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final pharma Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which of the following antacids can cause constipation as a side effect? - A. Magnesium hydroxide - B. Aluminum hydroxide - C. Sodium bicarbonate - D. Calcium carbonate
A
  1. B. Aluminum hydroxide - Explanation: Aluminum hydroxide can cause constipation as a side effect.
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2
Q
  1. Histamine H₂ receptor blockers are primarily used for treating: - A. Dyspepsia - B. Motion sickness - C. Peptic ulcer - D. Constipation
A
  1. C. Peptic ulcer - Explanation: Histamine H₂ receptor blockers are used to treat peptic ulcers and reflux oesophagitis.
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3
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is a proton pump inhibitor? - A. Cimetidine - B. Ranitidine - C. Omeprazole - D. Misoprostol
A
  1. C. Omeprazole - Explanation: Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor.
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4
Q
  1. What is a common side effect of proton pump inhibitors? - A. Headache - B. Diarrhea - C. Drowsiness - D. Dry mouth
A
  1. B. Diarrhea - Explanation: Common side effects of proton pump inhibitors include diarrhea and constipation.
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5
Q
  1. Misoprostol is used to prevent and treat stomach ulcers by: - A. Neutralizing stomach acid - B. Inhibiting histamine release - C. Stimulating mucus and bicarbonate production - D. Blocking H⁺/K⁺-ATPase in parietal cells
A
  1. C. Stimulating mucus and bicarbonate production - Explanation: Misoprostol stimulates mucus and bicarbonate production to protect the stomach lining, especially when NSAIDs inhibit endogenous prostaglandin synthesis.
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6
Q
  1. Which of the following is an H₁ antagonist used as an antiemetic? - A. Promethazine - B. Hyoscine - C. Lorazepam - D. Omeprazole
A
  1. A. Promethazine - Explanation: Promethazine is an H₁ antagonist used to treat nausea and vomiting.
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7
Q
  1. Which laxative works by increasing the water content in the bowel, causing softer stool? - A. Methylcellulose - B. Lactulose - C. Ricinoleic acid - D. Glycerol
A
  1. B. Lactulose - Explanation: Lactulose is an osmotic laxative that retains water in the bowel, leading to softer stools.
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8
Q
  1. Loperamide is the first choice antidiarrheal opioid because: - A. It causes significant CNS effects - B. It has a selective action on the GI tract without CNS effects - C. It is the most potent opioid available - D. It is derived from natural sources
A
  1. B. It has a selective action on the GI tract without CNS effects - Explanation: Loperamide acts selectively on the GI tract and does not have significant CNS effects, making it a preferred choice for treating diarrhea.
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9
Q
  1. Which drug interaction is a concern with Cimetidine? - A. Inhibition of CYP450 enzymes - B. Increasing gastric pH - C. Constipation - D. Hypertension
A
  1. A. Inhibition of CYP450 enzymes - Explanation: Cimetidine inhibits CYP450 enzymes, leading to potential drug interactions.
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10
Q
  1. Which of the following conditions is NOT a typical indication for laxative use? - A. Pain associated with bowel movements - B. Bowel evacuation prior to procedures - C. Chronic diarrhea management - D. Relieving constipation caused by pregnancy
A
  1. C. Chronic diarrhea management - Explanation: Laxatives are generally not indicated for chronic diarrhea management. They are used to relieve constipation, prepare for bowel procedures, and alleviate pain associated with bowel movements.
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11
Q
  1. Which class of diuretics is Hydrochlorothiazide a part of? - A) Loop diuretics - B) Thiazides - C) Potassium-sparing diuretics - D) Osmotic agents
A
  1. B) Thiazides - Explanation: Hydrochlorothiazide is a Thiazide diuretic used to increase urine excretion.
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12
Q
  1. What are the uses of Hydrochlorothiazide? - A) Edema due to heart failure and cirrhosis, hypertension, prophylaxis of calculus formation in hypercalciuria. - B) Acute gout, chronic gout, and frequent disabling attacks of gouty arthritis. - C) Overactive bladder and benign prostatic hyperplasia. - D) Urinary tract infections and bladder inflammation.
A
