Final review Flashcards

1
Q

Signs of compensated shock include:

A

tachycardia, tachypnea, restlessness, pallor, and cool, clammy skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

___ is indicative of decompensated shock in a patient with internal bleeding

A

hypotension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Reduced tidal volume would most likely be the result of respirations that are ___

A

shallow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Appropriate treatment for a patient with partial thickness burns over 50% of the body would include:

A

covering the burns with dry sterile dressings and preventing further loss of body heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Following the initial steps of resuscitation, a newborn remains apneic and cyanotic. You should:

A

begin ventilation with a BVM device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

___ indicates a lower airway obstruction

A

wheezing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

EMTs in most states are required to report which of the following:
Animal bite, Vehicle crash, injury to a minor, drug overdose

A

Animal bite

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Sudden cardiac arrest in the adult population is MOST often the result of:

A

cardiac dysrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Sudden onset tachycardia in a patient who has just been administered nitro is most likely the result of

A

drop in BP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A pediatric patient with hot, flushed skin experiencing multiple seizures over the course of 20 or more minutes with no postictal state and no regaining of consciousness between seizures is most likely experiencing

A

status epilepticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

A near-drowning is MOST accurately defined as:

A

survival for at least 24 hours following submersion in water.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask on a patient with difficulty breathing, you should:

A

profile the reservoir bag to ensure 100% oxygen delivery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

The priority in a patient with a lateral jugular laceration, but whose breathing is adequate and airway is patent should be:

A

keep air out of the wound and control bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

You should be MOST suspicious that a patient with chest pressure has an underlying cardiac problem if his or her pulse is:

A

irregular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When the incident command system is activated at the scene, you should expect to:

A

report back to your section officer in between assignments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

This type of patient may present with vague, unusual, or atypical symptoms of AMI:

A

elderly women with diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Compensated shock in the infant or child is characterized by:

A

poor peripheral perfusion (slow capillary refill time)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Appropriate technique for performing 2-rescuer CPR on a child or infant includes:

A

15 compression to 2 ventilation, compressing the sternum with the heel of your hand, and ventilating until visible chest rise occurs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

A ___ should not be placed in a plastic biohazard bag because it is actually sharp:

A

plastic IV catheter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Any patient who’s chest pain is not relieved with NTG should be assumed to be experiencing:

A

cardiac ischemia (MI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The AED analyzes your pulseless and apneic patient’s cardiac rhythm and advises that a shock is NOT indicated. You should:

A

resume CPR, beginning with chest compressions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

During your assessment of a patient who experienced blunt facial trauma, you note the presence of a hyphema. This indicates:

A

direct trauma to the eyeball

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Melena, tachycardia, and hematemesis are all signs of :

A

GI bleeding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Signs/Symptoms of Rocky Mountain spotted fever include:

A

nausea, vomiting, headache, weakness, paralysis, and possibly cardiopulmonary failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The quickest way to reduce cardiac ischemia in a patient experiencing an acute coronary syndrome is to:

A

sit or lay the patient down

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Pulseless electrical activity is described as:

A

any organized cardiac rhythm, fast or slow, that doesn’t produce a palpable pulse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

A 3 year old child experiencing respiratory distress who does not acknowledge your presence is likely experiencing:

A

severe hypoxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Immediately after receiving an order from medical control you should:

A

repeat the order back to medical control word for word

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

sildenafil, vardenafil, and tadalafil are all examples of:

A

erectile dysfunction medications

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

Positive pressure ventilation are indicated in a newborn if:

A

he is apneic or has gasping respirations, HR is less than 100bpm, or central cyanosis persists despite blow-by oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The purpose of the pediatric assessment triangle is to:

A

form a general impression of the child without touching him

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

While assisting a paramedic in starting an IV on a patient, you are inadvertently stuck by the contaminated needle while attempting to place it in the sharps container. You should:

A

eek medical care as soon as possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

As you begin ventilating an unresponsive apneic man, you hear gurgling in his upper airway. Your MOST immediate action should be to:

A

quickly turn the patient onto his side so secretions can drain.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Following delivery of a newborn and placenta, you note that the mother has moderate vaginal bleeding. The mother is conscious and alert and her vital signs are stable. Treatment for her should include:

A

administering oxygen and massaging the uterus.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Aspirin is beneficial to patients experiencing an acute coronary syndrome because it

A

prevents a clot from getting larger.

36
Q

Which ventilation technique will enable you to provide the greatest tidal volume AND allow you to effectively assess lung compliance?

A

one-rescuer mouth-to-mask ventilation

37
Q

You are dispatched to a residence for a 20-year-old male with respiratory distress. When you arrive, you find that the patient has a tracheostomy tube and is ventilator dependent. His mother tells you that he was doing fine, but then suddenly began experiencing breathing difficulty. You should:

A

remove him from the mechanical ventilator and ventilate him manualy

38
Q

A patient has severe facial injuries, inadequate breathing, and copious secretions coming from the mouth. How should this situation be managed?

A

Alternate suctioning for 15 seconds and ventilations for 2 minutes

39
Q

Law enforcement is on scene at a bar and informs you that your patient is the young male, who is sitting against the wall screaming in pain with bright red blood spurting from a gunshot wound near his groin. You should:

A

apply pressure to the wound.

40
Q

Which of the following structures is responsible for regulating body temperature?

