FINAL review Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
1
Q

5 kingdoms

A

prokaryotae- prokaryotic organisms (bacteria)

  • protista- eukaryotic, unicellular (amoeba)
  • fungi- eukaryotic- yeast and mold
  • plants- all plants- conifers, flowering plants
  • animals- all animals, insects, worms, vertebrates
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

domain

A
  • based on RNA
  • bacteria- peptidoglycan
  • archaea- prokaryotic
  • eukaryotes- protista, fungi, plant, animal
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

virus

A
  • acellular
  • no cytoplasm, no organelles, no plasma membrane
  • either have RNA or DNA
  • surrounded by a protein coat (capsid)
  • some viruses have an envelope around capsid- proteins, carbohydrates, lipids
  • envelope has spikes made up of protein or glycoprotein
  • obligate intracellular parasites -> need host to reproduce
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

bacteriophage

A
  • complex virus
  • has a capsid
  • DNA is within the capsid
  • capsid and tail fibers are attached to the sheath
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

retrovirus

A
  • RNA- genetic material
  • has the enzyme reverse transcriptase
  • reverse transcriptase- uses RNA as a template to make a complementary strand of DNA
  • capsid and envelope
  • ex. human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

benefits of microbes

A
  • protect us from disease by suppressing growth of pathogens (normal flora)
  • pathogens do not get enough nutrients bc nutrients are being used up by the normal flora
  • E. coli in large intestine makes vitamin K used for blood clotting (part of normal flora)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

history of microbiology

A
  • 1665- Robert hooke- plant materials (leaves and stems) little boxes called cells (not microbes)
  • 1673-1723- anton van leeuwenhoek observe microbes under the microscope
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Disproving spontaneous generation theory

A
  • louis pasteur- father of microbiology
  • 1861
  • took a flask with a long neck and added broth -> bent the neck of the flask into an S shaped curve leaving the flask open (fresh air) -> heat broth -> microbes did not show up
  • microbes got stuck in the curve of the neck like a filter
  • successfully disproves the spontaneous generation theory
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

louis pasteur

A
  • father of microbiology due to proving the spontaneous generation theory wrong
  • microbes are ubiquitous
  • foundation for the aseptic procedure used in the lab to prevent contamination
  • fermentation -> yeast converted sugars to alcohol and CO2 in absence of O2
  • pasteurization -> beverages such as milk are heated enough to kill microbes without destroying the flavor (doesnt kill ALL microbes) -> prevents diseases from spreading from food
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Robert Koch

A
  • proved germ theory of disease
  • drew blood from animals that died of disease
  • isolated rod shaped bacterium (isolate #1)
  • grew that bacteria in lab and obtained pure culture of bacterium
  • injected bacterium into healthy animals
  • healthy animals soon became sick and died
  • isolated rod shaped bacteria in these animals (isolate #2)
  • isolate #2 came from experimental animals while #1 came from nature
  • isolates were identical proving that is was the cause of the disease
  • bacterium was identified to be bacillus anthracis (anthrax)
  • steps are known as Kochs postulates - identifies the determinant of a disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

fungi

A

yeasts and molds

  • eukaryotic
  • unicellular/multicellular (most multi)
  • ALL are heterotrophs
  • cells walls are made of chitin
  • sexually reproduce
  • asexual spores
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

protozoa

A
  • eukaryotic
  • unicellular
  • heterotrophs
  • 2 stages:
  • trophozoites- active, inside host
  • cyst- dormant, outside host
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

algae

A
  • eukaryotic
  • multicellular
  • ALL autotrophs- photosynthesize
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

robert whittaker

A

classifies organisms

  • 5 kingdom system
  • based on:
  • cell type- prokaryotic/eukaryotic
  • cellular organization- unicellular/multicellular
  • nutritional requirements- photosynthetic/nonphotosynthetic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

dark field microscope

A
  • cells are not stained
  • if you do not want the cells to be damaged use this
  • field is dark but object is bright
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

phase contrast microscope

A
  • no staining

- used to see internal structures: organelles, endospores (bright oval structure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

fluorescent microscope

A
  • UV is light is used to illuminate the object
  • cells are stained with fluorescent dyes
  • Auramine O is used to stain Mycobacterium tuberculosis
  • cells show up as glowing yellow objects against dark background
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

electron microscope

A
  • transmission electron microscope (TEM)- internal
  • scanning electron microscope (SEM)- surface
  • beam of electron is used in place of light
  • cells are stained
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