  1. A) Edema due to heart failure and cirrhosis, hypertension, prophylaxis of calculus formation in hypercalciuria. - Explanation: These are the primary uses of Hydrochlorothiazide.
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13
Q
  1. What is a potential side effect of Thiazide diuretics like Hydrochlorothiazide? - A) Hypokalemia - B) Hypocalcemia - C) Hyperkalemia - D) Hypernatremia
A
  1. A) Hypokalemia - Explanation: Hypokalemia is a common side effect of Thiazide diuretics, which can lead to cardiac arrhythmia.
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14
Q
  1. Probenecid is used in the treatment of which condition? - A) Hypertension - B) Gout - C) Overactive bladder - D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
A
  1. B) Gout - Explanation: Probenecid is used to treat chronic gout and frequent disabling attacks of gouty arthritis.
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15
Q
  1. What is the main action of Uricosuric agents like Probenecid? - A) Increasing urine excretion - B) Blocking reabsorption and promoting urinary excretion of uric acid - C) Relaxing bladder smooth muscle - D) Acting as a local analgesic for the urinary tract mucosa
A
  1. B) Blocking reabsorption and promoting urinary excretion of uric acid - Explanation: This is the main action of Uricosuric agents like Probenecid.
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16
Q
  1. Which of the following is a rare side effect of Probenecid? - A) Headache - B) Muscle spasms - C) Dry mouth - D) Blurred vision
A
  1. A) Headache - Explanation: Headache is a rare side effect of Probenecid.
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17
Q
  1. Oxytrol is used to treat which condition? - A) Gout - B) Overactive bladder - C) Hypertension - D) Benign prostatic hyperplasia
A
  1. B) Overactive bladder - Explanation: Oxytrol is used to treat symptoms of overactive bladder.
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18
Q
  1. Which of the following is a side effect of bladder anti-spasmodics like Oxytrol? - A) Hypokalemia - B) Urinary retention - C) Increased urination - D) Orange-red urine discoloration
A
  1. B) Urinary retention - Explanation: Urinary retention is a side effect of bladder anti-spasmodics like Oxytrol.
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19
Q
  1. Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic used for what purpose? - A) Reducing blood pressure - B) Treating chronic gout - C) Reducing burning, pain, and urgency associated with cystitis - D) Treating overactive bladder
A
  1. C) Reducing burning, pain, and urgency associated with cystitis - Explanation: Phenazopyridine is used as a local analgesic for urinary tract mucosa.
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20
Q
  1. What is a common side effect of Phenazopyridine? - A) Muscle weakness - B) GI disturbances - C) Urinary retention - D) Nasal congestion
A
  1. B) GI disturbances - Explanation: Mild gastrointestinal disturbances are a common side effect of Phenazopyridine.
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21
Q
  1. Tamsulosin, an α-blocker, is primarily used for treating symptoms of which condition? - A) Hypertension - B) Overactive bladder - C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia - D) Acute gout
A
  1. C) Benign prostatic hyperplasia - Explanation: Tamsulosin is primarily used to treat symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia.
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22
Q
  1. Which side effect is associated with Tamsulosin? - A) Hypokalemia - B) Dizziness - C) Muscle weakness - D) Dry mouth
A
  1. B) Dizziness - Explanation: Dizziness is a common side effect associated with Tamsulosin, an α-blocker used for BPH.
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23
Q
  1. Which condition is treated with hydrocortisone for low cortisol levels? - A) Cushing’s Syndrome - B) Addison’s Disease - C) Hypothyroidism - D) Graves’ Disease
A
  1. B) Addison’s Disease - Explanation: Addison’s Disease is characterized by low cortisol levels, which can be treated with hydrocortisone.
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24
Q
  1. What is a common side effect of prolonged corticosteroid use? - A) Increased height - B) Decreased susceptibility to infections - C) Adrenocortical atrophy - D) Increased muscle mass
A
  1. C) Adrenocortical atrophy - Explanation: Prolonged use of corticosteroids can lead to suppression of the pituitary gland and adrenocortical atrophy.
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25
Q
