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Applied Physiology > Final Review Questions > Flashcards

Final Review Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Enkephalins are produced by neurons in the descending CNS pathways. Increased levels of enkephalins will reduce nociception. What mechanism would be utilized by enkephalins to reduce pain?
A. inhibit excitatory interneurons
B. stimulate excitatory interneurons
C. inhibit inhibitory interneurons
D. stimulate inhibitory interneurons

A

D. stimulate inhibitory interneurons

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2
Q

How is it that the patient cannot be anesthetized with lidocaine?
A. The patient has a low number of TTX-S voltage-gated Na+ channels.
B. The patient has a high number of TTX-S voltage-gated Na+ channels.
C. Lidocaine is unable to bind and inhibit TTX-S voltage-gated Na+ channels.
D. Inflammation is causing an increase in response from TTX-R voltage-gated Na+ channels.
E. Prostaglandins increase the stimulatory response by increasing Ca2+ flux.
F. The concentration of lidocaine is insufficient to inhibit TTX-S voltage-gated Na+ channels.

A

D. Inflammation is causing an increase in response from TTX-R voltage-gated Na+ channels.

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3
Q

An increase of intracellular sodium levels in nociceptors is caused by the activation of which pathway?
A. heat activation of vanilloid receptors
B. ATP activation of purinergic receptors
C. proton activation of acid sensing ion channels
D. bradykinin activation of protein kinase A and protein kinase C

A

C. proton activation of acid sensing ion channels

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4
Q

What activates vaniloid receptors?

A

Noxious heat

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5
Q

What activates purinergic receptors?

A

ATP

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6
Q

What activates acid sensing ion channels?

A

Na+ (sodium)

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7
Q

What activates bradykinin activation of protein kinase A and protein kinase C?

A

Ca2+ (calcium)

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8
Q
  1. Which of the following has the highest concentration of nociceptor nerve endings?
    A. enamel
    B. dentin
    C. odontoblastic layer
    D. dentinal tubules
A

B. dentin

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9
Q
  1. What is a consequence of injecting lidocaine into the oral cavity for local anesthesia?
    A. Inhibitory interneurons will be stimulated.
    B. Excitatory interneurons will be stimulated.
    C. Na+ flux on the projection neuron will be directly inhibited.
    D. Noxious stimuli will not induce Ca2+ flux at the site of injury.
    E. Release of glutamate at the respective dorsal horn will be significantly reduced.
A

E. Release of glutamate at the respective dorsal horn will be significantly reduced.

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10
Q
  1. A region of the lung has low concentration of CO2 and high concentration of O2. How will air flow and blood flow change to balance gas concentration in this region? Air flow will ___ and blood flow will ___.
    A. increase, increase
    B. increase, decrease
    C. decrease, increase
    D. decrease, decrease
    E. There will be no change in air or blood flow
A

C. Decrease, increase

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11
Q
  1. Which muscle(s) contract(s) for expiration during eupnea? (SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWER(S).)
    A. Diaphragm
    B. External intercostal
    C. Abdominal muscles
    D. Internal intercostal
    E. None of the above
A

E. none of the above

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12
Q

Which muscles will contract during eupnea?

A

NONE
The muscles for inhalation will just relax

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13
Q

What is eupnea?

A

NORMAL RESPIRATORY BREATHING

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14
Q

What muscles are involved with inhalation?

A
  1. Diaphragm
  2. External intercostal muscles
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15
Q

What muscles are involved with FORCED exhalation?

A
  1. Abdominal muscles
  2. Internal intercostal muscles
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16
Q
  1. How can the rate of oxygen exchange between the alveoli and blood capillaries be increased?
    A. Increase the diffusion coefficient by increasing the number of oxygen transport channels.
    B. Increase the partial pressure gradient by breathing air with higher oxygen levels.
    C. Dilate the airways to increase the air flow rate.
    D. Increase respiratory rate.
    E. Decrease the anatomic dead space.
A

B. Increase the partial pressure gradient by breathing air with higher oxygen levels.

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17
Q
  1. How would increasing tidal volume affect the anatomic dead space?
    A. increases anatomic dead space
    B. decreases anatomic dead space
    C. has no effect on anatomic dead space
A

C. has no effect on anatomic dead space

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18
Q
  1. How is the majority of O2 carried in blood?
    A. dissolved in plasma
    B. dissolved in cytosol of RBC
    C. bound to plasma proteins
    D. bound to hemoglobin
A

D. bound to hemoglobin

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18
Q

Low O2 levels in the alveoli will cause the pulmonary arterioles to ___. Low O2 levels in the tissues will cause systemic arterioles to ___.
A. constrict, constrict
B. constrict, dilate
C. dilate, constrict
D. dilate, dilate

A

B. constrict, dilate

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19
Q
  1. Contraction of the diaphragm is mostly regulated by neurons in which respiratory center?
    A. Botzinger complex
    B. pre-Botzinger complex
    C. ventral respiratory group
    D. dorsal respiratory group
A

D. dorsal respiratory group

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20
Q

What are the major groups involved in respiration in the medulla?

A
  1. Botzinger’s complex
  2. Ventral respiratory group
  3. Dorsal respiratory group
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21
Q

What are the type of neurons in the Botzinger’s complex?

A

EXPIRATORY NEURONS

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22
Q

What are the type of neurons in the ventral respiratory group?

A

BOTH EXPIRATORY AND INSPIRATORY NEURONS

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23
Q

What are the type of neurons in the dorsal respiratory group?

