Final Practice Exam Flashcards
Skilled nursing facility benefits under Medicare Part A are provided only if the beneficiary has had a hospitalization of at least how many days?
A.) One day
B.) Two days
C.) Three days
D.) Five days
E.) Seven days
C.) Three days
Module: 11
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 439.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 6, Objective 1.4.
Leaders in the data analytics industry developed a Healthcare Analytics Adoption Model that has a number of levels of analytics adoption that an organization passes through as it gains sophistication in using its data to drive improvement. In this model, what is the highest level of sophistication?
A.) Automated internal reporting
B.) Waste and care variability reduction
C.) Population health management and suggestive analytics
D.) Clinical risk intervention and predictive analytics
E.) Personalized medicine and prescriptive analytics
E.) Personalized medicine and prescriptive analytics
Module: 7
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 266.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 16, Objective 3.3.
The maximum premium that can be paid for a qualified longevity annuity contract is an indexed statutory amount of:
A.) $75,000
B.) $100,000
c.) $150,000
D.) $200,000
D.) $200,000
Module: 8
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 297.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 12, Objective 2.4
SECURE 2.0 RIJ, page 20, “Expansion of QLAC Exemption”
section.
An initial Summary Plan Description must be distributed to participants within how many days after the date the plan becomes subject to Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) disclosure requirements?
A.) 30
B.) 45
c.) 60
D.) 90
E.) 120
E.) 120
Module: 3
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 72.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 8, Objective 1.6.
Generally, under best practice standards, how often should an Employee Retirement Income Security Act investment committee meet?
A.) Every month
B.) Every other month
C.) Quarterly or twice a year
D.) Once a year
E.) Every other year
C.) Quarterly or twice a year
Module: 3
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 80.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 13, Objective 2.9.
Which of the following statements regarding the procedures required to establish an Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) employee welfare benefit plan is correct?
A.) An ERISA plan is officially created only when the board of directors of the sponsoring company approves the plan.
B.) An ERISA plan is started when contributions are made to the plan.
C.) An ERISA plan is considered to be established only when the participants can reasonably assume the plan is in existence.
D.) A plan must follow a rigid set of requirements to establish an ERISA plan.
E.) No particular formalities are required to create an ERISA plan.
E.) No particular formalities are required to create an ERISA plan.
Module: 1
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 8-9.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 6, Objective 1.3.
A pension plan investment carries an expense of 2 %. If the expenses are decreased by 50 basis points, what will be the new level of expenses?
A.) 1.00%
B.) 1.10%
c.) 1.25%
D.) 1.50%
E.) 1.75%
D.) 1.50%
Module: 6
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 242-243.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 17, Objective 4.1.
If a defendant plan administrator in a Section 502(c)(1) penalty case is utilizing a no “clear notice” defense, he or she is claiming the plaintiff:
A.) Lacked standing to request the documents
B.) Failed to make a sufficiently specific request
C.) Sent the request to the wrong person
D.) Requested documents not subject to the Section 502(c)(1)penalty
E.) Made a claim barred by the statute of limitations
B.) Failed to make a sufficiently specific request
Module: 9
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 373-376.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 16, Objective 4.10.
A Department of Labor audit quality study showed the percentage of
employee benefit plan audits that had “Unacceptable-Major” deficiencies that adversely affected overall audit quality. This percentage was approximately:
A.) 2%
B.) 4%
C.) 10%
D.) 40%
E.) 90%
D.) 40%
Module: 5
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 188.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 11, Objective 2.3.
What was the effect of the U.S. Supreme Court ruling in Tibble v. Edison?
A.) The failure to properly monitor an investment fund once selected would be exposed to fiduciary breach claims for six years from the date of such monitoring
failure.
B.) Participant lawsuits against plan fiduciaries for improperly monitored plan investments must be initiated within four years from the date of the impropriety.
C.) The maximum time period participants and beneficiaries have to sue fiduciaries for violation of their responsibilities was extended to 12 years.