  1. Which adverse effect is commonly associated with glucocorticoids? - A) Hypoglycemia - B) Central obesity - C) Weight loss - D) Hyperthyroidism
A
  1. B) Central obesity - Explanation: Central obesity, including “moon face” and “buffalo hump,” is a common side effect of glucocorticoid use.
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26
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is intermediate-acting and can be used in alternate-day therapy? - A) Prednisone - B) Hydrocortisone - C) Fludrocortisone - D) Triamcinolone
A
  1. A) Prednisone - Explanation: Prednisone is an intermediate-acting corticosteroid often used in alternate-day therapy to minimize side effects.
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27
Q
  1. Which type of insulin has an onset within 15 minutes and a duration of 3 to 4 hours? - A) Regular Insulin - B) NPH Insulin - C) Insulin Glargine - D) Insulin Lispro
A
  1. D) Insulin Lispro - Explanation: Insulin Lispro has a rapid onset (within 15 minutes) and a short duration (3 to 4 hours).
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28
Q
  1. What is a major side effect of insulin therapy? - A) Hyperglycemia - B) Hypoglycemia - C) Hyperthyroidism - D) Hypothyroidism
A
  1. B) Hypoglycemia - Explanation: Hypoglycemia is a major side effect of insulin therapy, characterized by low blood sugar levels.
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29
Q
  1. Which oral hypoglycemic drug class stimulates insulin release from pancreatic beta cells? - A) Biguanides - B) Sulfonylureas - C) Thiazolidinediones - D) α-Glucosidase Inhibitors
A
  1. B) Sulfonylureas - Explanation: Sulfonylureas, such as glipizide, stimulate insulin release from pancreatic beta cells.
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30
Q
  1. Which drug reduces hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity? - A) Glipizide - B) Metformin - C) Pioglitazone - D) Acarbose
A
  1. B) Metformin - Explanation: Metformin reduces hepatic glucose production and improves insulin sensitivity.
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31
Q
  1. Which drug is associated with gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea and diarrhea as a side effect? - A) Glimepiride - B) Repaglinide - C) Metformin - D) Canagliflozin
A
  1. C) Metformin - Explanation: Gastrointestinal symptoms like nausea and diarrhea are common side effects of metformin.
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32
Q
  1. Which thyroid hormone is more potent in activity but produced in lesser amounts? - A) T3 - B) T4 - C) TSH - D) Calcitonin
A
  1. A) T3 - Explanation: T3 is more potent than T4 but is produced in lesser amounts by the thyroid gland.
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33
Q
  1. Which condition is treated by administering levothyroxine? - A) Hyperthyroidism - B) Hypothyroidism - C) Cushing’s Syndrome - D) Addison’s Disease
A
  1. B) Hypothyroidism - Explanation: Hypothyroidism is treated with levothyroxine (T4) as a replacement therapy.
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34
Q
  1. Which drug is used to inhibit thyroid hormone synthesis in hyperthyroidism? - A) Levothyroxine - B) Methimazole - C) Hydrocortisone - D) Metformin
A
  1. B) Methimazole - Explanation: Methimazole is used to inhibit the synthesis of thyroid hormones in hyperthyroidism.
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35
Q
  1. Which of the following is an adverse effect of chronic overtreatment with T4 in elderly patients? - A) Bradycardia - B) Osteoporosis - C) Hyperglycemia - D) Central obesity
A
  1. B) Osteoporosis - Explanation: Chronic overtreatment with T4 can increase the risk of osteoporosis, especially in elderly patients.
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36
Q
  1. Which condition is a contraindication for the use of thyroid hormone replacement therapy? - A) Hypertension - B) Diabetes - C) Addison’s Disease - D) Osteoporosis
A
  1. A) Hypertension - Explanation: Hypertension is a contraindication for thyroid hormone replacement therapy due to potential cardiovascular risks.
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37
Q
  1. What should be monitored closely in diabetic patients receiving thyroid hormone replacement therapy? - A) Blood pressure - B) Blood glucose levels - C) Body temperature - D) Heart rate
A
  1. B) Blood glucose levels - Explanation: In diabetic patients, thyroid hormone replacement therapy requires close monitoring of blood glucose levels to manage potential interactions.
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38
Q