A

INSPIRATORY NEURONS
(control diaphragm)

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24
Q

The activity of the carotid bodies increases when the PO2 is ___ and/or the PCO2 is ___.
A. low, high
B. low, low
C. high, high
D. high, low

A

A. low, high

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25
Q
  1. How does hyperventilation affect the patient’s inspiratory reserve volume? (Comparisons are to resting condition.)
    A. Increase
    B. Decrease
    C. No effect
A

A. Increase

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25
Q
  1. What is the function of carbonic anhydrase?
    A. increase the affinity of hemoglobin to carbon dioxide
    B. increase the PCO2 of blood
    C. decrease the PCO2 of blood
    D. catalyze interconversion between CO2 + H2O and H+ + HCO3-
A

D. catalyze interconversion between CO2 + H2O and H+ + HCO3-

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26
Q
  1. How does hyperventilation affect the patient’s expiratory reserve volume? (Comparisons are to resting condition.)
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. no effect
A

A. increase

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27
Q
  1. Blood clot is slowly dissolved by ___.
    A. thrombin
    B. prostacyclin
    C. plasmin
    D. calcium
    E. plasminogen
A

C. plasmin

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28
Q
  1. Extrinsic blood coagulation pathway is triggered by ___.
    A. factor XII (Hageman factor) activated by exposure to collagen
    B. heparin
    C. tissue plasminogen activator
    D. tissue thromboplastin
    E. Ca2+ ions
A

D. tissue thromboplastin

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29
Q
  1. Hemophilia results from ___.
    A. deficiency of platelets
    B. inadequate hemoglobin production
    C. vitamin B12 deficiency
    D. inability to produce one of the factors in the coagulation cascade
    E. excess production of heparin
A

D. inability to produce one of the factors in the coagulation cascade

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30
Q

What is hemophilia?

A

Excessive bleeding

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31
Q
  1. Prostacyclin ___ .
    A. activates blood clotting cascade
    B. induces vasoconstriction of an injured vessel
    C. inhibits platelet activation and aggregation
    D. is released by activated platelets
    E. dissolves blood clot
A

C. inhibits platelet activation and aggregation

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32
Q
  1. A patient visited a dental office to have tooth #19 extracted. The extraction proceeded as planned and the patiet was sent home. Three weeks later, the patient was back in the office complaining of pain. Upon oral examination, the tissue had healed properly and there appeared to be no visible damage or inflammation. What is the best classification of the patient’s pain?
    A. physiological pain
    B. clinical pain
    C. persistent pain
    D. This patient must be lying about the pain as the tissue had healed.
A

C. persistent pain

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32
Q
  1. Which type of anemia is caused by a genetic abnormality? (SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWER(S).)
    A. pernicious
    B. hemorrhagic
    C. sickle-cell
    D. thalassemia
    E. polycythemia
A

B. hemorrhagic
C. sickle-cell

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33
Q

What is physiological pain?

A

sharp localized pain
fast pain (A delta fiber)
slow pain (C fiber)

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34
Q

What is clinical pain?

A

Inflammatory pain

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35
Q

What is persistent pain?

A

Chronic
Difficult to localize
Often leads to behavior that diminish quality of life

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36
Q
  1. Facial pain is transmitted to the spinal nucleus of what cranial nerve?
    A. CN V
    B. CN VII
    C. CN IX
    D. CN X
A

A. CN V
for orofacial pain

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37
Q
  1. Question 1 of 2: An insect bite caused inflammation and pain on the leg of a young adult. At the site of the bite, an increase of what chemical contributes to the clinical pain?
    A. prostaglandins
    B. substance P
    C. tetrodotoxin
A

A. prostaglandins

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38
Q

What are prostaglandins?

A

Released during inflammation
During clinical pain

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39
Q
  1. Question 2 of 2: An insect bite caused inflammation and pain on the leg of a young adult. On the projection neuron, what receptor(s) would be activated?
    A. AMPA only
    B. NMDA only
    C. NMDA and AMPA
    D. None of the above. These receptors are not found on projection neurons
A

C. NMDA and AMPA

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40
Q
  1. The receptive fields for visceral referred pain are ___. Thus, it is generally __ to pinpoint the exact location of the pain.
    A. large ; difficult
    B. large ; easy
    C. small ; difficult
    D. small ; easy
A

A. large ; difficult

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41
Q
  1. Placing an object of extremely low temperature on a tooth will stimulate ___.
    A. thermoreceptors on C fibers
    B. mechanoreceptors on C fibers
    C. chemoreceptors on C fibers
    D. thermoreceptors on A-delta fibers
    E. mechanoreceptors on A-delta fibers
    F. chemoreceptors on A-delta fibers
A

D. thermoreceptors on A-delta fibers

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42
Q
  1. It was recently reported that menthol in e-cigarettes can cause inhibition of pulmonary surfactant. If this effect of menthol was clinically and physiologically significant and affected no other aspect of respiration, how would menthol affect compliance and elastic recoil of the lungs? It would ___ compliance and ___ elastic recoil.
    A. increase, increase
    B. increase, decrease
    C. decrease, increase
    D. decrease, decrease
A

C. decrease, increase

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43
Q
  1. Where does gas exchange during respiration occur? (ANSWER CHOICES: A-H.)
    A. mouth
    B. nasal passages
    C. larynx
    D. trachea
    E. bronchus
    F. bronchiole
    G. alveoli
    H. Two or more of the above is correct.
A

G. alveoli

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44
Q

Decreasing surfactant will ___________ (increase/decrease) compliance and ____________ elastic recoil.

A

DECREASE
INCREASE

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45
Q

What is compliance?

A

Inhalation

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46
Q

What is elastic recoil?

A

Exhalation

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47
Q
  1. After sitting on a chair for three hours, you immediately stood up and started jumping for ten minutes. At the end of ten minutes, which of your respiratory volumes have decreased? (SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS.)
    A. tidal volume
    B. inspiratory reserve volume
    C. expiratory reserve volume
    D. vital capacity
    E. residual volume
A

B. inspiratory reserve volume
C. expiratory reserve volume

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48
Q

During exercise, does tidal volume increase or decrease?

A

INCREASE

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49
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

Amount of air you breath in and out during a normal breath

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50
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume?

A

The amount of air you can inhale after ALREADY taking in a breath

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51
Q
  1. What factor increases during an asthma attack? Comparisons are to normal breathing.
    A. air flow rate
    B. intrapleural pressure
    C. radius of the airways
    D. rate of gas exchange
    E. None of the above. They either decrease or remains relatively similar
A

E. None of the above. They either decrease or remains relatively similar

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51
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume?

