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Pharmacology-NRSE-3010-001 > FinalExamReview1 > Flashcards

FinalExamReview1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is an adverse effect of opioid therapy?

A

respiratory depression

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2
Q

What type of toxic effect may cause anorexia, green/yellow visual halos, and bradycardia?

A

digoxin toxicity

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3
Q

What is contraindication to consume while taking calcium channel blockers and statins?

A

grapefruit juice

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4
Q

What lab may help determine if the patient is experiencing rhabdomyolysis?

A

creatinine kinase

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5
Q

What drug lowers the surface tension of the stool?

A

docusate sodium

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6
Q

While taking anti-gout medications what should individuals increase ?

A

fluids/water

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7
Q

Why should a transdermal nitro patch be removed at night/while sleeping?

A

prevent tolerance

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8
Q

What is a contraindication of epoetin alpha, as well as a potential adverse effect?

A

hypertension

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9
Q

How long should a clonidine transdermal patch be left in place?

A

1 week (7 days)

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10
Q

What class of medications should G herbs not be taken with?

A

anticoagulants

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11
Q

What class of medications should be avoided while taking a PDE5 inhibitor? Why?

A

nitrates due to the risk of fatal hypotension

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12
Q

Why is 81 mg baby aspirin generally given?

A

prophylactic prevention of MI

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13
Q

What should the nurse attain as soon as they suspect hyper or hypoglycemia?

A

blood glucose

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14
Q

What adverse effect occurs with both vancomycin and gentamicin?

A

nephrotoxicity

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15
Q

Besides those listed in SLUDGES, what are other effects that may occur with cholinergic therapy?

A

bradycardia and dyspnea

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16
Q

When may Reye’s Syndrome occur?

A

if aspirin is given to a child with a viral illness

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17
Q

What adverse effect of vancomycin causes flushing of face/neck, hypotension, and tachycardia?

A

Red Man Syndrome

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18
Q

What pregnancy category is warfarin?

A

Pregnancy Category X

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19
Q

What might petechiae indicate?

A

bleeding

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20
Q

What is the antidote for heparin toxicity?

A

protamine sulfate

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21
Q

What adverse effect of tamoxifen therapy should be reported immediately?

A

blood clots

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22
Q

What is a common side effect of ACE inhibitors?

A

dry, irritating cough

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23
Q

What is the cross sensitivity with cephalosporins?

A

penicillins

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24
Q

What medication is given to treat hepatic encephalopathy?

A

lactulose

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25
Q

When should glucagon be given?

A

patients with hypoglycemia that are unconscious

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26
Q

What is an expected side effect of taking metformin?

A

weight loss

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27
Q

How should ferrous sulfate be taken to prevent teeth staining?

A

through a straw

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28
Q

what odor is expected with acetylcysteine and should not cause the pt/nurse to be alarmed?

A

rotten eggs

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29
Q

What class of drugs requires patients to sit upright for at least 30 mins after taking it?

A

bisphosphonates
(-dronate)

30
Q

Why is completing a medication reconciliation necessary?

A

prevent drug interactions

31
Q

What does oprelvekin do to the platelet count in the blood?

A

increases platelet count

32
Q

When it necessary to evaluate the peak of a transfusion medication?

A

30 mins after the completion of the infusion

33
Q

what are possible adverse effects of taking PPI’s long-term?

A

pneumonia, osteoporosis, rebound hypersecretion, hepatotoxicity, hypomagnesemia

34
Q

What is a contraindication to NSAID therapy?

A

PUD (peptic ulcer disease)

35
Q

What is not used as monotherapy for hypertension in African American patients?

A

ACE inhibitors

36
Q

What drugs can decrease the absorption of most drugs and should be taken 1-2 hrs before or after other drugs?

A

antacids

37
Q

What would a decrease in stomach pain indicate in a patient taking misoprostol?

A

effective treatment

38
Q

What organ is heavily impacted by antitubercular drugs?

A

liver

39
Q

What is a desirable effect of beta blockers? Within what range does this no longer become desirable?

A

decreased HR, and HR < 50 bpm

40
Q

How should hypoglycemia be prevented in those taking sulfonylureas?

A

patient should eat

41
Q

What are the contraindications to anticholinergic therapy?

A

BPH and narrow angle glaucoma

42
Q

What can decrease the effectiveness of H2 blockers?

A

smoking

43
Q

What adverse effects that may occur with corticosteroid treatment?

A

infections, osteoporosis, and hyperglycemia

44
Q

What diuretic is often used as first line treatment for HTN?

A

hydrochlorothiazide

45
Q

Why are sublingual nitroglycerin tablets given?

A

acute chest pain

46
Q

If a patient is experiencing N/V, jaundice, anorexia, dark urine and abdominal discomfort, what might you suspect they are experiencing?

A

hepatotoxicity

47
Q

What education should be provided to pts taking medications that may cause orthostatic hypotension?

A

change positions slowly and dangle legs

48
Q

what preexisting condition should we avoid giving decongestants to?

A

HTN

49
Q

What may be caused by potassium sparing diuretics and ACE inhibitors?

A

hyperkalemia

50
Q

What adverse effect may occur with fluoroquinolones?

A

tendon rupture and arthropathy

51
Q

What class of medication is diltiazem? What effects may occur with this med?

A

calcium channel blocker and bradycardia and peripheral edema

52
Q

What safety precautions should patients taking heparin and warfarin take to prevent bleeding?

A

soft bristle toothbrush, electric razor; they can also wear medic alert bracelet

53
Q

What is required by the nurse before administering digoxin?

A

obtain an apical pulse; must be > 60 bpm

54
Q

What is a major side effect of opioids that may also become an adverse effect if not treated?

A

constipation

55
Q

What is an adverse effect of mannitol?

A

heart failure

56
Q

What is used to treat anaphylaxis?

A

epinephrine

57
Q

What may happen to the effectiveness of birth control while taking antibiotics or seizure medications?

A

Decrease effectiveness of oral contraceptives, so barrier method is important

58
Q

How does sucralfate work?

A

by forming a protective layer over ulcers, allowing them to heal

59
Q

What lab may increase the risk for digoxin toxicity?

A

hypokalemia

60
Q

What lab can help determine appropriate kidney function?

A

creatinine

61
Q

What symptom may occur if a patient is experiencing salicylism?

A

tinnitus

62
Q

What medication is given as the antidote for hypermagnesemia?

A

calcium gluconate

63
Q

What intake should be increased while taking loop diuretics?

A

potassium

64
Q

How can peripheral neuropathy be prevented in patients taking INH (isoniazid)?

A

taking pyridoxine (B6)

65
Q

what should be avoided while taking methylxanthines?

A

caffeine

66
Q

When should levothyroxine be taken?

A

1hr before breakfast and 4hrs before other meds

67
Q

When is a trough level taken?

A

just before the next dose of medication

68
Q

What should be consumed while taking ferrous sulfate to enhance absorption?

A

Vitamin C/orange juice

69
Q

Which MDI should be used first in respiratory pts?

A

bronchodilators (albuterol)

70
Q

What adverse effect may occur while taking albuterol?

A

palpitations

Pharmacology-NRSE-3010-001 (12 decks)

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