final review Flashcards
Testing of
the last wash in
the eluate
procedure ensures
that:
a) The check cells will work
b) The antibody identified in
the eluate is the antibody
attached to the red cells
c) The antibody identified in
the eluate should be in the
patient plasma
d) The pH of the eluate
is appropriate for panel cell
testing
b) The antibody identified in
the eluate is the antibody
attached to the red cells
Other than
anti-IgG, what is
in Polyspecific AHG
reagent?
a) IgM
b) C9
c) C3d
d) C4
c) C3d
Which
statement is true
for allo -
adsorption proce
dure?
a) It is utilized when patients
have been recently transfused
b) It removes antibody from
patient cells
c) QC for this procedure
involves testing of the last wash
d) Patient cells are used to
remove autoantibody from their
own plasma
a) It is utilized when patients
have been recently transfused
Which
DAT results
indicate that an
elution should
be performed?
a) AHG + IgG+ C3d-
b) AHG – IgG – C3d
c) AHG + IgG- C3d+
d) AHG + IgG- C3d
a) AHG + IgG+ C3d- (only in evidence of IgG)
Which test
result
differentiates
between high
incident antibody
and autoantibody
workup?
a) Elution
b) Auto Control
c) Adsorption
d) DAT
b) Auto Control
Shortness of
breath indicates
hemolytic anemia,
what test
differentiates
between cold acting
antibodies and warm
acting antibodies
being the cause?
a) Auto control
b) Cold Screen
c) Elution
d) Donath Landsteiner
b) Cold Screen
Which
type of anemia is
not often
associated with
compliment
activation?
a) PCH
b) CAD
c) Drug Adsorption
d) WAIHA
c) Drug Adsorption
Which
antibody is most
likely acting in
this cold screen?
IS 37 AHG CC SC1 3+ 2+ 0 2+ SC2 3+ 2+ 0 2+ SC3 3+ 2+ 0 2+ Cord 3+ 2+ 0 2+
a) Anti-I
b) Anti-IH
c) Anti-i
d) Anti-M
b) Anti-IH
What test
helps to
differentiate
pathologic vs
benign CAD?
a) Antibody ID
b) DAT
c) Antibody Titer
d) Donath Landsteiner
c) Antibody Titer
Which of
the following is
not a control for
the Donath
Landsteiner test?
a) Patient cells + normal plasma
b) Samples kept at 37C until testing
commences
c) Normal plasma + patient plasma
d) Normal plasma
a) Patient cells + normal plasma
This
mechanism of drug
related hemolysis is
less severe with
penicillin and most
severe with
Cefotetan. Which
mechanism is it?
a) Drug Adsorption
b) Immune Complex
c) Membrane Modification
d) Drug-Independent Auto
Antibody
a) Drug Adsorption
Which
transfusion
recommendation
is appropriately
matched to its
autoantibody
diagnosis?
a) Darzalex – don’t transfuse
b) WAIHA – transfuse with blood
warmer
c) CAD – wash the cells
d) Cefotetan – transfuse as normal
d) Cefotetan – transfuse as normal
a) Darzalex – Can xfuse
b) WAIHA – Can’t xfuse
c) CAD – Warm the blood
d) Cefotetan – transfuse as normal (tea blood. stop the drug)
A
crossmatch
sample collected
at 1405
on Monday would
expire on which
day at midnight?
a) Tuesday
b) Wednesday
c) Thursday
d) Friday
c) Thursday
When
should a
transfusionist be
checking vitals?
a) Before the unit is started
b) 15 minutes after unit is started
c) 15 minutes after unit is
completed
d) Both a and b
d) Both a and b
What blood
type donor units should
anti-A,B be used on?