D.) The time period participants and beneficiaries have to sue fiduciaries for violation of their responsibilities was reduced to five years.
E.) For qualified default investment alternatives (QDlAs), participants never lose their ability to sue for violation of fiduciary duties.
A.) The failure to properly monitor an investment fund once selected would be exposed to fiduciary breach claims for six years from the date of such monitoring
failure.
Module: 6
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 225.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 7, Objective 1.2.
The Federal Trade Commission (FTC) case against a medical transcription services company dealt with the exposure of personal medical information. According to the FTC, the settlement in this case demonstrated:
A.) That companies must be held to high standards with regard to third-party vendor management and oversight when it involves personal information
B.) That Employee Retirement Income Security Act plan fiduciaries should encourage third-party vendors to use cloud management of personal information whenever possible
C.) That the distinction between personally identifiable information (PI’) and protected health information (PHI) does not provide an excuse for careless management of health information
D.) That settlements in cases of this type will be enforced for five years
E.) That personal health information is more important that personal investment information
A.) That companies must be held to high standards with regard to third-party vendor management and oversight when it involves personal information
Module: 4
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 122.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 12, Objective 3.5.
Plan fiduciaries must understand the core difference between “active” and “passive” investment strategies. Which of the following statements best describes this difference?
A.) Passive funds are not overly concerned about investment fees, while active funds take major steps to reduce fees.
B.) Passive funds typically seek to match the performance of an index of securities, while active funds attempt to outperform the market.
C.) Passive funds make no efforts to seek out investments but rather allow investment dealers to contact them.
D.) Passive funds do not participate in “revenue sharing,” while active funds encourage this practice.
E.) Passive funds do not actively market their products, while active funds are heavily involved in marketing.
B.) Passive funds typically seek to match the performance of an index of securities, while active funds attempt to outperform the market.
Module: 8
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 318.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 23, Objective 6.2(a).
Hospice care benefits available under Medicare are for terminally ill
persons who have a life expectancy of how many months or less?
A.) Three months
B.) Six months
C.) Nine months
D.) 12 months
E.) 18 months
B.) Six months
Module: 11
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 439-440.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 7, Objective 1.6.
A person’s Social Security primary insurance amount (PIA) is which of the following?
A.) The worker’s average indexed monthly earnings (Al ME)
B.) The total benefit for the worker’s family
C.) The retirement benefit for the retired workers spouse
D.) The spouse’s survivor benefit
E.) The worker’s monthly retirement benefit at full retirement age
E.) The worker’s monthly retirement benefit at full retirement age
Module: 10
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 393.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 13, Objective 4.1.
A global trend taking place in defined contribution retirement plans is:
A.) Greater reliance on plans with default investments
B.) Emphasis on participant-brokerage accounts
C.) Solutions based on exchange-traded fund (ETF) only plans
D.) Less emphasis on paternalistic solutions
E.) Pursuit of multivendor, choice-oriented investment options
A.) Greater reliance on plans with default investments
Module: 12
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 511.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 22, Objective 4.8.
Approximately how many individuals are working in occupations covered by Social Security?
A.) 5 out of 10 workers
B.) 6 out of 10 workers
C.) 7 out of 10 workers
D.) 8 out of 10 workers
E.) 9 out of 10 workers
E.) 9 out of 10 workers
Module: 10
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 389.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 9, Objective 2.1.
Which of the following statements best describes whether the attorney-client privilege is applicable in the area of employee benefits plans?
A.) Those involved in plan activities can be assured that the attorney client privilege always applies.
B.) As a general rule, it applies; however, courts have increasingly recognized that an exception may exist in communications involving administrative activities.
C.) As a general rule, it applies; however, courts have increasingly recognized that an exception may exist in communications involving fiduciary activities.
D.) The Employee Retirement Income Security Act (ERISA) stipulates that this privilege is not available under any circumstance to plan representatives.
E.) Case law in this area is unsettled.
C.) As a general rule, it applies; however, courts have increasingly recognized that an exception may exist in communications involving fiduciary activities.
