Final Review Flashcards
1
Q
What are the functions of bone?
A
Physical: serve, protect, support; Metabolic: mineral, hemopoiesis, fat storage
2
Q
What are the classifications of bone?
A
Long: in limbs, short: in limbs, flat: hemopoiesis, Sesamoid: in tendons to protect from friction, irregular
3
Q
What are the origins of bone?
A
Cartilaginous: replaces a cartilage model-continuous production and resorption allows bone to elongate; intramembranous: forms directly within a sheet of connective tissue (bones of skull and face)
4
Q
What is the blood supply of the bones?
A
Nutrient artery-largest single source of blood
5
Q
What are the main bones to know?
A
C1-Atlas, has wings and the atlantooccipital joint allows for “yes”; C2-Axis, has a dens and the atlantoaxial joint allows for “no”, C6-radiographic landmark with huge ventral lamina, C7-lacks transverse foramen, has caudal costal fovea; T11-anticlinal vertebra, no costal fovea, sagittal joint
6
Q
What are the types of joints?
A
Fibrous (suture-flat bones of the skull, gomphosis-between roots of teeth and alveoli/formed by periodontal ligament, syndesmoses-all others, like between metacarpals), cartilaginous (hyaline-usually temporary and ossify with age like costochondral joints, fibrocartilaginous-like pelvic symphysis and intervertebral discs), synovial (have joint cavity, joint capsule, synovial fluid to help remove waste/lubrication/nourishment-from membrane that is vascularised and innervated and doesnt cover articular surface and is primary source of joint pain, and articular cartilage-avascular and aneural) (ligaments-extra (collateral, most appendicular synovial joints), and intracapsular)
7
Q
Describe the joints
A
Humeral-flexion/extension, lacks true collateral ligaments; cubital-compound, thick collateral ligaments; coxal-great range of motion because of ball and socket, lacks collateral ligaments, ligament of the head of the femur is intracapsular and anchors head to acetabulum; genual-bones do not fit together well and there is instability in axes, has 2 menisci and 10 ligaments (8 intra, 2 extra)
8
Q
Describe integument system
A
Functions: physical barrier, sensory, ionic pool for water and electrolytes, vitamin D synthesis, thermoregulation, immunity, intraspecies communication
9
Q
What does the integument include?
A
Epidermis (avascular), dermis (dense connective tissue, vascularized and innervated), hypodermis (collagen and elastic with fat, thickening helps with movement and has cutaneous muscles and folds), accessory structures like hair, sweat glands, etc
10
Q
What are the types of skin glands?
A
Sebaceous-secrete sebum, drains into hair follicles, lubricates and waterproofs skin and coat; sweat-apocrine (asso. with hair, create odor) and merocrine (not associated with hair, found on footpads, watery secretion)
11
Q
What are the specialised skin glands?
A
Ceruminous-in external auditory canal, secretes ear wax, in dogs and cats; circumoral-in cats, sebaceous, on lips; carpal-cats and pigs, proximal to carpal pad and marked by a tuft of hair; caudal-dogs and cats, dorsal surface of hair and more activity during breeding season, can cause hyperplasia and stud tail; circumanal-dogs, by anus, empty by bursting, role in steroid synthesis and site of tumors; glands of the anal sacs-dogs and cats, in walls, secrete during pooping
12
Q
What are the types of hair?
A
Guard-lie close against skin, straight and stiff, form top coat; wool-fine and wavy, form undercoat; tactile-modification of guard hairs, thicker and protrude beyond hairs
13
Q
What is the hair cycle?
A
Finite seasonal shedding, anagen->early catagen->late catagen->telogen->early anagen
14
Q
Describe the mammary glands
A
Dogs: bilaterally symmetrical rows, has glandular complex with papilla, 5 pairs-4 for cat, 1 less abdominal- (2 thoracic, 2 abdominal, 1 inguinal), tubuloalveolar sweat, multiple openings to a single duct, thoracic and cranial abdominal mammae drain to axillary lymph nodes, caudal and inguinal to superficial inguinal lymph node; NO CONNECTIONS BETWEEN L AND R SIDES
15
Q
What are the functions of muscles?
A
maintain posture of body, moves substances inside body, generation of body heat, provide support, glycogen storage
16
Q
What is skeletal muscle organization?
A
Whole muscle surrounded by epimysium, each fascicle in perimysium, individual muscle fibers by endomysium
17
Q
How are muscles attached?
A
Tendons (from collagen fibers, damaged by much force, protection by sesamoid bones and synovial bursae, mesotenons provide vascular supply and sensory), aponeurosis (densely arranged collagen), fleshy
18
Q
Explain deep fascia
A
Hold sutures well, fairly bloodless separation of muscles, inflammation or swelling of muscles or fluid accumulation compresses other structures, need to direct the drain of fluids, thickenings are retinacula
19
Q
What are the forms of muscles?