Question 1 Which of the following antibacterial drugs is primarily used to treat tuberculosis and prevent meningitis after exposure to N. meningitidis? a) Penicillin b) Rifampicin c) Tetracycline d) Sulfonamide

A
  1. b) Rifampicin - Explanation: Rifampicin is primarily used to treat tuberculosis and prevent meningitis after exposure to N. meningitidis.
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39
Q

Question 2 Which antibacterial drug class inhibits enzymes involved in the final steps of Gram-positive bacterial cell wall synthesis? a) Aminoglycosides b) Fluoroquinolones c) β-lactam drugs d) Sulfonamides

A
  1. c) β-lactam drugs - Explanation: β-lactam drugs irreversibly inhibit enzymes involved in the final steps of Gram-positive bacterial cell wall synthesis.
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40
Q

Question 3 What is a major disadvantage of using broad-spectrum antibiotics like Tetracycline? a) High cost b) Narrow range of effectiveness c) Disruption of normal flora d) Low therapeutic index

A
  1. c) Disruption of normal flora - Explanation: Broad-spectrum antibiotics can disrupt normal flora, potentially leading to the overgrowth of other pathogens.
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41
Q

Question 4 Which of the following drugs is contraindicated for children under the age of 8 due to its absorption by bones and teeth, causing dental enamel hypoplasia? a) Penicillin b) Rifampicin c) Tetracycline d) Sulfonamide

A
  1. c) Tetracycline - Explanation: Tetracyclines can cause hypoplasia of dental enamel and other dental disorders, making them unsuitable for children under 8 and during pregnancy.
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42
Q

Question 5 Which antibacterial drug class works by inhibiting the supercoiling of closed circular DNA? a) Aminoglycosides b) Fluoroquinolones c) β-lactam drugs d) Sulfonamides

A
  1. b) Fluoroquinolones - Explanation: Fluoroquinolones inhibit enzymes responsible for the supercoiling of DNA, affecting bacterial DNA replication.
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43
Q

Question 6 Sulfonamides act by mimicking which metabolite, leading to the inhibition of folic acid synthesis in bacteria? a) Glucose b) Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) c) Ribose d) Sucrose

A
  1. b) Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) - Explanation: Sulfonamides mimic PABA and inhibit the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase, preventing folic acid synthesis in bacteria.
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44
Q

Question 7 Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of an ideal antibacterial drug? a) High selective toxicity to pathogens b) High tendency for the development of resistance c) Rapid and extensive tissue distribution d) Free of interactions with other drugs

A
  1. b) High tendency for the development of resistance - Explanation: Ideal antibacterial drugs should have a low tendency for the development of resistance.
45
Q

Question 8 What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides? a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis b) Inhibition of DNA/RNA synthesis c) Inhibition of protein synthesis d) Inhibition of folic acid metabolism

A
  1. c) Inhibition of protein synthesis - Explanation: Aminoglycosides inhibit protein synthesis by binding to bacterial ribosomes.
46
Q

Question 9 Which route of administration is not typically used for antibacterial drugs? a) Topical b) Oral c) Intramuscular d) Subcutaneous

A
  1. d) Subcutaneous - Explanation: Antibacterial drugs are typically administered topically, orally, intramuscularly, or intravenously, not subcutaneously.
47
Q

Question 10 Why might combination therapy be used to treat bacterial infections? a) To reduce drug costs b) To enhance the activity of one drug with another (synergistic effect) c) To avoid allergic reactions d) To limit the range of organisms controlled

A
  1. b) To enhance the activity of one drug with another (synergistic effect) - Explanation: Combination therapy utilizes the synergistic effect to enhance the effectiveness of treatment.
48
Q

Which of the following drugs is an anti-influenza medication that inhibits viral neuraminidase? A) Zidovudine B) Oseltamivir C) Acyclovir D) Lamivudine

A

B) Oseltamivir Explanation: Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication that inhibits the neuraminidase enzyme, preventing the release and spread of the influenza virus.