Module: 9
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 346-347.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 8, Objective 1.9.
How much are the civil penalties imposed by the Employee Retirement Income Security Act against certified public accounting (CPA) firms that perform deficient plan audits?
A.) From $1 ,000 to $2,000 per day, depending upon the decision of the Employee Benefits Security Administration
B.) $2,000 per day until the problems are resolved
C.) $1,000 per day until the problems are resolved
D.) An indexed statutory amount per day until the problems are resolved
E.) Zero
E.) Zero
Module: 5
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 189.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 12, Objective 2.6.
Which of the following types of benefits may not be offered in a cafeteria plan?
A.) 401(k) plan
B.) 403(b) elective deferrals
C.) Short-term disability coverage
D.) Long-term disability coverage
E.) COBRA continuation coverage premiums
B.) 403(b) elective deferrals
Module: 2
Reference: Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 46-47.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 20, Objectives 6.2 and
6.3.
Under federal law, the value of benefits provided to an employee’s same sex civil union partner:
A.) Is exempt from federal income tax
B.) Is not exempt from federal income tax
C.) Is exempt from federal income tax up to a cap
D.) May be exempt dependent on the employee’s state of domicile
E.) Is exempt if it qualifies for the Internal Revenue Code’s de minimis benefits exclusion
B.) Is not exempt from federal income tax
Module: 2
Reference: Study Guide, Second Edition, page 33.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 10, Objective 2.4.
Provider network contracts of an administrative services only (ASO)
agreement for a self-funded health plan allow a limited time period for recovering claims that were identified as overpaid. This period is usually:
A.) Six months
B.) One year
C.) Three years
D.) Five years
E.) Eight years
B.) One year
Module: 7
Reference: Study Guide, Second Edition, page 31.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 18, Objective 4.6.
What is the highest rate at which Social Security benefits can be taxed, depending on the person’s income and tax bracket?
A.) 10%
B.) 25%
C.) 50
D.) 85%
E.) 100%
D.) 85%
Module: 10
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 401.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 19, Objective 6.1.
The Employee Retirement Income Security Act generally requires
qualified retirement plan assets to be diversified. However, there is an exception to this important diversification requirement. What is this exception?
A.) Assets need not be diversified if, under the circumstances, it is clearly prudent not to do so.
B.) Assets need not be diversified if the plan has total assets exceeding a specified amount.
C.) Assets need not be diversified if the plan obtains approval of the appropriate regulatory authorities.
D.) Assets need not be diversified if the plan assets consist entirely of U.S. government securities.
E.) Assets need not be diversified if the plan contains no innovative investments.
A.) Assets need not be diversified if, under the circumstances, it is clearly prudent not to do so.
Module: 8
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 312. Study Guide, Second Edition, page 18,
Objective 4.6
When an employee takes an international assignment, the employee
might be given “tax protection.” This practice refers to which of the
following?
A.) Requiring an employee to pay a tax equal to the home jurisdiction tax he or she would have paid had he or she remained in his or her home
B.) Guaranteeing the employee will be reimbursed for the higher cost of living in the foreign country
C.) Reimbursing the employee only in the event he or she pays higher taxes as a result of the international assignment
D.) Paying any additional amounts equal to the higher cost of living in the home country
E.) Allocating additional compensation to employees on foreign assignments to account for higher housing taxes
C.) Reimbursing the employee only in the event he or she pays higher taxes as a result of the international assignment
Module: 12
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 485-486.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 13, Objective 2.6.
Which of the following statements regarding the ways in which the U.S. health care system is different from health care systems in other
countries is correct?
A.) Medical benefit service pricing in the U.S. has been subject to legal ceilings and regulated pricing controls.
B.) The U.S. is the only large economy in the world that does not offer its citizens universal access to medical care.
C.) Malpractice insurance premiums have been less of a problem in the U.S. than in most other developed countries.
D.) In the U.S., employees are generally able to unilaterally adjust plan provisions in order to improve benefits.