A
Spindle-active belly (biceps, triceps), pennate-fibers oblique to the force (rectus femoris, deltoid), sphincter, circular, wide with tendinous tissue or aponeurosis
20
Q
Skeletal muscle
A
stimulated to contract by lower alpha motor neurons originating in CNS, contraction is an all or none event, muscle spindles give info about muscle length, Golgi tendon organs give info about muscle tension
21
Q
What is the patellar reflex?
A
patellar ligament->stretch musculotendinous junction->stimulates muscle spindle->reflexive contraction
22
Q
Epaxial versus hypaxial muscles
A
Epaxial-innervated by dorsal branches of spinal nerves, ILT, extend vertebral column and produce lateral movement when only on one side; hypaxial-by ventral branches of spinal nerves
23
Q
Inspiration and expiration
A
Inspiration is active, diaphragm is most important, scalenus and serratus dorsalis cranialis; expiration is passive and a function of lung elastic recoil, forceful by abdominal wall and serratus dorsalis caudalis; intercostal muscles are both and draw ribs together, external has caudoventral fibers and internal has cranioventral fibers
24
Q
What are the contents of the thoracic outlet?
A
Lumbocostal Arch-sympathetic trunk and major splanchnic nerve, Aortic hiatus-azygos vein, aorta, thoracic duct, esophageal hiatus-esophagus, dorsal and ventral vagal trunks, caval foramen-caudal vena cava
25
What is the endothoracic fascia?
connective tissue lining thoracic cavity attaching pleurae to thoracic wall and diaphragm
26
What is pleura?
mesothelial membrane that lines thoracic cavity, encloses mediastinum, covers lungs
27
What lies in the mediastinum?
Thymus, heart, aorta, trachea, esophagus, nerves, vessels, fat, lymph nodes
28
What is in the pleural cavity?
NOTHING except for a small bit of serous fluid
29
What is pneumothorax?
When the mediastinum ruptures and allows communication of pleural cavities
30
What is connecting pleurae?
Double folds of pleurae; includes pulmonary ligament and plica vena cava
31
What is the line of pleural reflection?
Line that allows access to the pleural cavity, runs along 8/9 ribs, 10/11 at costochondral junction, and up to the 12th intercostal space
32
What is cardiac tamponade?
Fibrous pericardium prevents distension of pericardial cavity, fluid accumulation can result in compression of heart
33
Where is the cardiac notch?
Low in the right 4-5 intercostal space, can get to the heart without hitting the lung
34
What is the pulmonary blood supply?
Functional-pulmonary arteries from R ventricle to lungs for gaseous exchange; nutritional-bronchoesophageal artery
35
What is the auscultaton triangle?
caudal border of triceps, lateral edge of epaxial muscles, sternal end of 6th rib to 11th intercostal space
36
What is the costodiaphragmatic recess?
Potential space where diaphragmatic and costal parietal pleura are in contact with each other
37
What is the blood supply of the cardiovascular system?
General circulation has two loops. Pulmonary-lower pressure, from heart to lungs and back; systemic pressure-from heart to rest of body; Flow: leaves heart through pulmonary trunk or aorta, into arteries, then arterioles, then capillaries, venules, then veins and back to heart
38
What are the portal systems?
Usually blood flows through capillaries once, but the portal system has blood going through two capillary beds before returning to the heart. Has hepatic and hypothalamico-hypophyseal
39
Where is the heart?
The 3-6 intercostal spaces
40
What is the conduction system of the heart?
Sinoatrial node-> atrioventricular node->Purkinje fibres
41
List features of the R atrium and ventricle
Atrium: inflow from the vena cavaes and coronary sinus, outflow through R AV orifice, has intervenous tubercle to divert blood from CDVs into orifice and has pectinate muscles for strength; Ventricle: Inflow from R AV orifice, outflow by pulmonary trunk orifice/valve, has conus arteriosus that is a funnel part, papillary muscles that are cone shaped and lead to chordae tendinae which prevent eversion of AV valves, trabeculae carneae which are ridges lining the ventricle, and a trabecula septomarginalis which conducts Purkinje fibres across the lumen
42
List features of the L atrium and ventricle
Atrium: inflow is the pulmonary veins, outflow is the L AV orifice, has left auricle and pectinate muscles; Ventricle: inflow from L AV orifice, outflow is the aortic orifice, has features like the R ventricle but bigger
43
What is the coronary circulation?