49
Q

What is the primary use of antiretroviral drugs? A) Treating influenza B) Treating herpes simplex virus C) Treating hepatitis B and C D) Treating HIV/AIDS

A

D) Treating HIV/AIDS Explanation: Antiretroviral drugs are specifically used to treat HIV/AIDS by inhibiting various stages of the viral replication cycle.

50
Q

Which drug is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV? A) Efavirenz B) Ritonavir C) Tenofovir D) Oseltamivir

A

C) Tenofovir Explanation: Tenofovir is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used in the treatment of HIV by causing chain termination during reverse transcription.

51
Q

Which of the following drugs is primarily used to treat hepatitis C and is classified as a direct-acting antiviral? A) Interferon alfa B) Ribavirin C) Sofosbuvir D) Lamivudine

A

C) Sofosbuvir Explanation: Sofosbuvir is a direct-acting antiviral drug used to treat hepatitis C by inhibiting the RNA polymerase NS5B.

52
Q

What is a common side effect of protease inhibitors used in HIV treatment? A) Rash B) Insomnia C) Lipodystrophy D) Hair loss

A

C) Lipodystrophy Explanation: Protease inhibitors used in HIV treatment can cause lipodystrophy, which is a redistribution of body fat.

53
Q

Acyclovir is used to treat which type of viral infection? A) Influenza B) HIV/AIDS C) Hepatitis C D) Herpes simplex virus

A

D) Herpes simplex virus Explanation: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat infections caused by the herpes simplex virus.

54
Q

Which drug is contraindicated in patients with hypersensitivity to guanine analogues? A) Oseltamivir B) Acyclovir C) Lamivudine D) Sofosbuvir

A

B) Acyclovir Explanation: Acyclovir is contraindicated in patients with hypersensitivity to guanine analogues, as it is a guanine analogue itself.

55
Q

Which of the following statements about influenza treatment is correct? A) Anti-influenza drugs destroy the virus completely. B) Anti-influenza drugs inhibit the development of the virus. C) Anti-influenza drugs can be used interchangeably with antibiotics. D) Anti-influenza drugs are only effective for treating HIV.

A

B) Anti-influenza drugs inhibit the development of the virus. Explanation: Anti-influenza drugs do not destroy the virus but inhibit its development, making it difficult for the virus to multiply.

56
Q

Which enzyme is targeted by drugs such as raltegravir to prevent HIV integration into the host genome? A) Neuraminidase B) Reverse transcriptase C) Integrase D) Protease

A

C) Integrase Explanation: Drugs like raltegravir target the integrase enzyme, preventing HIV from integrating its genetic material into the host genome.

57
Q

Which hepatitis B treatment involves nucleoside/nucleotide analogues that inhibit viral polymerase? A) Acyclovir B) Tenofovir C) Oseltamivir D) Ribavirin

A

B) Tenofovir Explanation: Tenofovir is a nucleoside/nucleotide analogue that inhibits the hepatitis B virus polymerase, leading to chain termination and inhibition of viral DNA synthesis.

58
Q

Which of the following is a superficial fungal infection? A) Blastomycosis B) Coccidioidomycosis C) Tinea pedis D) Cryptococcosis

A

C) Tinea pedis Explanation: Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) is a superficial fungal infection affecting the skin.

59
Q

What is the main sterol found in fungal cell membranes that antifungal drugs target? A) Cholesterol B) Ergosterol C) Lanosterol D) Squalene

A

B) Ergosterol Explanation: Ergosterol is the primary sterol in fungal cell membranes targeted by many antifungal drugs.

60
Q

Which antifungal drug is known for its nephrotoxic side effects and is used primarily for severe systemic infections? A) Nystatin B) Fluconazole C) Amphotericin B D) Terbinafine

A

C) Amphotericin B Explanation: Amphotericin B is known for its nephrotoxicity and is used for severe systemic fungal infections.

61
Q

Nystatin is most commonly used for treating: A) Systemic fungal infections B) Superficial Candida infections of the mouth, skin, and vagina C) Cryptococcosis D) Histoplasmosis

A

B) Superficial Candida infections of the mouth, skin, and vagina Explanation: Nystatin is used topically for superficial Candida infections due to its high toxicity when used systemically.