E.) The U.S. system has many restrictions and/or deterrents in terms of the funding vehicle choices that are available for medical plans.
A not E
E.) The U.S. system has many restrictions and/or deterrents in terms of the funding vehicle choices that are available for medical plans.
Module: 12
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 490-491.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 14, Objective 3.1.
Which of the following is a Supreme Court case that made it difficult to argue that an Employee Retirement Income Security Act plan should not have a contractual limitations period if certain requirements are met?
A.) Heimeshoff v. Hartford Life & Accident Insurance Company
B.) Gobeille v. Liberty Mutual Insurance Company
C.) Donovan v. Dillingham
D ) United States v. Windsor
E.) Sulyma v. Intel
A.) Heimeshoff v. Hartford Life & Accident Insurance Company
Module: 9
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 344.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 7, Objective 1.6.
A social security totalization agreement might be involved when an
employee takes an international assignment. Which of the following
statements best describes the purpose of this type of agreement?
A.) The agreement requires an employee to pay a tax equal to the home jurisdiction tax he or she would have paid had he or she remained in his or her home.
B.) The agreement is designed to reimburse the employee in the event he or she pays higher taxes as a result of the international assignment.
C.) The agreement provides relief from dual social security coverage and taxation under both systems and integrates or synchronizes the benefits earned under more than one system.
D.) The agreement allows an international employee the right to postpone Social Security taxes for a short period.
E.) The agreement produces a tax that is the average of the two tax rates between the home country and the host country.
C.) The agreement provides relief from dual social security coverage and taxation under both systems and integrates or synchronizes the benefits earned under more than one system.
Module: 12
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 488.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 13, Objective 2.7.
The cost of an administrative claims audit in a self-funded health plan typically will be:
A.) Less than 1% of total annual claim spending
B.) Approximately 5% of total annual claim spending
C.) Approximately 10% of total annual claim spending
D.) Approximately 15% of total annual claim spending
E.) More than 20% of total annual claim spending
A.) Less than 1% of total annual claim spending
Module: 7
Reference: Study Guide, Second Edition, page 33.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 21 , Objective 4.12.
Which of the following is a group that has been explicitly identified as
being vulnerable to significant litigation risk when employer securities are part of a retirement plan’s investment portfolio?
A.) Plan participant beneficiaries
B.) Plan fiduciaries
C.) Investment plan advisors
D.) Plan record keepers
E.) Brokerage account holders
B.) Plan fiduciaries
Module: 8
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 327-328.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 26, Objective 6.9.
One of the basic disclosure documents required by the Employee
Retirement Income Security Act is the Summary of Benefits and Coverage. It must be presented in a uniform format and cannot exceed how many double-sided pages?
A.) 10
B.) 8
C.) 6
D.) 4
E.) 2
D.) 4
Module: 1
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 30.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 17, Objective 3.6.
Form 5500 and other financial reports statutorily must be kept for a
minimum of how many years after the filing date?
A.) One
B.) Two
C.) Four
D.) Six
E.) Ten
D.) Six
Module: 6
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 236-237.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 14, Objective 3.2.
What is the best description of the coverage provided by “Medigap”
insurance policies?
A.) Medigap is basically prescription drug coverage.
B.) Medigap pays the premiums for Part A coverage.
C.) Medigap is designed to pay hospice benefits.
D.) Medigap is coverage for long-term care benefits.
E.) Medigap covers health care service charges, such as copayments, coinsurance and deductibles, not covered by Medicare Parts A and B.
E.) Medigap covers health care service charges, such as copayments, coinsurance and deductibles, not covered by Medicare Parts A and B.
Module: 11
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 447.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 14, Objective 3.5.
At a minimum, if there have been no material changes in the plan, the Employee Retirement Income Security Act requires employers to prepare and distribute new Summary Plan Descriptions to participants at least
A.) 2 years
B.) 3 years
C.) 5 years
D.) 7 years
E.) 10 years
E.) 10 years
Module: 1
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 25.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 15, Objective 3.2.