From ascending aorta, L coronary has a circumflex branch which has a subsinuosal interventricular branch, a paraconal interventricular branch, and a septal branch; also a R coronary artery
44
Heart sounds
S1: Closure of AV valves, Lub sound; S2: closure of semilunar valves, dub sound
45
What are the points of maximal intensity?
Pulmonary valve: Low in L 3rd intercostal space; Aortic: high in L 4th intercostal space; Left AV valve: low in L 5th intercostal space; Right AV valve: low in R 4-5th intercostal space
46
How is lymph returned to the venous system?
Thoracic Duct-empties near L venous angle, receives lymph from 3/4 of body; Right lymphatic duct-empties near R venous angle, receives lymph from R half of head and neck and thoracic limb and shoulder
47
Describe fetal circulation
Lungs are shrunken, non functional, and resist blood flow; oxygenation and nutrient waste exchange occurs in placenta which is distinct from the fetus
48
Describe the parts of fetal circulation
Umbilical arteries: From internal iliac arteries, carry fetal blood out through umbilical cord to placenta for waste exchange; umbilical vein: returns blood from placenta to fetus, from umbilical cord to liver where continues as ductus venosus *highest oxygen concentration here*; foramen ovale: passage through interatrial septum which allows blood to bypass the lungs by flowing from R atrium to L atrium; ductus arteriosus: vascular connection between pulmonary trunk and aorta, allows blood from R ventricle to bypass lungs and go to aorta
49
What are the changes that happen at birth?
Lungs inflate which result in decreased pulmonary resistance and increased pulmonary blood flow (venous return to L atrium increases which closes the foramen ovale); increased oxygen concentration causes smooth muscle contraction and closes umbilical structures
50
What happens to the fetal circulation?
Arteries become round ligaments of the urinary bladder, vein becomes the round ligament of the liver, ductus venosus becomes ligamentum venosum, ductus arteriosus becomes ligamentum arteriosum, foramen ovale becomes fossa ovalis
51
What are interneurons?
Short neurons interposed between afferent and efferent, entirely within CNS, excitatory or inhibitory
52
What are projection neurons?
in CNS, send axons a longer distance before stopping. If in the spinal cord, it ends cranially by forming an ascending tract. if begin in nucleus or cortex of brain, goes caudally to end in descending tract/upper motor neuron
53
Classify peripheral neurons
GSE-multipolar, supplies most skeletal muscles; GVE-multipolar, supply smooth and cardiac muscle and glands, has a 2 neuron chain; GSA-pseudounipolar neurons that carry sensory neurons, cell bodies are in sensory ganglia; GVA-pseudounipolar neurons that carry sensory info; SSA-bipolar carry vision and auditory; SVA-bipolar and pseudounipolar that carry taste and smell
54
What is the basic make up of spinal nerves?
Dorsal root (sensory) and ventral root (motor) combine to form spinal nerve, which divides into a dorsal branch, ventral branch, and communicating branch
55
What is the Autonomic Nervous System?
controls involuntary visceral info to maintain homeostasis or respond to stress; GVE system-sympathetic (thoracolumbar) and parasympathetic (craniosacral)
56
What is the first part of the sympathetic pathway?
lateral gray horn->ventral root->spinal nerve->ramus communicans->sympathetic trunk; head=cranial cervical ganglion, neck=cervicothoracic ganglion, thorax=cervicothoracic or middle cervical ganglion, body=sympathetic trunk ganglion, abdominal cavity=ganglion within plexuses (celiacomesenteric, caudal mesenteric), pelvic cavity=caudal mesenteric ganglion,
57
What is the main arterial supply of the thoracic limb?
Axillary (gives off cranial circumflex humeral)->Brachial (gives off common interosseous)->Median->Superficial Palmar Arch->Palmar Common Digital; radial and caudal interosseous (main supply for deep palmar arch) give rise to the dorsal carpal rete which is the vascular network of the forepaw
58
What are the veins of the thoracic limb?
The deep venous system is formed by axillary tributaries; superficial venous system: median cubital (connects cephalic and brachial) and axillobrachial (connects axillary with cephalic) are the connections between superficial and deep; omobrachial and cephalic drain into the external jugular vein
59
Lymphatics of the thoracic limb
No single terminal lymph node; superficial cervical (constant, palpable, efferent to thoracic duct/right tracheal trunk/external jugular vein), axillary (constant, not palpable, efferent to thoracic duct, left and right tracheal trunk, external jugular vein), accessory axillary (inconstant, palpable, efferent to axillary lymph node)
60
Describe the brachial plexus
Formed by ventral branches of C6-T2, located cranial to the first rib; long thoracic nerve innervates serratus ventralis, thoracodorsal innervates lats, lateral thoracic innervates cut trunci
61
What are the extrinsic muscles of the thoracic limb?
latissimus dorsi, trapezius, omo, brachiocephalicus, rhomboideus, sup/deep pecs
62
What are the nerves that innervate the intrinsic muscles of the thoracic limb?