62
Q

The mechanism of action for azole antifungal agents includes: A) Binding to ergosterol and forming pores B) Inhibiting β-(1,3)-glucan synthase C) Inhibiting squalene epoxidase and cytochrome P450 enzyme D) Disrupting fungal DNA synthesis

A

C) Inhibiting squalene epoxidase and cytochrome P450 enzyme Explanation: Azole antifungals inhibit these enzymes, disrupting ergosterol synthesis and leading to fungal cell death.

63
Q

Echinocandins inhibit which enzyme to exert their antifungal effects? A) Squalene epoxidase B) Cytochrome P450 C) β-(1,3)-glucan synthase D) DNA polymerase

A

C) β-(1,3)-glucan synthase Explanation: Echinocandins inhibit β-(1,3)-glucan synthase, leading to weakened fungal cell walls and cell death.

64
Q

Which of the following is a notable advantage of echinocandins over other antifungal drugs? A) High potential for nephrotoxicity B) Low potential for toxicity or serious drug interactions C) Effective against superficial fungal infections D) Requires frequent dosing

A

B) Low potential for toxicity or serious drug interactions Explanation: Echinocandins have low toxicity and fewer drug interactions because β-(1,3)-glucan synthase is absent in human cells.

65
Q

Which enzyme is inhibited by allylamines to disrupt ergosterol biosynthesis? A) β-(1,3)-glucan synthase B) DNA polymerase C) Squalene epoxidase D) Lanosterol synthase

A

C) Squalene epoxidase Explanation: Allylamines inhibit squalene epoxidase, disrupting ergosterol biosynthesis and impairing fungal cell membrane integrity.

66
Q

Which of the following is an example of an azole antifungal drug? A) Terbinafine B) Caspofungin C) Ketoconazole D) Amphotericin B

A

C) Ketoconazole Explanation: Ketoconazole is an example of an azole antifungal drug that inhibits ergosterol biosynthesis.

67
Q

What is a major adverse effect associated with azole antifungal agents? A) Nephrotoxicity B) Hepatotoxicity C) Cardiotoxicity D) Pharmacokinetic drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

A

D) Pharmacokinetic drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes Explanation: Azoles inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes, leading to numerous drug interactions.