basic dyes

A
  • bacteria are negatively charged
  • basic dyes are positive -> stain bacteria
  • ionic bond is formed between cell and stain
  • dyes are salts
  • color
  • methylene blue chloride
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

acidic dye

A
  • negative charge
  • stain background
  • sodium eosinate
  • nigrosin
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

gram staining

A
  1. first add crystal violet as a primary stain to bacterial specimen -> this stains both + and - cells purple or blue
  2. iodine, a mordant (strengthens the ionic bond btwn the bacterial cell and crystal violet), makes dye less soluble so it adheres to cell walls -> both + or - remain purple or blue
  3. acetone-alcohol (decolorizer) washed stain away from gram neg -> gram - cells become colorless while gram + remain purple or blue (differentiation step)
  4. Safranin (basic counterstain) allows dye adherance to gram-negative cells -> gram - cells turn pink while gram + remain purple or blue
    - gram neg -> pink
    - gram pos -> purple
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

acid fast staining

A
  • differential staining
  • two genera are acid fast:
  • myobacterium and nocardia
  • they have waxy substance known as mycolic acid (complex lipid) in their cell walls
  • acid fast staining is used to identify these two bacterium (used for tuberculosis)
  • carbolfuchsin- primary stain
  • acid-alcohol- decolorizer
  • methylene blue- counterstain
  • acid-fast= red
  • nonacid-fast=blue
  • both start out red due to primary stain -> decolorizer -> nonacid-fast loses color -> counterstain -> nonacid-fast turns blue -> acid-fast stays red
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

gram neg vs pos

A
  • gram positive is thick (peptidoglycan)

- gram neg is thinner (only one or two layers of peptidoglycan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

capsule staining

A
  • capsule is a gelatinous substance found around the cell wall
  • cannot be stained
  • not all bacteria has capsule
  • stain the background using nigrosin
  • stain the cell body with crystal violet
  • background is black
  • capsule shows up as a clear ring around the stained cell
  • capsule is not being stained
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

endospores

A
  • 2 genera of bacteria that make endospores are bacillus and clostridium
  • endospores are resistant to hostile environmental conditions (heat, UV light, disinfectant, desiccation)
  • dormant stage of the cell allows to avoid harsh environment and death
  • endospores are formed within the vegetative cell (active cell)
  • once formation is complete, endospores are released into environment
  • vegetative cells make endospores when the environment lacks nutrients
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

endospore staining

A
  • malachite green- primary stain
  • water- decolorizer
  • safranin- counterstain
  • endospores=green
  • vegetative cells=pink
  • both vegetative and endospores pick up primary stain -> both turn green -> water decolorizes vegetative cells -> vegetative cells pick up counterstain (safranin) and turn pink -> endospores remain green
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

nucleosomes

A
  • segments of DNA are wrapped around histone proteins
  • these are packages
  • move through the nuclear pores
  • DNA + histone = nucleosome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

ribosomes

A
  • free in the cytoplasm
  • show up as dots in a micrograph
  • attached to rough ER
  • made up of 2 subunits
  • each subunit is made up of proteins and ribosomal RNA
  • eukaryotic cells has 80s ribosome
  • larger and denser than prokaryotic ribosomes (which is 70s)
  • prokaryotes and eukaryotes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

helminths

A
  • worms
  • multicellular
  • eukaryotic
  • animal kingdom
  • do not have a well developed nervous system or digestive system
  • they do have a complex reproductive system
  • platyhelminthes (flatworms) and nematodes (round worms)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

platyhelminthes

A
  • trematodes (flukes)
  • cestodes (tapeworms)- segmented, scolex
  • hermaphroditic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

taenia solium

A
  • tapeworm
  • eggs and larvae are infectious
  • neurocysticercosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

nematodes

A
  • roundworms

- dioecious- male and female

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

giardia lamblia

A
  • flagella
  • 2 nuclei
  • contaminated food and water
  • weight loss
  • wilderness water
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

balantidium coli

A
  • cilia
  • paramecium
  • 2 nuclei
  • macronucleus- protein synthesis
  • micronucleus- transmit genetic information
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

hemoflagellates

A
  • long, slender
  • flagellum
  • 1 nucleus
  • no cyst phase -> only trohphozite
  • ex. trypanoasoma gambiense (africian sleeping sickness)
  • ex. trypanosoma cruzi (chagas disease)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

