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Pharmacology-NRSE-3010-001 > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is pharmacokinetics?

A

what the body does to the drug?

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2
Q

What does the acronym ADME represent?

A

absorption
distribution
metabolism
excretion

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3
Q

What is disintegration?

A

break down of a drug into small particles

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4
Q

Which part of ADME describes how a drug is broken down?

A

metabolism

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5
Q

What part of ADME describes drug movement after administration?

A

absorption

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6
Q

What part of ADME describes where a medicine will go (movement to body tissues)?

A

distribution

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7
Q

What part of ADME describes how a medication will leave?

A

excretion

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8
Q

What is an important consideration for enteric-coated drugs?

A

Never crush them, as this will alter the absorption process

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9
Q

What happens to half-life during kidneys/liver dysfunction?

A

half-life increases

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10
Q

What is the primary site of metabolism for most drugs?

A

liver

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11
Q

Which route of drug absorption has the greatest bioavailability?

A

intravenous

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12
Q

What is dissolution?

A

combining of small drug particles with liquid to form a solution

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13
Q

What kind of drugs skip disintegration and dissolution?

A

liquid oral solution

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14
Q

Which populations generally have a more difficult time absorbing medications due to the alkaline pH of their gastric contents?

A

very young children and older adults

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15
Q

What kind of drugs are affected by the first pass effect?

A

orally administered

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16
Q

What is known as the percentage of a drug available for activity?

A

bioavailability

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17
Q

What are prodrugs?

A

inactive medications that become active once in the body

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18
Q

What is an agonist?

A

drug that binds to a receptor, causing a normal reaction

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19
Q

What is an antagonist?

A

blocks receptor site and prevents an action

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20
Q

What does selective mean?

A

binds to specific receptors

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21
Q

What is an adrenergic?

A

drug that mimics the sympathetic nervous system ex. norepinephrine

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22
Q

What does nonselective mean?

A

binds to all receptors

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23
Q

What are sympathetic responses of adrenergic agonists/sympathomimetics?

A

dilated pupils, dilated bronchioles, vessel constriction, bladder/uterine relaxation

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24
Q

When are adrenergic agonists often used?

A

for patients in shock (low BP)

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25
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine on Alpha 1 receptors?

A

vasoconstriction (this increases BP)

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26
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine on Beta 2 receptors?

A

bronchodilation

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26
Q

What is the effect of epinephrine on Beta 1 receptors?

A

increased HR

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26
Q

What lab would be especially important to monitor in individuals with diabetes after receiving epinephrine? Why?

A

blood glucose. It stimulates glycogenolysis

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27
Q

What medications can decrease the effect of epinephrine?

A

beta blockers

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27
Q

What are the side effects of epinephrine (an adrenergic agonist/sympathomimetic)?

A

hypertension, tachycardia, dizziness, headache, urinary retention, sweating, tremors, hyperglycemia

28
Q

What are the adverse reactions of epinephrine (an adrenergic agonist/sympathomimetic?

A

Dysrhythmias, heart attack, paresthesia, oliguria, dyspnea, pulmonary edema numbness, extravasation (medication leaking from vein)

29
Q

What are the nursing interventions for clients given epinephrine?

A

continuous bedside cardiac monitoring, BP and HR, monitor urine output, chest pain, blood glucose, and IV site (extravasation)

30
Q

What drug is a Beta 2 agonist?

A

albuterol

31
Q

What are the side effects of albuterol (a Beta 2 agonist)?

A

tremors, restlessness, nervousness and dizziness

31
Q

What are adverse effects caused by albuterol?

A

reflex tachycardia, dysrhythmias,

32
Q

What do adrenergic antagonists/sympatholytics do?

A

inhibit release of epinephrine and norepinephrine, reducing their effect (used to lower BP)

32
Q

How can Beta blockers be recognized?

A

suffix -olol or -lol

33
Q

What are the contraindications for nonselective Beta blockers (Propranolol, Sotalol, Timolol)? Why?

A

respiratory disorders (asthma, heart failure). bronchoconstriction can occur.

34
Q

What drugs are in the Alpha 1 adrenergic ANTagonist class?

A

suffix -osin (Prazosin, alfuzosin, doxazosin, terazosin, tamsulosin)

35
Q

What are examples of adrenergic agonists?