Suprascapular-to supra/infraspinatus (damage leads to shoulder slip), subscapular-subscapularis, musculocutaneous-flexor muscles of cubital, axillary-passes proximal to teres major and innervates flexors of humeral, radial-parallel to brachial artery, passes distal to teres major, tricipital branches to extensors of cubital, deep branch goes to extensors of carpi/digits and ulnaris lateralis (injury->hit by car, proximal to tricipital leads to no extension/cannot bear weight/drags dorsal side, distal to tricipital leads to normal stance but knuckles over and no extension of carpus/digits), median-gives off medial and lateral branches to supply palmar surface, innervates flexors of carpus and digits (goes to palmar common nerves), ulnar-gives off dorsal and palmar branches, innervates palmar surface and 5th digit (goes to palmar metacarpal)
63
What are the flexor muscles of the cubital joint?
Biceps brachii and brachialis
64
What are the flexor muscles of the humeral joint?
Teres major, teres minor, deltoideus
65
What are the extensor muscles of the cubital joint?
Triceps brachii, anconeus, tensor fascia antebrachii
66
What are the carpi and digital extensor muscles?
Extensor carpi radialis, common and lateral digital extensor, abductor digiti 1 longus
67
What are the carpi and digital flexor muscles?
Flexor carpi radialis, SDF/DDF, pronator teres and quadratus, flexor carpi ulnaris, ulnaris lateralis
68
What is the superficial inguinal ring?
Slit like opening in the aponeurosis of EAO
69
What is the deep inguinal ring?
Cranial border: IAO; medial border: rectus abdominis; caudal border: inguinal ligament (end of EAO)
70
What does the inguinal canal have?
Spermatic cord or vaginal process, external cremaster, external pudendal artery and vein, genitofemoral nerve, efferent duct of superficial inguinal lymph node
71
Describe the peritoneal cavity
There are NO organs here! has small amount of serous fluid; pouches: pararectal fossa, rectogenital, vesicogenital, pubovesical
72
What is the root of the mesentery?
Thickest part of mesentery, attached to dorsal abdominal wall, cranial mesenteric artery, lymphatics, mesenteric nerve plexus
73
What is the great mesentery?
Continuous with deep leaf of greater omentum and caudally with descending mesocolon
74
What is included in the greater omentum?
The superficial leaf contains the spleen and the gastrosplenic ligament; deep leaf has the L lobe of the pancreas
75
What are the parts of the lesser omentum?
Hepatogastric and hepatoduodenal ligaments
76
What are the boundaries of the epiploic foramen?
Dorsal: Caudal vena cava, ventral-portal vein, lateral-caudate process of the liver; Most common site of the extrahepatic portosystemic shunt
77
What are the pyloric parts of the stomach?
Pyloric antrum-thin walled, wider proximal part; canal-thick walled, narrow distal part
78
What are the parts of the duodenum?
Cranial duodenal flexure-has hepatoduodenal ligament; descending-has mesoduodenum which has the R lobe of the pancreas; ascending-has duodenocolic fold
79
Where is the ileum located?
L caudal quadrant to R caudal quadrant; length determined by the antimesenteric ileal artery and ileocecal fold; ileocolic orifice has the papilla
80
What is the cecum?
Blind ended sac that does not communicate with the ileum directly, doesn't have vermiform appendix, whipworms can be found here
81
What is the most important part of the rectum?
Rectal ampulla-dilatation of the rectum; this is retroperitoneal
82
What are the parts of the anal canal?
Columnar zone-has anal collums which are long. folds and the anal sinus with the grooves; intermediate zone; cutaneous zone-circumanal glands open into the outer part and anal sacs open into the inner part
83
What is the liver?
Largest gland in the body, makes bile, has carb/fat/protein metabolism, inactivate hormones, detoxify foreign substances; not palpable in a healthy dog; biopsy left to the xiphoid process
84
Where is the gallbladder?
Between the right medial lobe and quadrate lobe of the liver
85
What is the pancreas?
Endocrine and exocrine gland, left lobe is the most common site for biopsy, pancreatic duct drains R lobe and L lobe of pancreas and opens into the major duodenal papilla with the bile duct
86
what does the abdominal aorta end as?
R and L internal iliac arteries and median sacral artery; unpaired branches are: celiac, cranial and caudal mesenteric; paired visceral branches: renal arteries, testicular or ovarian arteries
87
What is the portal vein?
