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ANES > FINALS > Flashcards

FINALS Flashcards

1
Q

Healthy non smoking

A

ASA I

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2
Q

Current smoker, pregnant and obesity

A

ASA II

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3
Q

Severe systemic disease, active hepatitis and implanted pacemaker

A

ASA III

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4
Q

constant threat to life, ongoing cardiac ischemia or severe valve dysfunction

A

ASA IV

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5
Q

not expected to survive without operation, multiple organ failure

A

ASA V

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6
Q

brain dead

A

ASA V

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7
Q

consequence of stable angina

A

chest discomfort and arrythmia

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8
Q

con of heart failure

A

pulmonary edema

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9
Q

asthma

A

acute respiratory distress

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10
Q

con of epilepsy

A

seizure

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11
Q

determine the patient’s ability to physically tolerate the stresses

A

physical evaluation or psychological

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12
Q

types of sphygmomanometer

A

mercury
aneroid
automatic BP monitors

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13
Q

Temperature that has infection

A

38-38.8 degrees

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14
Q

pulse rate that has infection

A

100 bpm- mild
>100- severe

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15
Q

repisratory rate that has infection

A

18-20 bpm and has airway obstruction

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16
Q

normal pulse rate

A

60-80 bpm

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17
Q

normal respiratory rate

A

14-16 cpm

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18
Q

techniques in psychosedation during therapy

A

nondrug techniques
pharmacosedation
GA

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19
Q

short duration LA

A

mepivaccaine

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20
Q

intermediate duration

A

lidocaine and articaine

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21
Q

long duration

A

bupivaccaine with epinephrine

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22
Q

complications that are easier to prevent

A

local complications

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23
Q

more complicated to manage

A

systemic complications

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24
Q

form of neurogenic shock

A

syncope

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25
Q

management of fainting

A

discontinue any procedure

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26
Q

extremely rare complication because of small gauge

A

needle breakage

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27
Q

weakest point of the needle

A

hub

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28
Q

careless injection, dull needle and rapid depostion

A

pain on injection

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29
Q

pH of solution, rapid injection and contaminated LA

A

burning on injection

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30
Q

prolonged numbness because of direct contact with the nerve and hemorrhage around neural sheath

A

parasthesia

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31
Q

how many weeks or year for the LA resolution during parathesia

A

8 weeks, 2 months or 1 year

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32
Q

spasm of the masticatory muscle

A

trismus

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33
Q

what is the cure for trismus

A

analgesic, diazepam 10 mg in 12 hrs

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34
Q

common technique where hematoma occurs

A

PSAN block

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35
Q

extremely rare occurence using contaminated needle

A

infection

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36
Q

swelling of the tissue can caused by angioedema

A

edema

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37
Q

epithelial desquamation because of the application of topical anesthetic

A

sloughing of the tissue

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38
Q

caused by the use of the long acting local anesthetic in patients undergoing shorter procedures

A

trauma to lips and tongue

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39
Q

management to trauma to lips

A

analgesic for pain and antibiotic when infected

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40
Q

for the sensory nerve

A

parasthesia

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41
Q

for the motor nerve

A

paralysis

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42
Q

this nerve is affected when doing IAN block and injected too posteriorly

A

facial nerve analysis

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43
Q

drug produces elevated levels of the agent in the blood

A

toxicity

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44
Q

it undergoes hydrolysis

A

ester

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45
Q

metabolized by enzyme cholinesterase

A

plasma

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46
Q

if the px has liver disease you can administered?