A

epinephrine, norepinephrine, amphetamine, ephedrine, and pseudoephedrine

36
Q

What medications are Beta-2 agonists?

A

albuterol, levalbuterol, metaproterenol, and terbutaline,

37
Q

What is tamsulosin used for?

A

used to treat BPH

38
Q

What medications are selective Beta blockers (blocks only Beta 1-carioselective)?

A

metoprolol and atenolol

39
Q

How should patients end use of selective Beta blockers? Why?

A

taper usage (end slowly). Could cause rebound myocardial excitation (MI) and hypertension

40
Q

What specific symptoms should be monitored for patients on selective beta-blockers(metoprolol)?

A

activity intolerance, dyspnea, and edema

41
Q

What patient education should be given for those prescribed Alpha 1 adrenergic blockers/antagonists (tamsulosin, prazosin)?

A

orthostatic hypotension, dizziness.
Patient should shift positions slowly and dangle legs off bed before standing up.

42
Q

What mnemonic can be used to remember the effect of cholinergic agonists (metoclopramide, pilocarpine, bethanechol chloride)?

A

SLUDGES
S-salivation
L-lacrimation
U-urination
D-diarrhea
G- GI distress
E- emesis
S- sweating

43
Q

A diabetic individual has recently been prescribed a Nonselective beta blocker (ex. propranolol), what education should the nurse give concerning hypoglycemia?

A

patient should avoid gauging their sugar (having a hypoglycemic episode) by their heart “racing,” as these meds lower HR, so this symptom of hypoglycemia is masked

44
Q

Prior to administering metoprolol, what should the nurse assess? Why?

A

patient BP and HR, baseline EKG, blood glucose
-this is a Beta 1 adrenergic blocker, which lowers HR and BP

44
Q

What medication should a patient taking prazosin avoid? Why?

A

phenylephrine (otc cold meds), because it stimulates an increase in BP, which is the opposite purpose of the prescribed prazosin

45
Q

Scopolamine is often prescribed as a transdermal patch for what condition?

A

motion sickness

46
Q

What patient education should be given for placement and use of a transdermal scopolamine patch?

A

place behind ear 4hrs before activity that causes motion sickness, and can be left for 3 days

47
Q

What grocery product should be avoided in older individuals due to its impact on drug metabolism (especially calcium channel blockers)?

A

grapefruit juice

48
Q

What is the enteral route?

A

administered orally

49
Q

What is the first pass effect?

A

phenomenon by which drug passes through the liver (gets partially metabolized & becomes less active) before it reaches its site of action, reducing the % of active drug at specific site or in systemic circulation

50
Q

What are pharmacodynamics?

A

what the drug does to the body; drug mechanism of action

51
Q

Where are enteric coated tablets metabolized?

A

small intestine

52
Q

What is known as the highest serum concentration of a drug within the body?

A

peak

53
Q

What is known as the lowest serum concentration of a drug within the body?

A

trough

54
Q

When should the peak of a medication administered via IV infusion be monitored?

A

30-60 mins after completion of the infusion

54
Q

How should oral medications be administered for children?

A

oral syringe, slowly, in the cheek

54
Q

what does the pregnancy category D mean?

A

risk to the fetus

55
Q

Why are medication reconciliations important to perform?

A

prevent duplications, omissions, or drug interactions

56
Q

Which pregnancy category is considered safe?

A

category A

56
Q

Prior to administration, how many times should the nurse check that they are giving correct drug?

A

3 checks! (2 before entering room and 1 while scanning before giving)

57
Q

What action should be taken if a patient refuses a medication?

A

document refusal, but educate on misinformation, explain risk of not taking medication, document explaining risk, and notify provider

58
Q

What must be included on a medication order?

A

name of med, strength, dose, route, frequency, duration of administration, and special instructions

59
Q

How should patient be positioned prior to giving oral meds?

A

high fowlers

60
Q

What does pregnancy category C indicate?

A

human risk cannot be ruled out

61
Q

How soon after oral administration should peak serum medication levels be checked?

A

2-3hrs after consumption

62
Q

When should serum peak be checked for IM injection?

A

2-4hrs after injection

63
Q

What effect do anticholinergics have on the body?

A

cant see, cant pee, cant spit, cant poop

64
Q

A pt is prescribed scopolamine. It is most important for the nurse to assess the pt for a history of which condition?

A

Glaucoma

Pharmacology-NRSE-3010-001 (12 decks)

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