  9. if there’s a correct match, the tRNA is shifted to the P-site and the amino acid it carries is added to the end of the amino acid chain
  10. the mRNA is also ratcheted on 3 nucleotiddes or one codon
  11. the spent tRNA is moved to the E-site and then ejected from the ribosome to be recycled
  12. as protein synthesis proceeds, the finished chain emerges from the ribosome
  13. it folds up into a precise shape, determined by the exact order of amino acids
73
Q

Transcribe and translate this code: TACGCACATTTACGTACGCGC

A
  • AUGCGUGUAAAUGCAUGCGCC
  • MetArgValAsnAlaCysAla
74
Q

Assume that the DNA sequence above is part of the instructions to make a protein that prevents cells from dividing uncontrollably. What would happen if the fourth base was changed to an A instead of a T? Explain by talking about the (1) mRNA code and (2) the amino acid sequence and then explain how that could affect the structure of the protein. Finally, describe why this is significant to the person in which this process is happening.

A
  • a point mutation would occur (a point mutation btw is a change in 1 base)
  • in this case this would be substitution

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