A

small dose of ester because there is no alternative

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47
Q

3 sympotms of toxicity

A

excitation
drowsiness
myocradial depression

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48
Q

sign of epinephrine overdose

A

elevated BP
elevated heart rate
possible cardiac arrythmias

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49
Q

hypersensitive state and it is not dose related

A

allergy

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50
Q

management for allergy

A

administer diphenhydramine hydrochloride

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51
Q

dermatologic reaction in allergy

A

urticaria and angioedema

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52
Q

place the patient semi erect, give oxygen and administer 0.3 ml of epinephrine

A

bronchial asthma

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53
Q

the px is positioned supine and possible of cricothyrotomy

A

laryngeal edema

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54
Q

drug reaction that cannot be explain

A

idiosyncrasy

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55
Q

test if any intravascular was hit

A

aspiration

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56
Q

most common dental syringe in dentistry

A

breech loading,metallic, catridge, aspirating

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57
Q

aka intraligamentary injection or PDL injection

A

pressure syringe

58
Q

needle less injection and calibrated to deliver 0.05 to 0-.2 ml solution

A

jet injector

59
Q

prevents oxidation of the vasipressor by oxygen

A

sodium bisulfate

60
Q

makes the solution isotonic

A

sodium chloride

61
Q

possesses bateriostatic, fungiastic and antioxidanr properties

A

methylparaben

62
Q

transmits the sensation of pain

A

sensory neuron

63
Q

respond to simulation

A

dendritic zone

64
Q

distribute the sensory impulses form interpretation

A

axon

65
Q

provides metabolic support

A

cell body

66
Q

impulses are in the form of electrical action potential

A

peripheral nerves

67
Q

slow forward creeping process

A

unmyelinated nerve

68
Q

means of current leaps from node to node

A

myelinated nerve

69
Q

physio anatomical process of pain

A

pain perception

70
Q

psychophysiological process of pain

A

pain reaction

71
Q

hyporeactive

A

high pain threshold

72
Q

hyperractive

A

low pain threshold

73
Q

unpleasant sensation

A

psychogenic pain

74
Q

some distance from the site of the injury

A

referred pain

75
Q

sharp, burning and instense

A

neurogenic pain

76
Q

difuse and difficult to localized

A

vascular pain

77
Q

movement of the part intensifies the discomfort

A

muscle pain

78
Q

speed the onset of its action

A

sodium bicarbonate or CO2

79
Q

pH of LA w/o epi

A

6.5

80
Q

effectively stops nerve impulses propagation

A

minimal blocking concentration

81
Q

3 succesive nodes or ranvier must be blocked

A

myelinated nerves

82
Q

diamter oft he nerve and span 3 nodes that must be blocked by LA

A

critical blocking length

83
Q

covers each nerve fiber

A

endoneurium

84
Q

covers the fasciculi

A

perineuruim

85
Q

carrying nutrient vessels

A

epineurium

86
Q

outer layer of epineurium

A

epineural sheath

87
Q

anesthesize the proximal structures

A

mantle fibers

88
Q

anesthesize the distal structures

A

core fibers

89
Q

what fibers lose LA earlier

A

mantle fiber

90
Q

it is seen in LA with vasoconstrictor

A

sodium bisulfite

91
Q

seen in vial

A

methyl paraben

92
Q

what LA use if the px is allergic both to sodium bisulfite and methyl paraben

A

3% mepivaccaine and 2% prilocaine

93
Q

what nerve block increased risk of nerve parasthesia

A

IAN and lingual nerve block

94
Q

what LA is not used for children because of prolonged duration of action

A

bupivaccaine

95
Q

careful weighing the risk of using it to its potential benefit

A

relative contraindication

96
Q

no circumstances should the druig be administered to the patient

A

absolute contraindication

97
Q

all upper molars except MB root is 1st molar

A

posterior superior alveolar nerve block
PSAN

98
Q

from MB root of first molar to 2ND PM

A

middle superior alveolar nerve block
MSAN

99
Q

anterior teeth and supporting structures bucally

A

anterior superior nerve block
ASAN

100
Q

branches of dental plexus of maxilla

A

PSAN, MSAN , ASAN

101
Q

supply the lower eyelid

A

Inferior palpebral nerve

102
Q

supply the lateral of the nose

A

nasal nerve

103
Q

supply the upper lip and its purely sensory

A

superior labial nerve

104
Q

does not have pulpal innervation from canine to canine and exits the incisive foramen