A

The amount of air you can exhale after ALREADY exhaling once

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52
Q
  1. Statement 1: The ventilation perfusion ratio is equal in all regions of the lungs. Statement 2: The alveoli in one region of the lungs has a low partial pressure of oxygen. This will cause blood vessels suppling this region of the lungs to vasoconstrict. Statement 1 is ___. Statement 2 is ___.
    A. true, true
    B. true, false
    C. false, true
    D. false, false
A

C. false, true

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53
Q
  1. Statement 1: During inhalation, the air that first reaches the alveoli is air from the anatomic dead space. Statement 2: Air in the anatomic dead space participates in gas exchange. Statement 1 is ___. Statement 2 is ___.
    A. true, true
    B. true, false
    C. false, true
    D. false, false
A

B. true, false

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53
Q

What is vital capacity?

A

The total amount of air that can move in and out of your lungs
(from inspiratory reserve volume –> expiratory reserve volume)

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54
Q

What is residual volume?

A

Remaining air left in lungs after you completely/forcefully exhale
NOT ALL AIR LEAVES THE LUNGS EVEN WHEN YOU COMPLETELY FORCE AIR OUT
What is left is called residual volume

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55
Q
  1. Compared to blood that had gas exchange with the lungs, the blood that had gas exchange with the tissues will have lower ___. (SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWER(S).)
    A. partial pressure of oxygen
    B. partial pressure of carbon dioxide
    C. number of oxygen molecules bound to hemoglobin
    D. diffusion coefficient of oxygen
A

A. partial pressure of oxygen
C. number of oxygen molecules bound to hemoglobin

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55
Q
  1. Respiratory chemoreceptors in the carotid body and medulla aid in respiratory control. Which statement incorrectly compares the chemoreceptors from these two regions?
    A. Both chemoreceptors are sensitive to changes in the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in blood.
    B. Both chemoreceptors are activated when the concentration of protons (H+) significantly increases in blood.
    C. Only the receptors in the carotid body are sensitive to changes in blood pH that are not related to respiration.
    D. All statements are correct.
A

B. Both chemoreceptors are activated when the concentration of protons (H+) significantly increases in blood.

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56
Q
  1. The ventral respiratory group is located in the ___ and contains ___ neurons.
    A. pons, inspiratory
    B. pons, expiratory
    C. pons, inspiratory and expiratory
    D. medulla, inspiratory
    E. medulla, expiratory
    F. medulla, inspiratory and expiratory
A

F. medulla, inspiratory and expiratory

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57
Q

Which respiratory chemoreceptor is proton-dependent?

A

CAROTID BODY

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58
Q

What are respiratory chemoreceptors in the medulla called?

A

CENTRAL CHEMORECEPTOR

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58
Q

Respiratory chemoreceptors in the medulla are sensitive to what and why?

A

CO2
only thing that can diffuse across BBB
NOT H+ SENSITIVE BC CHARGED ION CAN NOT GET ACROSS BBB

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58
Q

For respiratory chemoreceptors in the carotid body, when the H+ levels are ________ (high/low), activity is ________ (high/low).

A

high/high
OR
low/low

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59
Q

Which respiratory chemoreceptor(s) is/are sensitive to pH changes that are not directly related to respiration?

A

Carotid bodies

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59
Q
  1. Pick the two TRUE statements. (Pick TWO correct answers.)
    A. During mid-inspiration, the intra-alveolar pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure.
    B. During mid-inspiration, the intra-alveolar pressure is greater than the atmospheric pressure.
    C. The intra-alveolar pressure equals the atmospheric pressure at the end of inspiration and end of expiration.
    D. The intra-alveolar pressure equals the atmospheric pressure at mid-inspiration and mid-expiration.
    E. The intra-alveolar pressure never equals the atmospheric pressure.
A

A. During mid-inspiration, the intra-alveolar pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure.
C. The intra-alveolar pressure equals the atmospheric pressure at the end of inspiration and end of expiration.

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60
Q
  1. Which of the following does not promote platelet aggregation?
    A. thromboxane
    B. collagen
    C. ADP
    D. nitric oxide
    E. thrombin
A

D. nitric oxide

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60
Q
  1. What process or pathway provides the fastest mechanism for blood clot formation?
    A. the intrinsic pathway
    B. the extrinsic pathway
    C. platelet aggregation
    D. erythrocyte agglutination
    E. vasoconstriction
A

B. the extrinsic pathway

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61
Q

What does not promote platelet aggregation?

A

Prostacyclin and Nitric Oxide

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61
Q

What dissolves the blood clot?

A

PLASMIN

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62
Q
  1. How does the physiology of blood change if calcium was removed?
    A. causes erythrocytes to be malformed
    B. causes leukocytes to be malformed
    C. prevents oxygen transport
    D. prevents blood coagulation
    E. two of the above are correct
A

D. prevents blood coagulation

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63
Q
  1. What is the main function of plasma albumins?
    A. contribute to the blood clotting process
    B. function in the body’s defense
    C. maintain the blood colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure
    D. are involved in pH regulation of blood
    E. help in transport of carbon dioxide
A

C. maintain the blood colloid osmotic (oncotic) pressure

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64
Q
  1. Optometrist applied an eye drop to dilate the pupil of the patient during an eye exam. The medication most likely __.
    A. activates the nicotinic receptors
    B. blocks the beta-1 adrenergic receptors
    C. blocks the muscarinic receptors
    D. blocks the alpha-1 adrenergic receptors
A

C. blocks the muscarinic receptors

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64
Q
  1. What slowly dissolves blood clots?
    A. thrombin
    B. prostacyclin
    C. plasmin
    D. calcium
    E. plasminogen
A

C. plasmin

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65
Q

What is under control for an alpha-1 adrenergic receptor and does it constrict or dilate?

A

sympathetic target organs/arteries
CONSTRICT

66
Q

What is under control for an alpha-2 adrenergic receptor and does it constrict or dilate?

A

digestive organs
DILATE

67
Q

What is under control for an beta-1 adrenergic receptor and does it constrict or dilate?

A

heart
CONSTRICT

68
Q

What is under control for an beta-2 adrenergic receptor and does it constrict or dilate?