yeast

A
  • unicellular
  • oval or circular in shape
  • many reproduce by budding
  • sometimes the buds fail to separate from the parent -> pseudohyphae are formed
  • Candida albicans make pseudohyphae (part of the normal flora of intestinal tract of humans)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

mold

A
  • multicellular
  • filamentous
  • filaments are called hyphae
  • fragments of hypha can grow into a fungus
38
Q

osmotic lysis

A

-antibiotics that target cell walls cause osmotic lysis -> kills

39
Q

mycology

A

-study of yeast, molds, mushrooms

40
Q

cutaneous mycosis

A
  • affects the hair, nail, skin
  • ringworm, tineas
  • caused by the fungi- dermatophytes
  • produce keratinase- breaks down keratin
  • tinea pedia- atheletes foot:
  • caused by trichophyton rubrum- itching, scaling skin
  • spread by direct contact, shower room floors
41
Q

simple diffusion

A
  • O2

- water

42
Q

pili

A

-filamentous

43
Q

candida albicans

A
  • yeast
  • make pseudohyphae (part of the normal flora of intestinal tract of humans)
  • opportunistic mycosis
  • thrush
  • normal flora
44
Q

definitive/intermediate host

A
  • definitive host- adult -> sexual reproduction

- intermediate host- immature worm (larvae) -> asexual reproduction

45
Q

prokaryotes

A

-have no cilia

46
Q

lactose

A
  • disaccharide
  • milk sugar
  • made up of glucose and galactose
47
Q

maltose

A
  • disaccharide
  • made up of two glucoses
  • breakdown product of starch
48
Q

cellular respiration

A
  • glucose is catabolized
  • oxidation reduction rxn
  • loss of electron or hydrogen atom- oxidation
  • gain of electron of hydrogen atom- reduction
  • leo says ger
  • these rxns are coupled
  • organic molecules are oxidized
  • NAD+- coenzyme/electron carrier picks up the H+ (reduced) -> NADH
  • doesnt need O2
49
Q

anaerobic respiration

A
  • similar to aerobic respiration (all the same stages)
  • final e- acceptor is an inorganic substance other than O2
  • pseudomonas aeruginosa uses nitrate ion as the final e- acceptor
  • doesnt produce as much ATP
  • more than 2 and less than 38
  • depends on species
50
Q

lactic acid fermentation

A
  • only glycolysis takes place
  • glucose is broken down to 2 pyruvic acid
  • 2 NADH
  • 2 ATP
  • once pyruvic acid is made it is converted to lactic acid
  • NADH is oxidized to NAD+
  • pyruvic acid gets reduced to lactic acid
  • regenerates NAD+
  • NAD+ participates in glycolysis again to get 2 more ATP
  • pyruvic acid is the organic molecule final e- acceptor
  • lactobacillus does this (aerotolerant anaerobe- even in presence of O2 it doesnt use it)
51
Q

alcohol fermentation

A
  • glylocysis
  • 2 ATP
  • 2 pyruvic acid
  • 2 NADH
  • pyruvic acid is converted to acetaldehyde
  • CO2 comes out
  • NADH is oxidized to NAD+
  • acetaldehyde is reduced to ethanol
  • final e- acceptor is acetaldehyde
  • ex. saccharomyces- yeast (Facultative anaerobe- grows in presence or absence of O2 but grows better with O2) -> that means we must make sure there is no O2 to make alcohol
  • if there is O2 it will carryout aerobic respiration and make water
52
Q

light dependent photosynthesis

A
  • chlorophyll
  • cell light hits cholophyll molecules
  • e- absorb light -> energized
  • e- jump out of chlorophyll molecule
  • e- go through electron transport chain in chloroplast
  • similar to aerobic respiration ETC
  • chemiosmosis -> makes ATP by photophosphorylation
  • energized e- ends up with NADP+ -> NADPH
  • e- that come out of chlorophyll molecule are replaced by e- from water -> breaks down water into O2 and H -> releases O2
  • no CO2 used
  • ATP is made
53
Q

gene

A

segment of DNA that codes for a functional product

  • functional product- protein
  • most genes code for proteins
  • .1% of genes have instructions to make tRNA and rRNA
  • genes are passed on from one cell to another- one generation to another
  • DNA has to be replicated
54
Q