A

nasoplatine nerve

105
Q

mucosa and gingiva and bony structures, distal to canine up to posterior part of the hard palata

A

greater palatine nerve or anterior palatine nerve

106
Q

pulp and root of the root up to buccal mucosa (lips)
insertion in height of mucobuccal fold
0.5-10.5 ml

A

supraperiostial injection or local infiltration

107
Q

maxillary incisors to MB root of 1st molar
1ml of the solution

A

infraorbital nerve block

108
Q

maxillary PM to MB root of first molar
height of mucobuccal fold of the 2nd PM
0.9-1.2ml

A

MSAN middle superior nerve block

109
Q

all maxillary molars except the MB root of 1st molar
height of the mucobuccal fold of maxillary 2nd M
0.9-1.8ml

A

posterior superior nerve block
PSAN

110
Q

complications of the PSAN

A

hematoma and mandibular anesthesia

111
Q

approach the incisive papilla and has blotching
0.2-0.3ml

A

nasopalatine nerve block

112
Q

greater palatine foramen opposite the 2nd M
0.45ml- 0.6ml

A

greater palatine nerve block

113
Q

complications in greater palatine nerve block

A

ischemia of the soft palate
anesthesia of the soft palate

114
Q

reported by friedman and hochman
provides pulpal anesthesia from maxillary incisors to premolars from single injection on the PALATAL area
1.4-1.8ml
contact point between first and 2nd PM

A

anterior middle superior alveolar nerve block
AMSAN

115
Q

penetrates more deeply
1.4-1.8ml

A

anterior uperior alveolar nerve block-palatal

116
Q

most frustrating, can anesthesize the IAN, mental,incisive and lingual nerve

A

Inferior alveolar nerve block

117
Q

landmark of IANB

A

coronoid notch, 6-10mm above the occlusal plane

118
Q

didn’t change the position then deposit 1.5ml while contact the bone then another 0.1-0.2 ml for the lingual nerve

A

direct contact

119
Q

deposit 1.5ml of solution while contact in bone, withdraw then swing it on the other side

A

indirect technique

120
Q

very shallow technique, it will contact the bone

A

long buccal nerve block

121
Q

large foramen the bifurcates

A

type1 bifid IAN

122
Q

bifurcates then fused again

A

type 2 bifid IAN

123
Q

most difficult and has two mandibular foramen

A

type 4 bifid IAN

124
Q

purely soft tissue, no pulpal and lips only
0.6 of solution

A

mental nerve block

125
Q

pulpal anesthesia to the premolars,canine and incisors. it needs to massage to anesthesize the incisive nerve

A

incisive nerve block

126
Q

insert the needle in the sulcus of the tooth

A

intraligamentary injection

127
Q

pulpal exposure only

A

intrapulpal

128
Q

infiltrate the bone through and through

A

intraosseous injection

129
Q

causative microorganism of infective endocarditis

A

streptococcal,staphylococcal and candidal endocarditis

130
Q

common cause of IE in normal oral flora

A

viridans streptococci

131
Q

not normal oral flora associated with IV abuse

A

staphylococcus

132
Q

drug of choice in IE

A

penincillin

133
Q

no infection but the patient is prone to infection

A

prophylactic

134
Q

antibiotic given because there is an existing infection

A

therapeutic

135
Q

in 1990, it is the alternatice that has GI upset effect

A

erythromycin

136
Q

alternative to penincilliin allergy in 1997

A

clindamycin

137
Q

it is not recommended for patients with history of anaphylaxis, angioedema or uticaria

A

cephalosphorins

138
Q

140 or less/ 90 or greater, uncommon

A

isolated diastolic HPN

139
Q

140 or higher/ 90 or less, risk factor for CVD

A

isolated systolic HPN

140
Q

BP is more or equal to 180/110

A

uncontrolled HPN (ASA III)

141
Q

avoid using erythromycin and clarithromycin

A

controlled HPN

142
Q

precordial pain radiating to the left arm, neck and jaw

A

angina pectoris

ANES (7 decks)

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