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VTT 246 Surgery > Final Review > Flashcards

Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

When gowning for surgery your mask goes on before your gloves go on. True or False?

A

True

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2
Q

When scrubbing yourself for surgery you start at the elbows and work toward the fingertips. True or False

A

False - Start at fingertips and work up

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3
Q

A good clean surgical shave requires the clippers run in the same direction as the hair. True or False

A

False - Opposite direction

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4
Q

All parts of a surgical gown are considered sterile once it is on. True or False

A

False - Only front

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5
Q

The sterile assistant or nurse should open the scalpel blade. True or False

A

False

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6
Q

What type of drape has a pre-cut hole, and what is the technique called when huck towel are used.

A

Fenestrated and four quarter draping

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7
Q

Before shaving an open wound, what should be placed on the wound?

A

Lube

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8
Q

What type of gloving is it is hands remain inside the gown?

A

Closed

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9
Q

Are masks sterile?

A

No

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10
Q

Are gloves sterile?

A

Yes

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11
Q

Is the surgery table sterile?

A

No

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12
Q

Is the gown sterile?

A

Yes

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13
Q

Is the instrument table sterile?

A

No

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14
Q

Is the cap sterile?

A

No

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15
Q

Are the instruments sterile?

A

Yes

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16
Q

Is the equipment sterile?

A

No

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17
Q

Is the patient sterile?

A

No

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18
Q

Is the Endotracheal tube sterile?

A

No

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19
Q

What size clipper blade is used for a surgical shave?

A

40-50

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20
Q

Why do we express the bladder before a surgical procedure?

A

The bladder can get in the way, urinate on table, scald, contaminate surgical field.

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21
Q

List four items that can be used to correctly position pets on the operating table

A

Trough, sand bags, towels, tie downs

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22
Q

Why is the leg suspended during prep on orthopedic patients?

A

To make sure all areas are accessible for shave and prep.

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23
Q

What is the difference between “scrub” and “solution”? Why are they both rinsed

A

Scrub has detergent, solution does not.

Both can cause irritation.

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24
Q

What is the name of the suture used to temporarily close the rectum?

A

Purse string suture

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25
Q

Is Dexon suture absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

Absorbable

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26
Q

Is Prolene suture absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

Non-absorbable

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27
Q

Is Vicryl suture absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

Absorbable

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28
Q

Is Silk suture absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

Non-absorbable

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29
Q

Is PDS suture absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

Absorbable

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30
Q

Is Nylon suture absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

Non-absorbable

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31
Q

Is Gut suture absorbable or non-absorbable?

A

Absorbable

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32
Q

What is the difference between “plain” and “chromic” suture?

A

Chromic suture is coated with bile acid salts, which delays the absorption rate.
Plain is not coated with anything.

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33
Q

What is the purpose of double wrapping pack?

A

Prevents penetration of liquids

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34
Q

Describe suture memory

A

Retains the shape it was in the package

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35
Q

What is “strike-through” of a surgical drape? Does it affect the sterile field?

A

When liquid seeps through the material. Yes, it affects the sterile field.

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36
Q

Etomidate is an expensive short acting induction drug used on cardiac patients. True or False?

A

True

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37
Q

An endotracheal tube is sterile. True or False?

A

False

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38
Q

Animals should breath 100% oxygen for a few minutes prior to induction by mask or chamber. True or False?

A

True

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39
Q

High pressure low volume endotracheal tubes are more likely to cause tissue necrosis. True or False?

A

False

40
Q

Injectable drugs via an IV catheter is the bet protocol for small animal induction. True or False?

A

False

41
Q

Which stage of anesthesia exhibits irregular breathing, paddling?

A

Stage II

42
Q

Which stage of anesthesia exhibits Adequate for most surgical procedures?

A

Stage III, plane II

43
Q

Which stage of anesthesia exhibits eyeballs begin to rotate central and pupils dilate?

A

Stage III, Plane III

44
Q

Which stage of anesthesia exhibits eyeballs begin to rotate ventrally.

A

Stage III, Plane I

45
Q

In the respiratory tract the area where no gas exchange takes place is called what?

A

Deadspace

46
Q

Dogs and cats are usually placed in what position for intubation?

A

Sternal recumbancy

47
Q

When using ketamine and diazepam you will draw up which drug first, why?

A

Diazepam, because it is an anti-seizure and may infect the Ketamine.

48
Q

Murphy ETs have a safety feature called what at the end of them?

A

eye

49
Q

List three risks of ET intubation.

A

Stimulate vagus nerve, Bronchi insertion, Cuff over inflation causing trachea necrosis

50
Q

List three reasons for ET intubation

A

Allow controlled flow of O2, Waste gas exchange, reduce dead space

51
Q

What does “too effect” mean concerning anesthetic drugs?

A

Just enough or enough to the desired effect which is loss of jaw muscle tone.

52
Q

Describe larygeal spasm. Which animal is mot common affected by this?

A

Uncontrolled/involuntary muscular contraction (spasm) of the laryngeal cords. Most common in felines.

53
Q

List two reasons for using a laryngoscope

A

Hold down epiglottis, and see trachea clearly.