Parts: cranial and caudal mesenteric veins and splenic vein
88
What are the portosystemic shunts?
Anomalous vessels that allow blood from portal vein to bypass liver and go directly into systemic circulation; not metabolised or detoxified (extrahepatic-1 vessel, congenital)
89
What are the functions of the kidneys?
Produce renin to regulate BP, erythropoietin to increase rate of RBC production; retroperitoneal
90
What are the parts of the kidney?
Renal hilus-indented medial part where nerves, vessels, lymphatics and ureter enters; renal sinus-contains pelvis, fat, proximal vessel branches; renal pelvis-funnel shaped dilatation of ureter-receives urine from papillary ducts; pelvic recess-curved diverticula of renal pelvis, project into parenchyma between pyramids; fibrous capsule-covers surface, made of collagen and elastic (few); renal cortex-outer part of parenchyma and granular from renal corpuscles; renal medulla-inner part, striated appearance due to medullary rays; renal crest-fusion of renal papillae, papillary ducts open on border of renal crest
91
What are the ureters?
Penetrates wall obliquely, prevents reflux of urine into ureter when pressure rises, resistance overcome by peristaltic contractions of the ureteric wall
92
What are the urinary ligaments?
lateral connects bladder to wall, free edge is called round ligament which has umbilical arteries remnants; median-connects ventral surface to pelvic symphysis and linea alba, has remnant of urachus
93
What are the attachments of the testes?
proper ligament-attaches testis to tail of the epididymis; ligament of the tail of the epididymis-attaches tail to vaginal tunic and spermatic fascia (both of the above have remnants of the gubernaculum); scrotal ligament-attaches tunica dartos and ligament of the tail
94
What is the epididymis?
Body-runs along dorsolateral surface of testis, continues craniodorsally as ductus deferens, attached by mesorchium (forms testicular bursa)
95
What is the difference between clinical and anatomical spermatic cord?
clinical has anatomical plus cremaster muscle and parietal vaginal tunic
96
What are the male accessory sex glands?
Prostate (ventral surface is retroperitoneal, median septum divides it, has colliculus seminalis) and ampullary gland
97
What are the glands of the penis?
Bulbus glandis-expansion of corpus spongiosum, provides lock during copulation; pars longa glandis has no connection with corpus spongiosum; os penis is ossification of corpora cavernosa
98
What are the ligaments of the female system?
Broad-includes mesovarium, mesosalpinx, mesometrium; round ligament of the uterus-runs from ovary to inguinal canal; suspensory-has to be strummed during spay
99
What are the parts of the uterine tube?
Fimbriae-fingerlike projections from infundibulum that capture oocyte; infundibulum-funnel with abdominal ostium that leads into the tubular part (site of fertilization); uterine ostium-opening of uterine tube into horn, at tubouterine junction
100
Describe the vagina
Dilatable canal, longitudinal folds have transverse folds so it can expand in length and width, fornix extends to cervix
101
What is the vestibule?
Connects vagina with vestibule, has urethral tubercle which contains the external urethral orifice, has vestibular bulb that is nodular erective tissue on lateral wall
102
What are the branches of the internal pudendal artery?
Vaginal, uterine, artery of clitoris, artery of vestibular bulb
103
What is the arterial supply for the hind limb?
Abdominal aorta->external iliac (gives off deep femoral)->femoral (gives off distal caudal femoral)->popliteal (gives off caudal tibial)->cranial tibial->dorsal pedal when reaches tarsocrural joint (gives off dorsal metatarsal II)->perforating metatarsal->Deep plantar arch->plantar metatarsal arteries
104
Describe the veins in the pelvic limb
Lateral saphenous (site of venepuncture for dogs) joins to distal caudal femoral vein; medial saphenous (venepuncture for cats) joins to femoral vein
105
What are the lymphatics for the pelvic limb?
Popliteal lymph node: palpable, constant, efferent to medial iliac or femoral; superficial inguinal: palpable, constant, efferent to medial iliac; Deep inguinal: inconstant; femoral: inconstant; Medial iliac: constant, single terminal lymph node, between deep circumflex and external iliac arteries, efferent to lymphatic ducts or cisterna chyli
106
What is the lumbosacral plexus?
L4-S3 spinal nerves, emerge caudal to corresponding vertebra, Lateral cutaneous femoral nerve passes with deep circumflex artery and vein, genitofemoral nerve passes with external pudendal artery and vein, femoral nerve gives off saphenous and is adjacent to the pecten ossis pubis where it can be damaged, innervates quadriceps femoris which extends stifle joint, can be injured due to overextension of muscle/if pelvic fracture then cannot support weight; saphenous nerve with femoral artery and vein, innervates sartorius; obturator is formed in iliopsoas muscle, innervates adductor muscles of limb, injured because of pelvic fracture or calving
107
What are the adductor muscles of the pelvic limb?
adductor, gracilis, external obturator, pectineus
108
What is the lumbosacral trunk?