promoter

A

where gene begins

  • control regions
  • unique nitrogen base sequence
  • made up of DNA
55
Q

RNA polymerase

A
  • transcription- DNA is copied onto mRNA
  • makes mRNA
  • enzyme
  • major role in transcription
  • attaches itself to the gene near the promoter
  • segment of gene separates
  • one strand is template strand (instructions)
  • attaches RNA nucleotides together -> chain
  • free RNA nucleotides are floating around where ever transcription is taking place
  • once nitrogen base are exposed on template strand complementary base pairing takes place between nitrogen base on the free RNA nucleotide and the nitrogen bases on the template strand
  • uracil on the free RNA pairs with the adenine on the template strand
  • RNA polymerase attaches the pairs
  • moves segment by segment
  • polymerase is released from the gene at the terminator
  • mRNA has a specific nitrogen base sequence
56
Q

codon

A
  • 3 nitrogen base sequences next to each other on the mRNA
  • codes for an amino acid
  • different codons can code for the same amino acid -> degeneracy of the genetic code
  • associated with mRNA
  • ex. UAG
57
Q

degeneracy of the genetic code

A
  • helps cell survive under certain conditions
  • different codons can code for the same amino acid
  • silent mutation
58
Q

tRNA

A
  • one end has anticodon
  • other end picks up amino acid from the cytosol
  • transfers amino acids from the cytosol to the ribosome
  • specific group of tRNA for each amino acid
  • specificity is based on the anticodon it has
  • reads the message
  • ex. tRNA is specific for alanine -> cant pick up any other amino acid -> specific anticodon for alanine
59
Q

ribosome

A
  • holds mRNA so tRNA can read the message and bring the appropriate amino acid to the ribosome
  • has the enzyme that attaches amino acids together (peptide bonds)
60
Q

translation

A
  • attachment of ribosome (large and small subunit) to the mRNA near the start codon
  • tRNA recognizes the codon
  • tRNA brings MET to the ribosome
  • complementary base pairing occurs on the codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA
  • tRNA molecules are held in place and the amino acids are next to each other
  • enzyme attaches the amino acids together -> dipeptide
  • dipeptide gets transferred on to tRNA and it moves on to next segment
  • forms a polypeptide
  • ribosome reaches stop codon -> end of translation
  • polypeptide is released
  • tRNA subunits come apart
  • mRNA and tRNA is released from ribosome
  • mRNA is translated again to make another copy of the polypeptide chain
61
Q

genetic transfer

A
  • 2 DNA in the same cell
  • piece of DNA is transferred from a donor to a recipient
  • bacteria has one DNA molecule
  • if genetic transfer takes place the bacteria can have 2 DNA molecules
  • 3 methods of transfer:
  • transformation
  • conjugation
  • transduction
62
Q

genetic transfer: transformation

A
  • DNA from a donor cell is transferred to recipient
  • naked DNA transfer
  • donor cell is dead
  • when bacterial cell dies the DNA is released into the environment
  • DNA gets fragmented into pieces
  • recipient cell comes in contact
  • DNA penetrates cell wall of recipient -> 2 DNA molecules
  • own chromosome and donor DNA present
  • when the own chromosome and donor DNA come in contact -> crossing over
  • donor DNA aligns with complementary bases
  • *can make the recipient cell more pathogenic -> picks up genes that can code for capsules
  • becomes a capsulated bacteria- more pathogenic bc capsule protects bacteria from phagocytosis
63
Q

genetic transfer: conjugation

A
  • subspecies of the same cell
  • F+- has the pilus (filamentous structure found on the surface) and small circular DNA (F plasmid/factor)
  • F+ cell has plasmid and chromosome (they are separate)
  • F– does not have pilus
  • F+ uses it pilus and attached to F- and conjugates
  • F plasmid- has genes for the pilus
  • plasmid gets replicated and copy gets transferred to the F- cell through the pilus
  • F- becomes F+ -> makes two F+ cells
  • F+ has 2 DNA molecules (chromosome and plasmid)
  • f plasmid gets inserted into chromosome -> becomes an Hfr cell (high frequency of recombination cell)
  • Hfr cell- very good at conjugation
  • Hfr cell- makes the pilus
  • Hfr and F- cell conjugation:
  • during conjugation the DNA gets replicated and starts in the middle of the f plasmid
  • piece of f plasmid and piece of chromosome get replicated and transferred into the F- cell
  • F- cell never gets the entire chromosome or plasmid bc it is much larger than the cell and they dont stay conjugated for long enough
  • F- gets only a piece of donor DNA and plasmid -> inserts into chromosome and becomes recombinant -> doesnt become F+ cell and does not make pilus
  • can make an F- cell resistant after it picks up DNA from another Hfr cell -> shares resistance
64
Q