54
Q

Other than visually seeing it in the trachea, list three ways to check that the ET is in the correct place.

A

Patient may cough, but not always.
Should not be able to vocalize.
Watch flutter valve & reservoir bag for movement.

55
Q

What does the large number on the ET represent?

A

The inner diameter

56
Q

What supplies do you need to set out to be prepared for intubation?

A

Laryngoscope, ET, lube/water, rolled gauze, syringe to inflate cuff

57
Q

How do you measure length of ET?

A

from incisors to thoracic inlet.

58
Q

Subjective monitoring is using the equipment while objective monitoring is using your senses. True or False?

A

False - Subjective is your senses

59
Q

The EKG shows us electrical activity in the heart. True or False?

A

True

60
Q

A pulse deficit is when a heart murmur can be felt not just heard. True or False?

A

False - pulse deficit is the difference between palpable pulse and heart beats.

61
Q

The doppler is an example of invasive blood pressure monitoring. True or False?

A

False

62
Q

Etomidate is an expensive short acting induction drug used on cardiac patients. True or False?

A

True

63
Q

What is the primary goal of anesthesia monitoring?

A

Tissue perfusion

64
Q

List four factors that contribute to hypothermia of an anesthetized patient.

A
  1. Room temperature fluids
  2. Shave, scrub w/cold water, alcohol
  3. Anesthetics
  4. Open body cavity to room temp
65
Q

Does adequate ventilation ensure adequate oxygenation?

A

no, ventilation ist he movement of the chest and oxygenation is the exchange of gases.

66
Q

If the Pulse oximeter is reading 80% for oxygen saturation how can you check your patient if this is correct?

A

MM color

67
Q

List four things that can cause hypotension.

A
  1. Preexisting heart disease
  2. Some anesthetic agents
  3. Blood loss
  4. Vasodilation
68
Q

If a patient is hypercapnic are they also hypoxic? Why

A

No,
Hypercapnia is an increased concentration of carbon dioxide in the blood.
Hypoxia is the reduction of oxygen supply to tissues.

69
Q

List three common reflexes we observe when inducing and monitoring anesthesia.

A

Palbebral, pedal, and jaw tone.

70
Q

Explain how to correctly measure a pet for their blood pressure cuff size.

A

The width of the cuff should wrap approximately 40% of leg.

71
Q

When does anesthetic monitoring begin?

A

As soon as induction agents are given.

72
Q

What are the five physiological parameter categories we monitor with patients under anesthesia?

A

Circulatory, oxygen, neurological, temperature, respiratory.

73
Q

What are the four basic components of any anesthesia machine?

A

Compressed gas course, regulator, flow meter, vaporizer.

74
Q

Oxygen in the compressed tank has a pressure of ?.

A

2200 psi

75
Q

The regulator reduces the 2200 psi to what?

A

40-50 psi

76
Q

At the machine the what further reduces the pressure

A

flow meter

77
Q

What is the formula for determining tidal volume in a patient?

A

10 ml/kg

78
Q

The f/air can should be placed upright on a solid flat surface. True or False?

A

False - it needs air flow

79
Q

A CO2 canister is needed with both a rebreathing and non-rebreating system. True or False?

A

False

80
Q

Precision vaporizers have a safety latch on the dial. True or False?

A

True

81
Q

Oxygen can not flow through the vaporizer unless it is on. True or False?

A

False

82
Q

Oxygen flow rates are generally lower on rebreathing circuits. True or False?

A

True

83
Q

The oxygen flow rate for mask induction is 2 L/kg/min. True or False?

A

False - 2 L/min

84
Q

When pressing the flush valve the flow of oxygen bypasses what two parts of the machine?

A

Flow meter and vaporizer

85
Q

When is the flush valve used?

A

When just O2 is desired, and extra anesthetic agent is flushed from the system.

86
Q

What is the difference between active and passive scavenger systems?

A

Active - uses a slight pressure to draw anesthetic agent out, also connected to a generator.
Passive - uses gravity and an f/air canister. The canister sits on the machine lower than main part of anesthetic machine.

87
Q

Ketamine does not provide good pain control. True or False?

A

False

88
Q

Midazolam and Diazepam are examples of benzodiazapines. True or False?

A

True

89
Q

Xylazine and dexmedetomidine are reversible drugs. True or False?

A

False

90
Q

NSAIDs are hard on the GI system and can cause ulcers. True or False?

A

True

91
Q

It is better to have a central line rather and a peripheral IV catheter in a patient who is having surgery. True or False?

A

False

92
Q

What does the passive scavenger canister do?

A

Collects excess anesthetic gas from exhaled Co2

93
Q

What does the vaporizer do?

A

The vaporizer delivers a controlled concentration of that gas anesthetic into the patient’s breathing circuit.

94
Q

What does the manometer do?

A

Measures the pressure within the machine.

95
Q

A precision vaporizer can only be used (in or out) of circuit systems.

A

Out

96
Q

What are the four basic components of any anesthetic machine?

A

Compressed gas source, regulator, flow meter, vaporizer

VTT 246 Surgery (7 decks)

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