- A neg
- B pos
- AB pos
- O neg
- O neg
What
does NOT have
to be verified
when blood is
read back for
issue?
a) Patient ID
b) Unit ID
c) Visual Inspection
d) Compatibility
e) All have to be verified
e) All have to be verified
What blood
type should a
patient with the
following
serological results
receive?
antiA AntiB AntiD A1 cell Bcell
4+ 0 0 1+ 4+
a) A or O
b) O only
c) A or AB
d) A only
b) O only
The
purpose of
immediate spin
crossmatch is to:
a) Ensure survival of transfused
RBCs
b) Determine ABO compatibility
between donor and recipien
c) Detect cold reacting antibodies
d) Meet computer crossmatch
requirements
b) Determine ABO compatibility
between donor and recipien
Electronic
crossmatch may be
performed in place
of serological
crossmatch under
the following
conditions.
a) Previous Apos with anti-c; current
A post with anti-c
b) Previous Opos anti-E; current Opos
neg screen
c) Previous Opos neg screen; current
Opos neg screen
d) Previous None; current Oneg neg
screen
c) Previous Opos neg screen; current
Opos neg screen
Which
crossmatch is
performed on a
patient with a
negative antibody
screen but no
previous history?
a) Electronic
b) Extended
c) Immediate Spin
d) Elution
c) Immediate Spin
A patient with a cold
autoagglutinin will give
additional reactions in which of
the following tests:
a) ABO forward type
b) IS crossmatch
c) AHG screen
d) DAT IgG
b) IS crossmatch
Given the following Blood
typing results, which type of
RBCs can you transfuse?
Anti A AntiB AntiD A1 B
4+ 1+ 0 0 4+
a) A neg only
b) A and O
c) O neg only
d) A neg and AB neg
c) O neg only
Given the results
below, which
subgroup do you think
the patient is?
Anti-A Anti-B Anti-A,B A1 Cell B Cell
0 0 1+ 1+ 4+
a) A2
b) B3
c) Bx
d) Am
d) Am
A2 would show in Anti A section
the 4+ is a strong B rxn, so not a subgroup to worry about
What is this patient’s
blood type?
Anti-A Anti-B Control A1 Cell B Cell
0 0 0 4+ 4+
a) AB
b) A
c) B
d) O
d) O
If a mother is blood
type O, and child 1 is
A and child 2 is B what
is the father’s
genotype?
AO
* AB
* BB
* OO
- AB
A person with the
following genes has what
in their saliva?
HH, LeLe, SeSe, OO
- Lea only
- Leb and H
- Lea and B
- A and B
- Leb and H
The Lewis Gene codes for
a transferase that
transfers a sugar onto
precursor substance,
what is that sugar?
- Fucose
- N-acetylgalactosamine
- N-acetylglucosamine
- D-Galactose
- Fucose
D antibodies are
known to cause
which of the
following?
- Hemolytic transfusion Reactions
- Hemolytic disease of the Newborn
- Both
- Neither
- Both
How do you interpret an
Rh type that is not
reactive with anti-D but is
positive in elution
studies?
- Rh negative
- LW negative
- Del
- Partial D
- Del
Which of the following
genotypes are
heterozygous for E?
- R2r”
- Ror
- rr
- R2r
- R2r
Which Rh haplotype is
most frequent in the
Asian population?
- R0
- R1
- R2
- r
- R1
Which blood system
does NOT have
strongly
expressed antigens
expressed at birth?
- MNS
- Duffy
- Kell
- Lutheran
- Lutheran
Nulls of MNS
protect against
which disease?
- Plasmodium falciparum
- Plasmodium vivax
- Taenia
- Hemophilus Influenza
- Plasmodium falciparum
A request for 6 D negative
units was received for
patient Carmen
SanDiego. One of the six
was 2+ incompatible on
AHG crossmatch, why?
- Low incidence antibody
- High incidence antibody
- Patient is Weak D
- Patient has Positive autocontro
- Low incidence antibody
Which of the
following is a high
incidence/low
incidence pair?
- Fya/Fyb
- Jka/Jkb
- E/C
- Lua/Lub
- Lua/Lub
Which of the
following is
destroyed by
Enzymes?
- Kpa
- S
- B
- Jka
- S
Dat Rxn and Diagnosis
IgG +
Anti- C3D +
WAIHA or HTR
Dat Rxn and Diagnosis
IgG +
Anti- C3D -
WAIHA/HTR/HDN
Dat Rxn and Diagnosis
IgG -
Anti- C3D +
CAS/PCH
Drug mechanism and cause
Drug Adsorption
Cefotetan, Streptomycin, Penicillin
Drug mechanism and cause
Immune Complex
Quinidine, Phenacetin
Drug mechanism and cause
Membrane Modification
Cephalosporin
Drug mechanism and cause
Drung-independant Autoantibody
Aldomet