A

smooth muscle of arterioles/bronchioles
DILATE

69
Q

What are nicotinic receptors for?

A

Skeletal muscle

70
Q

What are muscarinic receptors for?

A

Cardiac muscle + eye

71
Q
  1. A muscarinic receptor specific antagonist would lead to __ of the bronchioles. A beta2 adrenergic receptor specific agonist would lead to __ of the bronchioles.
    A. dilation; dilation
    B. constriction; constriction
    C. no effect; no effect
    D. constriction; dilation
    E. dilation; constriction
    F. constriction; no effect
A

A. dilation; dilation

71
Q
  1. When the sensory receptor gets adapted to the stimulus, the result is ___.
    A. degradation of the sensory receptor
    B. decreased frequency of the receptor-induced action potential
    C. increased receptor potential
    D. increased neurotransmitter release
A

B. decreased frequency of the receptor-induced action potential

72
Q
  1. What is the correct sequence for the following processes related to muscle contraction? 1. Neurotransmitters are released into neuromuscular junction. 2. Ca2+ is pumped back into sarcoplasmic reticulum. 3. Action potential reaches T tubule.
    A. 1, 3, 2
    B. 2, 1, 3
    C. 2, 3, 1
    D. 3, 1, 2
A

A. 1, 3, 2

72
Q
  1. The somatosensory cortex is mainly responsible for sensing __.
    A. smell
    B. light
    C. taste
    D. touch
    E. sound
A

D. touch

TOUCH
TEMPERATURE
PAIN
PRESSURE

73
Q

Order the following:

A. Action potential reaches T tubule.
B. Ca2+ is pumped back into sarcoplasmic reticulum
C. Neurotransmitters are released into neuromuscular junction

A
  1. C. Neurotransmitters are released into neuromuscular junction
  2. A. Action potential reaches T tubule.
  3. B. Ca2+ is pumped back into sarcoplasmic reticulum
74
Q
  1. Which type of muscle fibers does a marathon runner use to support the long-distance endurance activity?
    A. Slow oxidative fiber
    B. Fast oxidative fiber
    C. Slow glycolytic fiber
    D. Fast glycolytic fiber
A

A. Slow oxidative fiber

75
Q

What type of metabolism does slow oxidative fibers use?

A

AEROBIC

76
Q

What type of metabolism does fast glycolytic fibers use?

A

ANAEROBIC

76
Q

What type of metabolism does fast oxidative fibers use?

A

MIXED

77
Q
  1. Resting alveolar ventilation is 4000 mL/min for Person A and 5000 mL/min for Person B. Assuming A and B have the same respiratory rate, who has the higher tidal volume?
    A. Person A
    B. Person B
    C. Their tidal volumes are the same.
A

B. Person B

78
Q

What is alveolar ventilation?

A

the amount of air that goes in and out of lungs for gas exchange

79
Q

What is respiratory rate?

A

The amount of breaths/min

80
Q

As alveolar ventilation increase, what changes?

A

INCREASE ALVEOLAR VENTILATION –> SLOW DEEP BREATHS

TIDAL VOLUME INCREASES
RESPIRATORY RATE DECREASES

81
Q
  1. Resting alveolar ventilation is 4000 mL/min for Person A and 5000 mL/min for Person B. Assuming A and B have the same tidal volume, who has the higher respiratory rate?
    A. Person A
    B. Person B
    C. Their tidal volumes are the same.
A

B. Person B

BECAUSE THEY WANT TO HAVE A MORE FREQUENT DELIVERY OF OXYGEN TO ALVEOLI
MORE TO TAKE IN BUT THE SAME AMOUNT –> INCREASE THE FREQUENCY OF TAKING THE SAME AMOUNT IN

82
Q
  1. Consider that the steps of one respiratory cycle is: start of inspiration –> mid-inspiration –> stopping inspiration –> start of expiration –> mid-expiration –> stopping expiration, and then the cycle is repeated. During mid-inspiration, the intra-alveolar pressure is ___ the atmospheric pressure and ___ the intrapleural pressure.
    A. greater than, greater than
    B. greater than, equal to
    C. greater than, less than
    D. less than, greater than
    E. less than, equal to
    F. less than, less than
A

D. less than, greater than

83
Q
  1. To win a balloon blowing contest, the contestants must inflate their balloon by blowing into it until the balloon pops/breaks. Which of the following will be of the LEAST help to winning the contestant? (Consider each variable independently.)
    A. high lung capacity
    B. low anatomic dead space
    C. low airway resistance
    D. strong abdominal muscles
A

B. low anatomic dead space

84
Q
  1. What condition is required for the activation of the central chemoreceptors?
    A. high levels of systemic CO2
    B. low levels of systemic O2
    C. low blood pH due to H+ concentration
    D. high blood pH due to H+ concentration
    E. None of the above
A

A. high levels of systemic CO2

IN THE MEDULLA
ONLY CO2

85
Q
  1. In the medulla, which respiratory group(s) house(s) neurons responsible is/are for regulating inspiration? (SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWER(S).)
    A. Botzinger complex
    B. ventral respiratory group
    C. dorsal respiratory group
A

B. ventral respiratory group
C. dorsal respiratory group

86
Q
  1. Compare the contents of blood that is leaving coronary circulation to the contents of blood that is leaving systemic tissue. Blood that is leaving the coronary circulation will have ___. (SELECT ALL CORRECT STATEMENTS.)
    A. higher concentration of dissolved CO2
    B. higher concentration of bicarbonate
    C. chloride ion entering the red blood cells
    D. hemoglobin bound to CO2
A

A. higher concentration of dissolved CO2
B. higher concentration of bicarbonate
C. chloride ion entering the red blood cells
D. hemoglobin bound to CO2

CARDIAC MUSCLE IS THE MOST DEMANDING AND WILL TAKE THE MOST OXYGEN FROM BLOOD

87
Q
  1. Statement 1: Increased skeletal muscle activity will induce a shift of the O2-hemoglobin dissociation curve to the right. Statement 2: A decrease in the PO2 is also observed as a decrease in SPO2. Statement 1 is ___. Statement 2 is ___.
    A. true, true
    B. true, false
    C. false, true
    D. false, false
A

A. true, true

88
Q
  1. What respiratory volume will increase when going from rest to heavy exercise?
    A. inspiratory reserve volume
    B. expiratory reserve volume
    C. vital capacity
    D. residual volume
    E. none of the above
A

E. none of the above

EXERCISE = INCREASE TIDAL VOLUME
A/B DECREASE
C/D DOES NOT CHANGE

89
Q

What is SpO2?