genetic transfer: transduction

A
  • DNA of donor cell is transferred with recipient cell
  • bacteriophage is a virus (acellular) that infects bacteria
  • bacteriophage picks up donor DNA and releases it into recipient cell
  • bacteriophage gets into host cell to reproduce itself
  • bacteriophage attached to donor cell
  • phage DNA gets released into host
  • phage DNA gets replicated
  • donor chromosome gets fragmented
  • assembly of phage takes place ->
  • by mistake sometimes fragments of bacterial DNA gets enclosed into the protein code of the phage
  • transducing phages- have bacterial DNA in them instead of phage DNA
  • donor cell breaks down and dies
  • phages are released including transducing phages
  • transducing phage comes in contact with bacteria and releases donor DNA into bacteria (receiving cell)
  • donor DNA gets inserted into the chromosome of the recipient cell -> recombinant
  • sometimes transducing phages pick up toxic genes and spreads it
65
Q

operon

A
  • many genes are controlled by the same control region (promoter)
  • has many genes
  • controlled by the same control region (promoter)
  • regulation
  • genes of the same operon share a promoter
66
Q

lactose operon

A
  • repressor protein hop onto the operator protein and block RNA polymerase
  • when RNA polymerase attached to promoter it cannot get to structural genes bc of the repressor blockage
  • only when the RNA polymerase is able to pass over the structural genes will the mRNA of the structural genes will be made
  • no mRNA -> no translation -> no proteins
  • inactivates lactose operon
  • if lactose is in environment it will bind to repressor protein -> inactive repressor protein
  • pulls the repressor protein from the lactose operator -> no more blockage
  • RNA polymerase is able to make mRNA for the structural genes
  • lactose activates the lactose operator by inactivating the suppressor
67
Q

repressor protein

A
  • on the operator
  • if something is bound it is pulled form the operator -> inactive
  • if nothing is bound it block RNA polymerase from making mRNA of the structural genes
68
Q

inducible gene

A
  • beta galactosidase gene
  • helps the cell to save its energy and chemical resources such as amino acids
  • cell is not making something that it does not need
  • enzyme is made in presence of substrate
69
Q

dissimilation plasmids

A
  • have genes that code for enzymes that break down petroleum
  • found in pseudomonas
  • used in bioremediation- use of microbes to clean up chemical pollutants
  • clean oil
70
Q

bacteriocin plasmids

A
  • code for toxins
  • toxic to certain species of bacteria
  • ex. lactococcus lactis has a bacteriocin plasmid
  • codes for toxin -> nisin
  • nisin prevents the germination of clostridium endospore
  • helps lactococcus lactis -> prevents growth of other bacteria so it has more nutrients for itself
  • preserve cheese
  • does not cause food poisoning
71
Q

transposons

A
  • small segment of DNA
  • transposed (move) one region of DNA to another
  • jumping genes
  • can cause problems by messing up sequences
  • doesnt move often tho
  • found in all organisms
  • simple transposons (insertion sequences)- has a gene that codes for an enzyme -> transposase
  • transposase- helps simple transposon to move from one part of the DNA to another -> cutting and sealing
  • translated from insertion
  • unique nitrogen base sequence on each side
72
Q

complex transposons

A
  • unique nitrogen base sequence on each side
  • made up of 2 insertion sequences
  • in between there is a gene that codes for antibiotic resistance
  • found in bacteria
  • often found in r-plasmid
  • can move from the plasmid to the chromosome
  • can be transferred through conjugation
73
Q

genetic engineering mechanisms

A
  • use plasmid (small circular DNA found in some bacterial cells) as a vector and insert a gene of interest (human insulin) into the plasmid
  • plasmid becomes a recombinant plasmid
  • recombinant plasmid is introduced into a bacterial cell (E. coli) -> becomes the recombinant cell/transformed bacteria
  • E. coli transcribes and translates the gene and makes the human insulin
  • once recombinant cell is made it can be grown in a nutrient broth like any other e. coli cell -> descendants of the recombinant will also be recombinant
  • easy to make a lot human insulin
74
Q

tools used in genetic engineering: restriction enzymes

A
  • restriction enzymes come from bacteria
  • used to breakdown phage DNA in the bacteria
  • extract the restriction enzyme from bacteria and use it for genetic engineering
  • EcoR1, BamHI -> recognize specific sequences
  • restriction enzymes make staggered cuts in the DNA
  • they fragment DNA
  • ends of the fragment are single stranded
  • destroy phage DNA
75
Q