A study calculated the relative impact of three drivers of worker wealth accumulation upon retirement. The drivers were savings, investing and fees. Which of the following statements regarding these wealth accumulation drivers is (are) correct?
l. The most important driver, by far, was saving.
ll. Attempting to get the lowest level of fees might detract from fiduciary
oversight and investment selections.
Ill. The level of fees had a very major relative impact.
A.) Ill only
B.) I and Il only
C.) I and Ill only
D.) Il and Ill only
E.) l, Il and Ill
B.) I and II only
Module: 6
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 246-247 and 250.
Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 18 and 19, Objectives
4.3 and 4.4.
Which of the following statements regarding Medicare Part D is (are)
correct?
l. Part D is voluntary.
ll. Part D provides prescription drug insurance coverage.
Ill. Part D offers premium and cost-sharing subsidies for low-income
enrollees.
A.) I only
B.) Il only
C.) Ill only
D.) I and Il only
E.) l, Il and Ill
E.) l, Il and Ill
Module: 11
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 442.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 10, Objective 2.4.
Which of the following statements regarding the differences between a market-driven approach to employee plan communications and the traditional approach to such communications is (are) correct?
l. In the traditional approach, the communication tone is direct, while it is neutral in the market-driven approach.
ll. In the traditional approach, messages are sent to a single mass
audience, but messages are targeted to specific audiences in the market-driven approach.
Ill. Success is hard to measure in the traditional approach, while it is
directly measurable in the market-driven approach.
A.) Ill only
B.) I and Il only
C.) I and Ill only
D.) Il and Ill only
E.) l, Il and Ill
D.) Il and Ill only
Module: 3
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, page 87.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 16, Objective 3.5.
Which of the following encompass(es) the definition of data analytics in the health care context?
l. It is a process of inspecting, cleaning, transforming, interpreting and modeling data.
ll. Its objective is to discover trends, patterns and other information that can support benefit plan decisions and changes.
Ill. It strengthens the relationship between third-party payors and health care providers.
A.) Il only
B.) Ill only
C.) I and Il only
D.) Il and Ill only
E.) l, Il and Ill
C.) I and Il only
Module: 7
Reference: Study Guide, Second Edition, page 24.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 6, Objective 1.1.
To be eligible for Social Security disability income benefits, a person must meet which of the following requirements?
l. Be disability insured
ll. Satisfy a 12-month waiting period
Ill. Be physically, not mentally, disabled
A.) None
B.) I only
C.) Ill only
D.) I and Il only
E.) Il and Ill only
B.) I only
Module: 7
Reference: Study Guide, Second Edition, page 24.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 6, Objective 1.1.
Which of the following statements regarding the Employee Benefits
Security Administration (EBSA) and the quality of plan audits is (are)
correct?
l. EBSA concluded that a certified public accountant (CPA) firm’s peer
review rating has little bearing on the firm’s plan audit compliance.
ll. EBSA concluded that audit firms that perform a larger number of
employee benefit plan audits each year tend to have a greater incidence
of audit deficiencies.
Ill. EBSA has found numerous audit cases where no audit work was
performed or there was a lack of evidence of audit work performed.
A.) Ill only
B.) I and Il only
C.) I and Ill only
D.) Il and Ill only
E.) l, Il and Ill
C.) I and Ill only
Module: 5
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 189 and 191.
Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 11 and 12, Objectives
2.5 and 2.7.
Which of the following statements regarding qualified longevity annuity contracts (QLACs) is (are) correct?
l. Currently, the value of a QLAC is excluded for required minimum
distribution (RMD) purposes from an individual’s account balance.
ll. Defined benefit plans can utilize QLACs.
Ill. Contracts with cash surrender values can qualify for a QLAC.
A.) I only
B.) Il only
C.) Ill only
D.) I and Il only
E.) Il and Ill only
A.) I only
Module: 8
Reference: Strategic Benefits Management, Second
Edition, pages 296-298.
Study Guide, Second Edition, page 12, Objectives 2.2-2.4.