A

Percentage of oxygen in a person’s blood, or their oxygen saturation

90
Q
  1. Answer using only: increase, decrease, or not change.
    A respiratory virus attacks type 2 pneumocytes, which causes the type 2 pneumocytes to become non-functional. If a significantly large population of type 2 pneumocytes were infected, this would cause lung compliance to ______1_____ and elastic recoil to ______2_____ . The SpO2 will ______3_____ .
A
  1. DECREASE
  2. INCREASE
  3. DECREASE
91
Q
  1. Answer using only: increase, decrease, or no effect
    What impact does sympathetic simulation have on each of the following?
    airway diameter __1__
    air flow __2__
    lung compliance __3__
    elastic recoil __4__
A
  1. DECREASE
  2. DECREASE
  3. no effect
  4. no effect
91
Q
  1. Answer using only: higher than, lower than, or the same as.
    Normal anatomic dead space is 150 mL. If the dead space was to be increased to 200 mL and alveolar ventilation was to be maintained (same for both 150 mL and 200 mL), the tidal volume would be __1__ normal. Under the same conditions, lung compliance would be __2__ normal.
A
  1. higher than
  2. same as

increased dead space requires a larger tidal volume to achieve the same amount of usable air
BECAUSE ALVEOLAR VENTILATION IS THE SAME, NEED MORE AIR TO BE INHALED TO FILL UP THE EXTRA ADDED DEAD SPACE

92
Q
  1. Under normal resting conditions, what contributes the most to expiration?
    A. contracting the diaphragm
    B. relaxing abdominal muscles
    C. contracting abdominal muscles
    D. contracting internal intercostal muscles
    E. relaxing internal intercostal muscles
    F. elastic recoil of the lungs
A

F. elastic recoil of the lungs

93
Q
  1. During a first-degree heart block, ventricular depolarization occurs ___ atrial depolarization.
    A. independently of
    B. more frequently than
    C. only after
    D. less frequently after (Only some impulses from the atria pass to the ventricles.)
A

C. only after

PRIMARY: ONLY AFTER
SECONDARY: LESS FREQUENTLY AFTER
TERTIARY: INDEPENDENTLY OF

93
Q
  1. When is aortic pressure lower than ventricular pressure? (SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWER(S).)
    A. atrial contraction
    B. ventricular filling
    C. ventricular contraction
    D. ventricular depolarization
A

C. ventricular contraction

NOT D BECAUSE THAT IS WHAT STARTS CONTRACTION

93
Q
  1. What statements are true during isovolumetric ventricular contraction? (SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWER(S).)
    A. The volume of the ventricle is equal to the end-diastolic volume.
    B. The volume of the ventricle is equal to the end-systolic volume.
    C. Ventricular pressure is higher than aortic pressure.
    D. Ventricular pressure is lower than aortic pressure.
A

A. The volume of the ventricle is equal to the end-diastolic volume.
D. Ventricular pressure is lower than aortic pressure.

94
Q

What is isovolumetric ventricular contraction?

A

When ventricle is completely filled and chamber valves are completely closed
contraction during that time
volume in ventricle does not change

95
Q

What is end-diastolic volume?

A

When ventricle is the most filled

96
Q

What is end-systolic volume?

A

When ventricle is the most empty

97
Q
  1. What is the function of atrioventricular nodal delay?
    A. allows ventricular filling to be completed before ventricular contraction
    B. allows ventricular cardiomyocytes to recover after contraction
    C. prevents a second action potential from occurring (refractory period)
    D. decreases blood pressure
    E. decreases heart rate
A

A. allows ventricular filling to be completed before ventricular contraction

98
Q
  1. Where are both desmosomes and gap junctions located on the heart?
    A. endocardium
    B. myocardium
    C. epicardium
A

B. myocardium

99
Q
  1. Ventricular filling occurs during what event(s) on an ECG? (SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWER(S).)
    A. ST segment
    B. P wave
    C. T wave
    D. PR segment
    E. QRS complex
A

B. P wave
D. PR segment

100
Q
  1. Atrial depolarization occurs during what event(s) on an ECG? (SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWER(S).)
    A. QRS complex
    B. ST segment
    C. PR segment
    D. T wave
    E. P wave
A

E. P wave

101
Q

During an ECG, when does atrial depolarization occur?

A

P wave

102
Q

During an ECG, when does AV nodal delay occur?

A

PR segment

103
Q

During an ECG, when does ventricle contraction/empty occur?

A

ST segment

103
Q

What happens during the QRS complex?

A

Atrial repolarization
Ventrical depolarization

104
Q

During an ECG, when does the plateau phase occur?

A

ST segment

105
Q

During what segment does the ventricles relax and fill on an ECG?

A

U wave

106
Q

On an ECG, when does ventricular repolarization occur?

A

T wave

107
Q

What occurs during a P wave?

A

atrial depolarization

108
Q

What happens during a PR segment?

A

AB nodal delay
atria empties
ventricles fill

109
Q

What happens during the ST segment?

A

plateau phase
ventricle contracts and empties

110
Q

What happens during the T wave?

A

ventricle repolarization

111
Q

What happens during the U wave?

