FINAL QUIZZES

Question 1

T or F.
Obtain cultures quickly to guide therapy, simultaneously taking into
consideration the importance of prompt antibiotic administration even
when there are no results yet from the culture and sensitivity (CS) report.

Answer 1

true

Question 2

T or F.
When evaluating potential contamination, the clinician should assess the
patient’s clinical presentation and determine whether he or she shows
signs and symptoms of bacteremia.

Answer 2

true

Question 3

T or F.
It is vital to draw at least two samples from separate sites of the body for
blood culture.

Answer 3

true

Question 4

Gram-positive bacteria, especially Staphylococcus epidermidis and
Corynebacterium species are more likely to be:
a. neither
b. both
c. Contaminants
d. Bacteremia

Answer 4

d. contaminants

Question 5

T or F.

Gram-positive bacteria that are associated with true infection include

Answer 5

true

Question 6

T or F.
Sputum cultures can be difficult to interpret because the lower respiratory
tract is colonized with bacteria, in contrast to the upper respira- tory tract,
which is typically sterile.

Answer 6

False

Question 7

Common bacteria in uncomplicated UTIs include, except:

a. Providencia
b. Proteus
c. E. coli
d. Klebsiella

Answer 7

a. Providencia

Question 8

T or F.
Obtaining skin cultures in infections without drainage often leads to
identification of single specific organisms that is the cause of infection.

Answer 8

false

Question 9

T or F.
Elevated white blood cell (WBC) counts in the synovial fluid, especially
when the count exceeds 5,000 cells/mm3

Answer 9

false

Question 10

T or F.
A low CSF glucose count (< 40 mg/dl) or ratio between the CSF glucose
and serum glucose (≤ 40%) can be seen

Answer 10

true

Question 11

T or F.
Stool cultures may be considered in patients who present with persistent
diarrhea or bloody diarrhea.

Answer 11

true

Question 12

Gram positive bacilli

a. Serratia
b. Listeria
c. Escherichia
d. Proteus

Answer 12

b. Listeria

Question 13

Gram Negative Lactose Fermenter

a. Moraxella
b. Clostridium
c. Pseudomonas
d. Enterobacter

Answer 13

d. Enterobacter

Question 14

Gram Negative Non-Lactose Fermenter

a. Enterobacter
b. Lactobacillus
c. Klebsiella
d. Salmonella

Answer 14

d. Salmonella

Question 15

T or F.
Gram-positive bacteria that are associated with true infection include Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pneumoniae.

Answer 15

true

Question 16

Gram Negative bacilli

a. Shigella
b. Nocardia
c. Bordatella
d. Corynebacterium

Answer 16

a. Shigella

Question 17

Which of the following statements is considered incorrect regarding the
efficacy of convalescent plasma in respect to titer?

a. 2 high-titer CCP units is the minimum requirement for COVID-19 patients
b. Recovered COVID-19 patients who received a vaccine have a high CCP titers
c. Low titer and unknown CCP units may be accepted due to shortage of supply
d. NOTA

Answer 17

a. 2 high-titer CCP units is the minimum requirement for COVID-19 patients

Only one (1) high-titer CCP unit is the minimum requirement for
COVID-19 patients since this is considered sufficient enough.

Question 18

Jane Doe received the Pfizer vaccine three days ago and surprisingly did
not experience any side effects. She is scheduled for a blood donation in
an American Red Cross facility today. Will she be able to donate blood?

a. Yes, because American Red Cross has no deferral period for Pfizer
vaccine.
b. Yes, because donors are accepted any time as long as asymptomatic.
c. No, because vector-based vaccines have a deferral period for 2 weeks according to American Red Cross
d. No, because vector-based vaccines have a deferral period for 4 weeks according to American Red Cross

Answer 18

a. Yes, because American Red Cross has no deferral period for Pfizer
vaccine.

The deferral period for the vaccines containing inactivated viruses,
subunits of vaccines, or vaccines that do not contain live agents
and are non-replicating such as Pfizer, Moderna, Sinovac, and
Sinopharm are:
For the US FDA, ARC, and DOH NVBSP there is no deferral
time. In addition for the DOH NVBSP, the donors vaccinated
with this type of vaccine can be accepted any time as long as
they are asymptomatic.

Question 19

If a person was vaccinated with Moderna and experienced moderate
symptoms due to its side effects, how long is he/she deferred from
donating according to DOH-NVBSP?

a. 4 weeks after side effects resolve
b. 2 weeks after side effects resolve
c. 14 days after side effects resolve
d. No deferral time

Answer 19

a. 4 weeks after side effects resolve

Question 20

As indicated in the PSMID Guidelines, how long is the deferral period of a
person who received the AstraZeneca vaccine before donation, according
to DOH-NVBSP?

a. 1 month
b. 2 weeks
c. 28 days
d. no deferral time

Answer 20

a. 1 month

Examples of vaccines that are vector-based and contains live,
attenuated viruses are: AstraZeneca and J&J.
For the US FDA and ARC, the deferral time is 14 days or 2 weeks
after receiving the vaccine, but for DOH NVBSP, the deferral time
is 4 weeks or 1 month after vaccination.

Question 21

Choose the corresponding eligibility requirements for a person to be able
to donate convalescent plasma:

a. a vaccinated patient who received any type of COVID-19 vaccine
b. a recovered COVID-19 patient who got vaccinated and had symptoms and a positive test result
c. within 6 months after complete resolution of COVID-19 symptoms
d. a recovered COVID-19 patient who received vaccine after diagnosis
e. a currently infected COVID-19 patient with high titer

Answer 21

b, c, d

Question 22

Which of the following statements is considered incorrect regarding
convalescent plasma donation?
a. a vaccinated person is eligible to donate CCP
b. a recovered COVID-19 patient who got vaccinated is eligible to donate CCP
c. a person who received CCP is deferred for 3 months from donating
d. NOTA

Answer 22

a. a vaccinated person is eligible to donate CCP