Final Review Flashcards
1
Q
When gowning for surgery your mask goes on before your gloves go on. True or False?
A
True
2
Q
When scrubbing yourself for surgery you start at the elbows and work toward the fingertips. True or False
A
False - Start at fingertips and work up
3
Q
A good clean surgical shave requires the clippers run in the same direction as the hair. True or False
A
False - Opposite direction
4
Q
All parts of a surgical gown are considered sterile once it is on. True or False
A
False - Only front
5
Q
The sterile assistant or nurse should open the scalpel blade. True or False
A
False
6
Q
What type of drape has a pre-cut hole, and what is the technique called when huck towel are used.
A
Fenestrated and four quarter draping
7
Q
Before shaving an open wound, what should be placed on the wound?
A
Lube
8
Q
What type of gloving is it is hands remain inside the gown?
A
Closed
9
Q
Are masks sterile?
A
No
10
Q
Are gloves sterile?
A
Yes
11
Q
Is the surgery table sterile?
A
No
12
Q
Is the gown sterile?
A
Yes
13
Q
Is the instrument table sterile?
A
No
14
Q
Is the cap sterile?
A
No
15
Q
Are the instruments sterile?
A
Yes
16
Q
Is the equipment sterile?
A
No
17
Q
Is the patient sterile?
A
No
18
Q
Is the Endotracheal tube sterile?
A
No
19
Q
What size clipper blade is used for a surgical shave?
A
40-50
20
Q
Why do we express the bladder before a surgical procedure?
A
The bladder can get in the way, urinate on table, scald, contaminate surgical field.
21
Q
List four items that can be used to correctly position pets on the operating table
A
Trough, sand bags, towels, tie downs
22
Q
Why is the leg suspended during prep on orthopedic patients?
A
To make sure all areas are accessible for shave and prep.
23
Q
What is the difference between “scrub” and “solution”? Why are they both rinsed
A
Scrub has detergent, solution does not.
Both can cause irritation.
24
Q
What is the name of the suture used to temporarily close the rectum?
A
Purse string suture
25
Is Dexon suture absorbable or non-absorbable?
Absorbable
26
Is Prolene suture absorbable or non-absorbable?
Non-absorbable
27
Is Vicryl suture absorbable or non-absorbable?
Absorbable
28
Is Silk suture absorbable or non-absorbable?
Non-absorbable
29
Is PDS suture absorbable or non-absorbable?
Absorbable
30
Is Nylon suture absorbable or non-absorbable?
Non-absorbable
31
Is Gut suture absorbable or non-absorbable?
Absorbable
32
What is the difference between "plain" and "chromic" suture?
Chromic suture is coated with bile acid salts, which delays the absorption rate.
Plain is not coated with anything.
33
What is the purpose of double wrapping pack?
Prevents penetration of liquids
34
Describe suture memory
Retains the shape it was in the package
35
What is "strike-through" of a surgical drape? Does it affect the sterile field?
When liquid seeps through the material. Yes, it affects the sterile field.
36
Etomidate is an expensive short acting induction drug used on cardiac patients. True or False?
True
37
An endotracheal tube is sterile. True or False?
False
38
Animals should breath 100% oxygen for a few minutes prior to induction by mask or chamber. True or False?
True
39
High pressure low volume endotracheal tubes are more likely to cause tissue necrosis. True or False?
False
40
Injectable drugs via an IV catheter is the bet protocol for small animal induction. True or False?
False
41
Which stage of anesthesia exhibits irregular breathing, paddling?
Stage II
42
Which stage of anesthesia exhibits Adequate for most surgical procedures?
Stage III, plane II
43
Which stage of anesthesia exhibits eyeballs begin to rotate central and pupils dilate?
Stage III, Plane III
44
Which stage of anesthesia exhibits eyeballs begin to rotate ventrally.
Stage III, Plane I
45
In the respiratory tract the area where no gas exchange takes place is called what?
Deadspace
46
Dogs and cats are usually placed in what position for intubation?
Sternal recumbancy
47
When using ketamine and diazepam you will draw up which drug first, why?
Diazepam, because it is an anti-seizure and may infect the Ketamine.
48
Murphy ETs have a safety feature called what at the end of them?
eye
49
List three risks of ET intubation.
Stimulate vagus nerve, Bronchi insertion, Cuff over inflation causing trachea necrosis
50
List three reasons for ET intubation
Allow controlled flow of O2, Waste gas exchange, reduce dead space
51
What does "too effect" mean concerning anesthetic drugs?
Just enough or enough to the desired effect which is loss of jaw muscle tone.
52
Describe larygeal spasm. Which animal is mot common affected by this?