A

Hypothalamus

41
Q
Which of the following injury mechanisms is associated with hangings?
Hyperextenision
Distraction
Axial loading
Subluxation
A

Distraction

42
Q

Routes of disease transmission include:

A

Direct/indirect contact, airborne, food borne, vector borne

43
Q

Regular respiratory rate for infants:

A

25-50 breathes/min

44
Q

Regular respiratory rate for children:

A

15-30 breathes/min

45
Q

The inadequate attempts at breathing in a patient in cardiac arrest Is called:

A

agonal gasps

46
Q

An apneic patient being ventilated with a BVM should receive ___ to maintain the airway.

A

an oral airway adjunct

47
Q

After arriving on scene where a 55 yo Pt collapsed, two-bystander CPR is in progress, your first action should be:

A

stop CPR and assess breathing & pulse

48
Q

Agonal respirations are not adequate because they are:

A

infrequent, gasping respiratory efforts

49
Q

During delivery of a baby’s head, you note a nucal chord, you should:

A

make one attempt to gently remove the chord from around the neck

50
Q

Damaged small blood vessels beneath the skin following blunt trauma causes:

A

ecchymosis (hematoma occurs from rupture of larger vessels

51
Q

Cyanosis to the periphery of the body is called:

A

acrocyanosis (cyanosis of the extremities)

52
Q

The most appropriate time to complete the PCR for a critically ill or injured Pt is:

A

as soon as all Pt care activities are completed

53
Q

When assessing a sexual assault victim, it is most important to:

A

ensure all life-threatening injuries are treated

54
Q

When caring for a critically injured Pt, it is most appropriate to perform the secondary assessment:

A

while en route to the hospital

55
Q

The most appropriate question to ask a pregnant woman in labor with contractions at 4-5 minutes:30 seconds would be:

A

how many weeks gestation are you

56
Q

Pulse & Respiratory rates for neonates

A

90-180/30-60

57
Q

Pulse & Respiratory rates for infants

A

100-160/25-50

58
Q

Pulse & Respiratory rates for toddlers

A

90-150/20-30

59
Q

Pulse & Respiratory rates for preschool age children

A

80-140/20-25

60
Q

Pulse & Respiratory rates for school age children

A

70-120/15-20

61
Q

Pulse & Respiratory rates for adolescents

A

60-100/12-20

62
Q

Pulse & Respiratory rates for adults (all ages)

A

60-100/12-20

63
Q

Angina occurs when the hearts need for oxygen ___

A

exceeds it’s supply

64
Q

When blood flow is restricted to an area of the heart for an extended time, the resulting cell death is called:

A

myocardial infarction

65
Q

In ___ the problem is that the heart lacks enough power to force the proper blood volume through the circulatory system

A

Cardiogenic shock

66
Q

___ occurs when the left ventricle of the heart is so damaged it cannot keep up with the return flow of blood from the atria.

A

CHF

67
Q

The most comfortable way for CHF patients to be transported is ___

A

sitting up with the legs down

68
Q

When arriving to the scene of a trench rescue, park the ambulance at least ___ from the scene

A

500 ft

69
Q

You should not attempt to actively rewarm a patient with moderate or severe hypothermia in the field because:

A

rewarming too quickly can cause a fatal cardiac dysrhythmia.

70
Q

A mass casualty incident is defined as an incident:

A

that overwhelms your resources, regardless of the number of patients

71
Q

The position of comfort for a patient with nontraumatic chest pain MOST commonly is:

A

semisitting

72
Q

In right sided heart failure, blood collects in the ___ causing ___

A

body; edema & JVD

73
Q

Left heart failure typically causes blood to pool in the ___ causing ___

A

lungs; dyspnea/pulmonary edema

74
Q

After moving a hypothermic patient to a warmer area, your primary focus should be to:

A

prevent further body heat loss

75
Q

After assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin, you would NOT expect him or her to experience a:

A

syncopal episode

76
Q

NTG (nitroglycerin) works by:

A

dilating the coronary arteries, this increasing the oxygen supply to the heart and relieving a cardiac patient’s chest pain

77
Q

Vertex presentation during childbirth refers to:

A

delivery of the head first (normal presentation)

78
Q

Breech presentation is commonly associated with a higher incidence of:

A

prolapse of the umbilical cord

79
Q

When treating a patient with chest pain, pressure, or discomfort, you should first:

A

place the patient in a position of comfort

80
Q

A minimum of ___ people should be utilized to safely restrain a patient who is a potential harm to himself or others

A

4

81
Q

You are performing abdominal thrusts on a 19-year-old male with a severe airway obstruction when he becomes unresponsive. After lowering him to the ground and placing him in a supine position, you should:

A

begin CPR, starting with chest compressions

82
Q

___ is the MOST reliable indicator of a fracture to a spinal vertebra.

A

Palpable pain at the site of injury

83
Q

When providing care to multiple patients at the scene of a mass-casualty incident, your goal should remain focused on:

A

transporting patients to the hospital

84
Q

The primary clinical feature associated with exposure to a vesicant agent is:

A

blistering

85
Q

Vesicant (blistering) agents include:

A

sulfur mustard (H), Lewisite (L), and phosgene oxide (CX)

86
Q

Medications such as albuterol (Ventolin) relieve respiratory distress by:

A

relaxing the smooth muscle of the bronchioles