introducing the recombinant plasmid into the cell

A
  • take a bunch of recombinants and put them into a tube with host cell (e. coli)
  • some of the e. coli will come in contact with the recombinant plasmid and pick it up and some will not
  • incubation
  • there will be two populations of e.coli (one with recombinant and one without)
  • they select the recombinant cell by plating the mixture on the medium with the ampicillin antibiotic -> incubate
  • the colonies that show up on the plate are the ones with the recombinant plasmids bc they have the selection markers (antibiotic resistant genes) in their plasmid
76
Q

cDNA

A

`-complementary DNA

  • cDNA does not exist in nature
  • cDNA- synthetic gene that only has exons
  • mRNA is used to make cDNA (by scientists- not in nature)
  • DNA nucleotides and reverse transcriptase enzymes are added to the tube with mRNA
  • reverse transcriptase uses mRNA as a template to make a complementary strand of DNA
  • DNA polymerase is then added to the tube and uses the DNA strand as a sample to make the second strand -> makes cDNA
  • cDNA only has exons
  • if we want to introduce eukaryotic gene into a prokaryotic cell we use cDNA
  • if we place natural eukaryotic gene into bacterial cell it wont be able to remove the introns
  • functional protein will not be produced by the prokaryotic cell
  • no translation
77
Q

eukaryotic: introns and exons

A
  • introns- noncoding regions
  • exons- coding regions
  • prokaryotic genes only gave exons
  • when the eukaryotic gene is transcribed the RNA also has exons and introns
  • eukaryotic cells have certain enzymes that remove introns and stitch the exons to make the mRNA
78
Q

southern blotting

A
  • used in genetic screening
  • take blood and DNA
  • fragment DNA using restriction enzyme (made from bacteria)
  • DNA fragments are separated by gel electrophoresis by size
  • the DNA bands show up
  • smaller pieces move faster in the gel (more further down the smaller)
  • DNA bands are transferred onto nitrocellulose filter/membrane
  • nitrocellulose filter holds onto molecules like DNA
  • place the nitrocellulose filter and attached DNA into a zip lock bag
  • a solution containing many copies of the radioactively labeled probe (complementary to gene of interest) is added
  • incubate
  • probe will hybridize/comes together with gene of interest through complementary base pairing
  • remove and rinse nitrocellulose filter
  • expose to x-ray film
  • where ever there there is radioactive activity it will blacken -> tells us where the probe and therefore the gene of interest is
  • a black band shows up for carrier
  • a black band show up larger and wider for someone with the disease (bc twice as many copies of the gene of interest)
79
Q

probe

A

-single strand of DNA that is complementary to the DNA of interest

80
Q

PCR

A

-polymerase chain reaction

81
Q

product of transcription

A
  • not new DNA
  • tRNA
  • make mRNA
82
Q

chemoautotroph

A

-uses glucose for carbon and energy

83
Q

lipase

A
  • decrease pH

- cleave triglycerides

84
Q

cyanobacteria

A

-photoautotroph

85
Q

facultative halophils

A

-grow with or without salt

86
Q

clostridium tetani

A
  • causes tetanus
  • infects deep puncture wounds
  • endospores becomes vegetative cells in the puncture wounds (found in soil)
  • vegetative cells produces neurotoxin *
  • vegetative cells stay in the wound but the neurotoxin goes in the blood and nervous system
  • causes spastic paralysis -> stiffness of the muscles
  • lockjaw
  • DTP vaccine- made up of tetanus toxoid (inactive)
  • antitoxin- made up of antibodies specific for tetanus toxin
  • antibodies are known as tetanus immune globulins (TIG)
87
Q

lysogenized strain

A
  • phage DNA is inserted in the chromosome of the bacteria -> phage DNA has gene to make toxin
  • scarlet fever
  • corynebacterium diphtheriae
  • streptococcus pyogenes- scarlet fever -> strawberry tongue
88
Q

mycoplasm

A

-no cell wall

89
Q

viroid

A

-infectious DNA without capsid

90
Q

pseudomonas aeruginosa

A
  • gram negative
  • rod shaped
  • opportunist -> causes problems when someones immune system is weak
  • *makes a water soluble pigment (blue-green)
  • causes skin infection if the skin is damaged (burn victims are vulnerable)
  • burn and wound infections
  • gentamicin, polymyxin
91
Q

spirochetes

A

-axial filaments