L6-S2, continued outside as sciatic nerve, has cranial gluteal nerve which innervates middle and deep gluteal and tensor fascia lata; caudal gluteal which innervates superficial gluteal; sciatic which is largest nerve in body, with caudal gluteal artery, terminates into common fibular and tibial, innervates biceps femoris, quadratus, semimem/tendinosus, can be injured due to fractures, misdirected IM injection, complication of surgery; common fibular gives off lateral cutaneous sural, innervates flexors of tarsus and extensors of digits, can be injured to to misdirected IM injection, foot knuckles over and cannot feel dorsal sensation; Deep fibular nerve passes with cranial tibial artery; Tibial nerve innervates extensor muscles of tarsus and digital flexors, injured because of IM injection, leads to dropped hock, loss of plantar sensation; caudal cutaneous femoral on medial side of sacrotuberous ligament
109
What are the flexor muscles of the tarsus?
Cranial tibial, fibularis brevis and longus
110
What are the extensor muscles of the digits?
Long and lateral digital extensor
111
What are the extensor muscles of tarsus?
Gastrocnemius
112
What are the flexor muscles of the digits?
SDF and DDF
113
What are the accessory organs of the oral cavity?
Tongue, teeth, salivary glands
114
What are the borders of the oral cavity?
hard palate, tongue, dental arcades
115
What are the incisive ducts?
on each side of incisive papilla, leads to nasal cavity and vomeronasal organ
116
What is the soft palate?
Hard palate to intrapharyngeal opening, covered by respiratory muscosa, ventral surface covered by oral mucosa; muscles: palatine, tensor veli palatini and levator veli palatini
117
What are the arteries of the palate?
Minor palatine (direct from maxillary), descending palatine (direct from maxillary) and has major palatine and sphenopalatine arteries
118
What is the innervation of the palate?
Maxillary nerve->pterygopalatine->minor palatine (sensory to soft palate) and major palatine (sensory supply to mucosa of hard palate); glossopharyngeal (major sensory) and vagus (major motor) for pterygopharyngeal and palatopharyngeal muscles; mandibular nerve supplies tensor veli palatini muscle
119
What are the parts of the tongue?
Striated muscle, fat, connective tissue, mucous membrane, receptors for taste/pain/temp; manipulates food within mouth, laps water, swallowing, enhance heat loss by panting, dorsal side is cornified and has a thick mucosa, has a median groove; lyssa is the median filiform structure surrounded by CT and filled with fat/muscle and may act as stretch receptor; frenulum-median fold that connects tongue with floor of the oral cavity; root is separated from the body by vallate papilla
120
What are the types of papilla on the tongue?
Mechanical: protect deep structures from injury, includes conical (larger, less frequent, hard apex) and filiform (smallest, most numerous, not on lateral or ventral surface); gustatory: contains taste buds, includes fungiform (less numerous than filiform, rostral 2/3 of tongue)/vallate (1/3 tongue, 3 pairs, located on both sides of median groove, surrounded by circular cleft)/foliate (rostral to palatoglossal fold, not very distinct)
121
What are the intrinsic muscles of the tongue?
Not attached to the hyoid apparatus, has superficial longitudinal fibers, perpendicular, transverse, deep longitudinal; protrude the tongue, intricate local movement, prevent tongue from being bitten
122
What are the extrinsic muscles of the tongue?
Have osseous origin and radiate into tongue, styloglossus-elevates tongue; hyoglossus-between lingual artery and hypoglossal nerve, retracts tongue; genioglossus-draws tongue ventrally and rostrally
123
What is the blood supply of the tongue?
Lingual artery-branch of external carotid; sublingual-direct branch from facial
124
What is the innervation of the tongue?
chorda tympani-branch of facial nerve, carries mechano and thermoreceptor afferent fibers and some taste; vagus nerve; glossopharyngeal nerve w/lingual branch; hypoglossal nerve is only motor to tongue!
125
What are the head salivary glands?