A

ventricles relax and fill

112
Q
  1. The volume of blood is highest in the left ventricle during which stage of the cardiac cycle?
    A. end-systolic volume
    B. isovolumetric ventricular contraction
    C. mid-ventricular contraction
    D. mid-ventricular filling
    E. isovolumetric ventricular relaxation
A

B. isovolumetric ventricular contraction

113
Q
  1. Parasympathetic stimulation will have what effect on cardiac output?
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. no change
A

B. decrease

114
Q
  1. Parasympathetic stimulation will have what effect on heart rate?
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. no change
A

B. decrease

115
Q
  1. Parasympathetic stimulation will have what effect on the strength of ventricular contraction?
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. no change
A

C. no change

116
Q
  1. Parasympathetic stimulation will have what effect on the strength of atrial contraction?
    A. increase
    B. decrease
    C. no change
A

B. decrease

117
Q
  1. Statement 1: The primary source of fuel (energy) for the heart is glucose. Statement 2: The PO2 of blood leaving coronary circulation is equal to the PO2 of blood leaving skeletal muscle. Statement 1 is ___. Statement 2 is ___.
    A. true, true
    B. true, false
    C. false, true
    D. false, false
A

D. false, false

118
Q
  1. How would sympathetic stimulation increase mean arterial pressure?
    A. increase blood viscosity
    B. decrease blood viscosity
    C. increase vessel length
    D. decrease vessel length
    E. increase vessel radius
    F. decrease vessel radius
    G. None of the above
A

F. decrease vessel radius

119
Q
  1. Which TWO statements about blood pressure in the capillaries are most incorrect?
    A. The blood pressure is higher as blood enters the capillary bed and lower when it exits the capillary bed.
    B. The blood pressure remains the same as blood enters and exits the capillary bed.
    C. The blood pressure does NOT fluctuate as the heart cycles between systole and diastole.
    D. The blood pressure fluctuates as the heart cycles between systole and diastole.
A

B. The blood pressure remains the same as blood enters and exits the capillary bed.
D. The blood pressure fluctuates as the heart cycles between systole and diastole.

THESE STATEMENTS ARE FALSE (NOT TRUE)

120
Q
  1. What is the function of metarterioles?
    A. They serve as blood reservoirs.
    B. They unload plasma into interstitial fluid to decrease blood volume.
    C. They regulate blood flow into the capillary beds.
    D. They allow blood to bypass capillary beds.
    E. They help regulate blood pressure.
    F. None of the above.
A

D. They allow blood to bypass capillary beds.

121
Q
  1. Relaxation of arteriolar vascular smooth muscle is induced by ___.
    A. nitric oxide
    B. endothelin
    C. vascular endothelial growth factor
A

A. nitric oxide

121
Q

What does nitric acid do to arteriolar vascular smooth muscle?

A

RELAX IT

122
Q

What does endothelin do to arteriolar vascular smooth muscle?

A

CONSTRICT IT

123
Q
  1. Initial sympathetic stimulation of the arterioles will induce ___. This is facilitated by the binding of norepinephrine to ___ receptors.
    A. vasodilation, alpha 1
    B. vasodilation, beta 2
    C. vasoconstriction, alpha 1
    D. vasoconstriction, beta 2
A

C. vasoconstriction, alpha 1

124
Q
  1. How may low concentration of plasma protein induce edema?
    A. Low plasma protein allows blood to flow at a higher velocity due to low resistance.
    B. Low plasma protein causes blood pressure to be higher due to lower osmolarity of blood.
    C. Low plasma protein increases ultrafiltration.
    D. Low plasma protein reduce osmolarity of blood, which decreases reabsorption.
    E. Low plasma protein reduces fluid absorption into the lymphatic vessels.
A

D. Low plasma protein reduce osmolarity of blood, which decreases reabsorption.

125
Q
  1. In a healthy individual, the majority of plasma proteins in blood capillaries will ___.
    A. enter the interstitial fluid via diffusion
    B. enter the interstitial fluid via bulk flow
    C. enter the interstitial fluid via active transport
    D. remain within the lumen of the blood vessel
A

D. remain within the lumen of the blood vessel

126
Q

What is edema?

A

Swelling of tissues due to excess interstitial fluid

127
Q

What can cause an edema?

A
  1. Reduced concentration of plasma proteins
  2. Increased permeability of capillary walls
  3. Increased venous pressure
  4. Blockage of lymph vessels
128
Q
  1. What is the body’s first response when blood pressure is increased in a specific arteriole?
    A. adjust vessel radius
    B. adjust vessel length
    C. adjust blood viscosity
    D. adjust blood volume
    E. adjust cardiac output
A

A. adjust vessel radius

129
Q
  1. Select the most correct statement about the baroreceptor reflex.
    A. Under normal blood pressures the baroreceptors do not generate impulses.
    B. The baroreceptor reflex responds to low level of O2.
    C. The baroreceptor reflex responds to increases in H+.
    D. The baroreceptor reflex provides protection from developing hypertension. (Hypertension is in reference to the disease).
    E. The baroreceptor reflex helps stabilize rapid changes in blood pressure.
A

E. The baroreceptor reflex helps stabilize rapid changes in blood pressure.

130
Q
  1. How is longer term change (minutes to hours) in blood pressure managed?
    A. activities to alter blood volume
    B. activities of the baroreceptor reflex
    C. ANS activities on the heart
    D. ANS activities on blood vessels
    E. ANS activities on both heart and blood vessels
A

A. activities to alter blood volume

AUTONOMIC SYSTEM IS FOR SHORT TERM CHANGE TO BLOOD PRESSURE

131
Q

What is the baroreceptor reflex?

A

SHORT-TERM RESPONSE TO ADJUST BLOOD PRESSURE
arterioles must constrict to increase pressure
This alters activity of the ANS to return mean arterial pressure to normal

132
Q

Elevated blood pressure is having systolic pressure of:

A

121-129

133
Q

Elevated blood pressure is having a diastolic pressure of:

A

<80

134
Q
  1. The blood pressure category of “elevated” requires that ___.
    A. either systolic or diastolic condition is met
    B. both systolic and diastolic conditions are met
A

B. both systolic and diastolic conditions are met

135
Q
  1. Sympathetic activity has an immediate effect on which factors to increase mean arterial blood pressure? (SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWER(S).)
    A. arteriolar radius
    B. blood viscosity
    C. blood volume
    D. heart rate
    E. stroke volume
A

A. arteriolar radius
D. heart rate
E. stroke volume

136
Q

For the following FITB question. Choose either sympathetic or parasympathetic for the first blank. Choose either increase or decrease for the second blank. For the third blank choose from heart rate, stroke volume, or heart rate and stroke volume. When blood pressure increases above normal, baroreceptor reflex will stimulate __2____3__.