Uncontrolled/involuntary muscular contraction (spasm) of the laryngeal cords. Most common in felines.
53
List two reasons for using a laryngoscope
Hold down epiglottis, and see trachea clearly.
54
Other than visually seeing it in the trachea, list three ways to check that the ET is in the correct place.
Patient may cough, but not always.
Should not be able to vocalize.
Watch flutter valve & reservoir bag for movement.
55
What does the large number on the ET represent?
The inner diameter
56
What supplies do you need to set out to be prepared for intubation?
Laryngoscope, ET, lube/water, rolled gauze, syringe to inflate cuff
57
How do you measure length of ET?
from incisors to thoracic inlet.
58
Subjective monitoring is using the equipment while objective monitoring is using your senses. True or False?
False - Subjective is your senses
59
The EKG shows us electrical activity in the heart. True or False?
True
60
A pulse deficit is when a heart murmur can be felt not just heard. True or False?
False - pulse deficit is the difference between palpable pulse and heart beats.
61
The doppler is an example of invasive blood pressure monitoring. True or False?
False
62
Etomidate is an expensive short acting induction drug used on cardiac patients. True or False?
True
63
What is the primary goal of anesthesia monitoring?
Tissue perfusion
64
List four factors that contribute to hypothermia of an anesthetized patient.
1. Room temperature fluids
2. Shave, scrub w/cold water, alcohol
3. Anesthetics
4. Open body cavity to room temp
65
Does adequate ventilation ensure adequate oxygenation?
no, ventilation ist he movement of the chest and oxygenation is the exchange of gases.
66
If the Pulse oximeter is reading 80% for oxygen saturation how can you check your patient if this is correct?
MM color
67
List four things that can cause hypotension.
1. Preexisting heart disease
2. Some anesthetic agents
3. Blood loss
4. Vasodilation
68
If a patient is hypercapnic are they also hypoxic? Why
No,
Hypercapnia is an increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood.
Hypoxia is the reduction of oxygen supply to tissues.
69
List three common reflexes we observe when inducing and monitoring anesthesia.
Palbebral, pedal, and jaw tone.
70
Explain how to correctly measure a pet for their blood pressure cuff size.
The width of the cuff should wrap approximately 40% of leg.
71
When does anesthetic monitoring begin?
As soon as induction agents are given.
72
What are the five physiological parameter categories we monitor with patients under anesthesia?
Circulatory, oxygen, neurological, temperature, respiratory.
73
What are the four basic components of any anesthesia machine?
Compressed gas course, regulator, flow meter, vaporizer.
74
Oxygen in the compressed tank has a pressure of ?.
2200 psi
75
The regulator reduces the 2200 psi to what?
40-50 psi
76
At the machine the what further reduces the pressure
flow meter
77
What is the formula for determining tidal volume in a patient?
10 ml/kg
78
The f/air can should be placed upright on a solid flat surface. True or False?
False - it needs air flow
79
A CO2 canister is needed with both a rebreathing and non-rebreating system. True or False?
False
80
Precision vaporizers have a safety latch on the dial. True or False?
True
81
Oxygen can not flow through the vaporizer unless it is on. True or False?
False
82
Oxygen flow rates are generally lower on rebreathing circuits. True or False?
True
83
The oxygen flow rate for mask induction is 2 L/kg/min. True or False?
False - 2 L/min
84
When pressing the flush valve the flow of oxygen bypasses what two parts of the machine?
Flow meter and vaporizer
85
When is the flush valve used?
When just O2 is desired, and extra anesthetic agent is flushed from the system.
86
What is the difference between active and passive scavenger systems?
Active - uses a slight pressure to draw anesthetic agent out, also connected to a generator.
Passive - uses gravity and an f/air canister. The canister sits on the machine lower than main part of anesthetic machine.
87
Ketamine does not provide good pain control. True or False?
False
88
Midazolam and Diazepam are examples of benzodiazapines. True or False?
True
89
Xylazine and dexmedetomidine are reversible drugs. True or False?
False
90
NSAIDs are hard on the GI system and can cause ulcers. True or False?
True
91
It is better to have a central line rather and a peripheral IV catheter in a patient who is having surgery. True or False?
False
92
What does the passive scavenger canister do?
Collects excess anesthetic gas from exhaled Co2
93
What does the vaporizer do?
The vaporizer delivers a controlled concentration of that gas anesthetic into the patient’s breathing circuit.
94
What does the manometer do?
Measures the pressure within the machine.
95
A precision vaporizer can only be used (in or out) of circuit systems.
Out
96
What are the four basic components of any anesthetic machine?
Compressed gas source, regulator, flow meter, vaporizer