Parotid-mixed, in retromandibular fossa, parotid duct passes across lateral surface over masseter muscle and opens buccal vestibule on small papilla opposite P4 tooth; mandibular-mixed, between maxillary and linguofacial veins, shares capsule with major sublingual gland, mandibular duct opens onto sublingual caruncle; minor sublingual-chain of small isolated lobule, ducts open into oral cavity; zygomatic-major duct opens into buccal vestibule caudal to parotid papilla and minor just caudal to that
126
Describe the teeth
prehension and mastication of food, offense and defense; brachydont-low crown with enamel, root covered by cementum, don't increase in length; enamel covers crown and hardest substance of the body and produced by ameloblasts/acellular; dentin forms most of tooth, similar in bone and encloses pulp cavity and produced by odontoblasts throughout life; cementum covers root and is very similar to bone, produced by cementoblasts and can regenerate, adjacent to alveolar bone
127
What is the osseous associated structures of the teeth?
Alveolar process-trabecular bone, cortical plate is the outer wall, lamina dura-thin compact bone of alveolar socket where periodontal ligament attaches; interalveolar septa-bone between adjacent teeth; interradical septa-bone between roots of same tooth; alveolar juga-bony elevation over lateral surface of tooth caused by roots
128
What is periodontium?
Includes gingivae, periodontal ligament (attaches root to bone via Sharpey's fibers), cementum, alveolar socket; has fibroelastic fibers, vessels, nerves, specialised cells
129
Describe the pharynx
Funnel shaped musculo-membranous passage, common cavity where air and bolus pass, connects oral cavity with esophagus and nasal cavity with larynx, soft palate separates into nasopharynx and oropharynx; intrapharyngeal opening is where the two channels meet, laryngopharynx is common caudal area of oro and nasopharynx
130
Describe the nasopharynx
choanae->intrapharyngeal opening; borders: epiglottis/hyopharyngeus/ceratohyoideus muscles; communicates with nasal cavity, laryngopharynx, oropharynx
131
Describe the oropharynx
From palatoglossal fold->base of epiglottis; borders are soft palate, root of tongue, and tonsillar fossa
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Describe the laryngopharynx
epiglottis->pharyngoesophageal limen; dorsal to larynx, piriform recesses serve as gutters for fluids, communicates with esophagus and naso/oropharynx
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What are the muscles of the pharynx?
middle pharyngeal constrictors-hyopharyngeus; caudal pharyngeal constrictors-thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus; dilator of the pharynx-stylopharyngeus
134
Describe the nose
Bony nasal aperture-rostral opening; dorsolateral nasal cartilage-most expansive in mobile part of external nose; dorsal nasal ligament-unpaired; lateral nasal ligament-paired; cartilaginous portion is movable; wings of the nostril is a thickened portion and most mobile portion of nostril; nasal vestibule has alar fold; dorsal nasal concha-formed by first endoturbinate/longest; ventral nasal concha-from maxilla, 1st to 3rd premolar, folds unite to form alar fold; ethmoidal labyrinth-endoturbinates are I-IV in nasal cavity and ectoturbinates 1-6 are in frontal sinus, all attached to cribriform plate
135
What is the maxillary recess?
Borders: maxilla, lacrimal bone, palatine bones, ethmoidal bones; has lateral nasal gland; nasomaxillary opening between middle nasal meatus and maxillary recess
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What be the larynx?
bilaterally symmetrical musculocartilaginous tube, connects pharynx to trachea, prevent aspiration of material into respiratory tract, needed for vocalization
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What is the cricoid cartilage?
forms complete ring, dorsal part wider, lamina is expanded dorsal part with median crest where muscles attach, cricoarytenoid and cricothyroid articulations
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What is arytenoid cartilage?
only paired laryngeal cartilage, vocal ligament and vocalis muscle attach to vocal process
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What is the laryngeal cavity?
Divided into 3 parts: vestibule with laryngeal inlet, rima glottidis, infraglottic cavity (entirely within cricoid cartilage)
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What is the glottis?
Has arytenoid cartilage and vocal fold; vocal ligament needed for vocalization
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What are the ligaments of the larynx?
Cricotracheal-cricoid cartilage to first tracheal cartilage; cricothyroid-cricoid cartilage to thyroid cartilage
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What are the extrinsic muscles of the larynx?
connects larynx with hyoid bone, pharynx, sternum; sternothyroideus, thyrohyoideus, thyropharyngeus and cricopharyngeus
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What are intrinsic muscles?
Function to widen and narrow cleft, tense and relax vocal fold; cricoarytenoideus dorsalis-main abductor of arytenoid cartilage
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What is the blood supply of the larynx?
Cranial laryngeal artery-direct branch from external carotid and supplies intrinsic muscles of larynx
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What is the innervation of the larynx?