A
  1. Paraympathetic
  2. decrease
  3. heart rate
137
Q
  1. The initial sharp pain felt upon initial fracture of a tooth can be classified as physiological pain. Nociceptor activation resulted the release of ___, which activated ___.
    A. glutamate; AMPA
    B. glutamate; NMDA
    C. substance P; AMPA
    D. substance P; NMDA
A

A. glutamate; AMPA

PHYSIOLOGICAL = QUICK/SHORT

138
Q
  1. What TWO main functions does albumin have in blood?
    A. buffer pH
    B. aid blood clotting
    C. contribute to osmotic pressure
    D. transport substances
    E. increase gas solubility
A

C. contribute to osmotic pressure
D. transport substances

139
Q
  1. Which of the following is least likely to cause anemia?
    A. lack of essential nutrients
    B. low level of erythropoietin
    C. low calcium concentration in blood
    D. low stem cell counts in bone marrow
A

C. low calcium concentration in blood

140
Q
  1. What is the last step in hemostasis?
    A. activation of coagulation cascade
    B. platelet aggregation
    C. blood vessel constriction
    D. formation of fibrin plug (stable hemostatic plug)
A

D. formation of fibrin plug (stable hemostatic plug)

141
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a function of thrombin?
    A. converts fibrinogen to fibrin
    B. activates tissue thromboplastin, which initiates the extrinsic clotting pathway
    C. activates factor XIII (fibrin cross-linking factor)
    D. enhances platelet aggregation
    E. acts in positive-feedback fashion to facilitate its own formation
A

B. activates tissue thromboplastin, which initiates the extrinsic clotting pathway

142
Q

During saltatory conduction, changes to membrane potential along the axon of a motor neuron occur __1__. During contiguous conduction, changes to membrane potential along the axon of a motor neuron occur __2__.

A
  1. Only at nodes of Ranvier
  2. Along the entire axon
143
Q

How would a strong stimulus generate an action potential during the relative refractory period?

A. close voltage-gated potassium channels during repolarization
B. inhibit voltage-gated potassium channels from opening at threshold potential
C. open voltage-gated sodium channels during repolarization
D. increase sodium flux at threshold potential to E. increase duration of depolarization
E. increase sodium flux at threshold potential to increase peak potential (higher than +30 mV)

A

C. open voltage-gated sodium channels during repolarization

144
Q

Drug A and Drug B are two newly developed molecules that inhibit virus replication in human cells. In lab tests on the same type of cells, 10 molecules of Drug A can enter cells within one minute compared to only 1 molecule of Drug B. Both Drug A and Drug B use simple diffusion to enter cells and are added at the same concentration. What factors below contribute to the 10-fold increase in diffusion for Drug A? (SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWERS.)

A. concentration gradient of the drugs
B. thickness of the cell membranes
C. surface area of the cells’ membrane
D. lipid solubility of the drugs
E. molecular weight of the drugs

A

D. lipid solubility of the drugs
E. molecular weight of the drugs

145
Q

A healthy young individual lost 10 pounds. Make the presumption that the weight loss was proportionally distributed. How many pounds of fluid did this person lose?

A. 0.4 pounds
B. 2 pounds
C. 4 pounds
D. 6 pounds
E. 10 pounds

A

D. 6 pounds

146
Q

Acetylcholine that binds to muscarinic receptors on ___ muscle cells will ___ the cell and ___ muscle contractions.

A. cardiac; hyperpolarize; reduce
B. cardiac; depolarize; induce
C. cardiac; hyperpolarize; induce
D. skeletal; depolarize; induce
E. skeletal; hyperpolarize; reduce
F. skeletal; depolarize; induce

A

A. cardiac; hyperpolarize; reduce

147
Q

What neurotransmitter below would have the greatest influence on muscle activity?

A. norepinephrine
B. dopamine
C. serotonin
D. glutamate
E. glycine

A

A. norepinephrine

148
Q

Which target tissue(s) is/are innervated only by the sympathetic neurons? SELECT ALL CORRECT ANSWER(S).

A. Adrenal medulla
B. Skeletal muscles
C. Cardiac muscles
D. Most blood vessels

A

A. Adrenal medulla
D. Most blood vessels

149
Q

Which of the following effectors mainly has beta1 adrenergic receptors?

A. cardiac muscle
B. smooth muscle in the digestive tract
C. blood vessel
D. skeletal muscle

A

A. cardiac muscle

150
Q

The skin on the thumb is more sensitive to touch than the skin on the leg. This is because there are __ sensory neurons relay from the thumb to the brain, and the neurons relay from the thumb to the brain have __ receptor field.

A. more ; smaller
B. fewer ; larger
C. more ; larger
D. fewer ; smaller

A

A. more ; smaller

151
Q

How is an increase in the sensitivity of the projection neurons achieved during secondary hyperalgesia?

A. Substance P released from the primary neuron acts on the projection neurons
B. Release of Mg2+ activates NMDA receptors on the projection neurons.
C. Projection neurons release Mg2+ to induce higher glutamate release from the primary neurons.
D. Higher concentrations of glutamate are released from the primary neuron to saturate AMPA receptors, which activates NMDA receptors.
E. The sensitivity of the projection neurons is not increased

A

A. Substance P released from the primary neuron acts on the projection neurons

152
Q

Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs may be most effective at reducing what type of pain?

A. physiological
B. clinical
C. Persistent

A

B. clinical

153
Q

What is the main mechanism by which extreme temperatures induce pain?

A. activation of mechanoreceptors
B. activation of transient receptor potential (TRP) channels
C. activation of P2X2 channels
D. activation of ASIC channels

A

B. activation of transient receptor potential (TRP) channels

154
Q

What is the major neurotransmitter released from small fibers during physiological pain?