Vagus nerve; external branch of cranial laryngeal nerve innervates cricothyroid muscle; caudal laryngeal nerve innervates intrinsic muscles besides cricothyroid and is terminal segment of recurrent laryngeal nerve
146
Describe the orbit
Orbital margin-dorsolateral gap closed by orbital ligament; periorbita-CT sheath and smooth muscle that encloses orbital contents (innervated by sympathetic ANS and squeezes eyeball forward and in position)
147
Describe conjunctiva
richly vascular mucous membrane, palpebral-lines inner surface of eyelids, bulbar covers sclera
148
Describe lacrimal apparatus
lacrimal gland or gland of 3rd eyelid->conjunctival sac->superior and inferior lacrimal puncta->lacrimal canaliculi->lacrimal sac->nasolacrimal duct->nasal vestibule
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What are the layers of the bulbus oculi?
external fibrous coat (cornea, sclera, limbus, insertion of ocular muscles), middle vascular coat (uvea, has choroid, ciliary body that produces aqueous humor, iris), inner nervous coat (retina)
150
What is the aqueous humor production and resorption pathway?
ciliary body->posterior chamber->pupil->anterior chamber->iridocorneal angle->scleral venous plexus
151
What is the makeup of the ear?
middle: tympanic membrane and cavity, medial wall is petrous temporal bone, oval window connects to vestibule and covered by stapes, round window connects to cochlear cavity; medial wall bulges over and forms the promontory; inner ear: membranous labyrinth with utricle and semicircular ducts, a saccule and cochlear duct, filled with endolymph, also has bony labyrinth with vestibule, semicircular canals, cochlea, and filled with perilymph
152
What are the arteries supplying the head?
Common carotid artery-primary supply to head, L and R originate separately from brachiocephalic trunk, terminates as internal (carotid sinus is bulge that is a baroreceptor and carotid body is a chemoreceptor at bifurcaton) and external; maxillary branches to inferior alveolar, caudal deep temporal, and middle meningeal before alar canal; redundant blood supply is the basilar artery and internal carotids
153
What is the lymphatic system of the head?
Parotid drains superficial structures dorsal to palate and ear; mandibular drains superficial structures of face and is palpable; medial iliac is terminal for the head, drains deep structures and efferents form the tracheal trunk; deep cervical drain larynx, thyroid, trachea, etc
154
List features of the cranial nerves
Olfactory nerve is the only one not attaching to the brainstem, Optic is an extension of the CNS/75% of fibers decussate, oculomotor conducts GSE and GVE fibers which synapse at the ciliary ganglion (from v. mesencephalon), trochlear is only one to originate from dorsal brain, trigeminal is from metencephalon and the first two branches are sensory while mandibular is both, abducens is from myelencephalon and function impaired if medial strabismus, facial from myelencephalon too and functions in facial expression/caudal digastricus/taste w rostral 2/3 of tongue/GVE to glands and mandibular salivary gland, vestibulocochlear from myelencephalon and enters internal acoustic meatus/helps with balance, glossopharyngeal from myelencephalon too/goes through jugular foramen/taste to caudal 1/3 tongue/zygomatic and parotid salivary glands, vagus from myelencephalon for digestive and respiratory systems/sensory to auditory canal, accessory from myelencephalon and motor to head/neck/only to traps, hypoglossal from myelencephalon and runs with lingual artery and motor to muscles of tongue
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Explain development
Neural tube becomes CNS, lumen is brain and spinal cord while wall is parenchyma; cranial aspect forms 5 divisions
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What are leptomeninges?
Arachnoid with trabeculae, pia mater which is attached to CNS surface; subarachnoid space with CSF and has cisterna magna and lumbar cistern
157
Describe the flow of CSF
Choroid plexus is mass of pia/blood vessels and produces CSF->lateral ventricle->interventricular foramen->3rd ventricle->mesencephalic aqueduct->4th ventricle->lateral apertures->subarachnoid space->arachnoid villi->dural venous sinus
158
Describe the areas of the brain
Telencephalon-four lobes of brain with hippocampus (limbic system) and olfactory bulb, diencephalon has the thalami with pineal gland and lumen of the 3rd ventricle and lateral geniculate body which is for visual relay; mesencephalon has corpora quadrigemina, tectum, cerebral peduncle, CN 3 and 4; metencephalon has cerebellum and pons and trigeminal nerve; myelencephalon has most CN and medulla with trapezoid body and pyramids
159
What is the Vivvp?
Within epidural space on floor of vertebral canal, anastomoses with branches of azygos/CDVC/ vertebral veins
160
Describe the spinal cord
Dorsal grey horn-receives afferents, lateral grey horn-GVE, ventral horn-GSE; dorsal funiculus is conscious proprioception, lateral to flexors, ventral to extensors
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What are the types of tracts?
UMN-can be excitatory or inhibitory; LMN-can be to flexors or extensors