A. AMPA
B. Norepinephrine
C. substance P
D. Glutamate

A

D. Glutamate

155
Q

Your patient reports mild pain when you extracted her tooth. This pain is best categorized as __1__ pain. When she went home, she felt more pain as the anesthesia wore off and had to take pain medication. This pain is best categorized as __2__ pain. Two weeks later, she visits your office complaining of pain. Further evaluation indicates proper healing of the tissue and no inflammation. This pain is best categorized as __3__ pain.

A

Answer 1: physiological
Answer 2: clinical
Answer 3: persistent

156
Q

The integration center of the withdrawal reflex is the __.

A. somatosensory cortex
B. thermoreceptor
C. skeletal muscle
D. spinal cord

A

D. spinal cord

157
Q

Select the FALSE statement regarding interneurons that behave as inhibitory interneurons.

A. Interneurons are inhibited by small fibers.
B. Small fibers may only activate projection neurons if they inhibit interneurons.
C. Interneurons are activated by large fibers.
D. Interneurons inhibit activation of projection neurons
E. The large fibers that activate interneurons do not induce normal sensation.

A

E. The large fibers that activate interneurons do not induce normal sensation.

158
Q

A 25-year-old woman in the waiting room of your office starts coughing and is experiencing shortness of breath. She has an inhaler in the purse. Which of the following medications is most likely in the inhaler?

A. Alpha-2 adrenergic receptors activator.
B. Beta-1 adrenergic receptor blocker.
C. Beta-2 adrenergic receptor activator.
D. Alpha-1 adrenergic receptors activator

A

C. Beta-2 adrenergic receptor activator

159
Q

Which of the following statements about the Enteric nervous system is TRUE?

A. It receives sensory inputs from the digestive glands only.
B. It is regulated by the autonomic nervous system.
C. It has around 1,000 neurons dispersed within the mucosal layer of the digestive tract.
D. Its signal is also transmitted in a two-synapse pathway as in the autonomic system.

A

B. It is regulated by the autonomic nervous system.

160
Q

Which statement about muscarinic receptors is FALSE?

A. They are the receptors at the neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscle.
B. They are primarily activated by acetylcholine.
C. They are G protein coupled receptors.
D. They can be found on the target organs of postganglionic parasympathetic neurons.

A

A. They are the receptors at the neuromuscular junctions of skeletal muscle.

161
Q

Sympathetic activation leads to __ of blood vessels supplying the skeletal muscles mainly through ___.

A. vasodilation; alpha 1 adrenergic receptor
B. vasoconstriction; alpha 2 adrenergic receptor
C. vasoconstriction; muscarinic receptor
D. vasodilation; beta 2 adrenergic receptor

A

D. vasodilation; beta 2 adrenergic receptor

162
Q

Activation of parasympathetic nervous system ___ the secretion from the sweat glands, and ___ the secretion from the digestion glands. (Answer choices A_F)

A. increases; increases
B. increases; reduces
C. reduces; increases
D. reduces; reduces
E. has no effect on; increases
F. has no effect on; decreases

A

E. has no effect on; increases

163
Q

The sympathetic innervation to the digestive tract has its synapse between the pre- and post- ganglionic neurons in the __.

A. sympathetic trunk
B. spinal cord
C. dorsal root ganglia
D. prevertebral ganglia

A

D. prevertebral ganglia

164
Q

Regarding the sympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system, which of the following is TRUE?
A. Acetylcholine is secreted by some sympathetic postganglionic fibers.
B. Most sympathetic preganglionic fibers secrete noradrenaline (norepinephrine).
C. Cell bodies of the sympathetic postganglionic neurons are found in spinal segments T1-T12.
D. Cell bodies of the sympathetic preganglionic neurons are found in spinal segments S2-S4.

A

A. Acetylcholine is secreted by some sympathetic postganglionic fibers.

165
Q

A muscarinic receptor specific antagonist causes __ of the bronchioles. A beta2 adrenergic receptor specific agonist causes __ of the bronchioles.

A. dilation; dilation
B. constriction; constriction
C. no effect; no effect
D. constriction; dilation
E. dilation; constriction
F. constriction; no effect

A

A. dilation; dilation

166
Q

During muscle contraction, which of the following events occurs FIRST?

A. Calcium binds to troponin
B. Myosin heads bind to actin
C. Action potential travels along the sarcolemma
D. ATP is hydrolyzed by myosin

A

C. Action potential travels along the sarcolemma

167
Q

Where is calcium stored within the muscle fiber?

A. Sarcolemma
B. Sarcoplasm
C. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. T-tubules

A

C. Sarcoplasmic reticulum

168
Q

How does calcium enable muscle contraction at the molecular level?

A. It binds to myosin, causing a conformational change that allows it to bind to actin.
B. It binds to actin, exposing the myosin-binding sites.
C. It binds to tropomyosin, causing it to move and expose the myosin-binding sites on actin.
D. It binds to troponin, causing a conformational change that moves tropomyosin and exposes the myosin-binding sites on actin

A

D. It binds to troponin, causing a conformational change that moves tropomyosin and exposes the myosin-binding sites on actin

169
Q

The primary source of energy for muscle contraction during short, intense exercise is:

A. Creatine phosphate
B. Aerobic respiration
C. Anaerobic glycolysis
D. Fatty acid oxidation

A

C. Anaerobic glycolysis

170
Q

If the intensity of the adequate stimulus doubles but remains below the saturation of the sensory receptor, which of the following statements is FALSE?

A. The amplitude of action potentials in the associated afferent neuron stays the same.
B. The frequency of action potentials in the associated afferent neuron reduces to half.
C. The intensity of the receptor potential will increase.
D. No action potential will be triggered if the threshold of the afferent neuron is not reached

A

B. The frequency of action potentials in the associated afferent neuron reduces to half.

171
Q

______ is the adequate stimulus for __.

A. Heat; chemoreceptors
B. Sound; mechanoreceptors
C. Light; osmoreceptors
D. Pressure; photoreceptors

A

B. Sound; mechanoreceptors

Applied Physiology (9 decks)

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