68
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is an alkylating agent? a) Methotrexate b) Doxorubicin c) Cyclophosphamide d) 5-Fluorouracil
A
  1. c) Cyclophosphamide Explanation: Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent, while the others belong to different classes.
69
Q
  1. What is the primary mechanism of action for antimetabolites like Methotrexate? a) Alkylating DNA strands b) Inhibiting DNA synthesis by mimicking folate c) Interfering with RNA transcription d) Inhibiting topoisomerase II
A
  1. b) Inhibiting DNA synthesis by mimicking folate Explanation: Methotrexate inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, crucial for DNA synthesis.
70
Q
  1. Doxorubicin is classified as which type of antineoplastic drug? a) Antimetabolite b) Alkylating agent c) Antitumor antibiotic d) Vinca alkaloid
A
  1. c) Antitumor antibiotic Explanation: Doxorubicin is an antitumor antibiotic that interferes with DNA and RNA synthesis.
71
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs interferes with hormone balance? a) Paclitaxel b) Tamoxifen c) Dactinomycin d) Mercaptopurine
A
  1. b) Tamoxifen Explanation: Tamoxifen interferes with hormone balance, particularly estrogen.
72
Q
  1. A common short-term side effect of many antineoplastic drugs is: a) Nephrotoxicity b) Teratogenesis c) Myelosuppression d) Infertility
A
  1. c) Myelosuppression Explanation: Myelosuppression, or decreased bone marrow activity, is a common short-term side effect.
73
Q
  1. Long-term toxicity of chemotherapy may include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Carcinogenesis b) Gastrointestinal symptoms c) Teratogenesis d) Sterility
A
  1. b) Gastrointestinal symptoms Explanation: Gastrointestinal symptoms are short-term effects, not long-term toxicities.
74
Q
  1. Which adverse effect is specifically associated with Doxorubicin? a) Alopecia b) Nephrotoxicity c) Irreversible heart problems d) Myelosuppression
A
  1. c) Irreversible heart problems Explanation: Doxorubicin is known to cause irreversible cardiac issues, unlike the other options.
75
Q
  1. Methotrexate primarily targets which enzyme to exert its effects? a) DNA polymerase b) Topoisomerase II c) Dihydrofolate reductase d) RNA polymerase
A
  1. c) Dihydrofolate reductase Explanation: Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, affecting DNA synthesis.
76
Q
  1. Which drug is known for causing urine and tears to take on a red color as a side effect? a) Cyclophosphamide b) 5-Fluorouracil c) Doxorubicin d) Methotrexate
A
  1. c) Doxorubicin Explanation: Doxorubicin can cause a red discoloration in urine and tears.
77
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic mechanism of alkylating agents? a) Cross-linking DNA strands b) Inhibition of protein synthesis c) Impeding DNA and RNA replication d) Binding covalently to nucleophilic substances
A
  1. b) Inhibition of protein synthesis Explanation: Alkylating agents do not inhibit protein synthesis; they cross-link DNA strands.
78
Q
  1. What is a common mechanism through which tumors develop resistance to Methotrexate? a) Increased efflux of the drug from cells b) Increased concentration of the target enzyme c) Mutation in RNA polymerase d) Enhanced DNA repair mechanisms
A
  1. b) Increased concentration of the target enzyme Explanation: Tumor resistance to Methotrexate often involves increased levels of the target enzyme, dihydrofolate reductase.
79
Q
  1. Tamoxifen is contraindicated in patients with: a) History of thromboembolic disorders b) Diabetes mellitus c) Hypertension d) Asthma
A
  1. a) History of thromboembolic disorders Explanation: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in patients with a history of thromboembolic events due to increased risk.
80
Q
  1. Which of the following hormones stimulate the gonads to secrete sex hormones and produce gametes? - a) Androgens - b) Gonadotropins - c) Estrogens - d) Progestins
A
  1. b) Gonadotropins - Explanation: Gonadotropins stimulate the gonads to secrete sex hormones and produce gametes.
81
Q
  1. Which hormone is responsible for the development of male sexual characteristics and normal spermatogenesis? - a) Estrogen - b) Progesterone - c) Testosterone - d) Oxytocin
A
  1. c) Testosterone - Explanation: Testosterone is responsible for the development of male sexual characteristics and normal spermatogenesis.
82
Q
  1. What is the clinical use of testosterone? - a) Treatment of menstrual disorders - b) Replacement therapy for low testosterone levels - c) Induction of labor - d) Treatment of hypothyroidism
A
  1. b) Replacement therapy for low testosterone levels - Explanation: Testosterone is used in replacement therapy when the body cannot produce enough testosterone.
83
Q
  1. Which drug is a synthetic androgen used to treat conditions such as breast cancer and endometriosis? - a) Tamoxifen - b) Danazol - c) Clomiphene - d) Desogestrel
A
  1. b) Danazol - Explanation: Danazol is a synthetic androgen used for conditions like breast cancer and endometriosis.
84
Q
  1. What are common adverse effects of testosterone therapy? - a) Nausea and vomiting - b) Acne and increased libido - c) Hypertension and uterine rupture - d) Bronchospasm and hypotension
A
  1. b) Acne and increased libido - Explanation: Common adverse effects of testosterone therapy include acne and increased libido.
85
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is used to treat prostatic cancer, severe acne, and hirsutism by antagonizing androgen receptors? - a) Danazol - b) Clomiphene - c) Oxytocin - d) Tamoxifen
A
  1. d) Tamoxifen - Explanation: Tamoxifen is used to treat conditions like prostatic cancer, severe acne, and hirsutism by antagonizing androgen receptors.
86
Q
  1. Which hormone is responsible for the development and maintenance of the female reproductive system and secondary sexual characteristics? - a) Testosterone - b) Progesterone - c) Estrogen - d) LH
A
  1. c) Estrogen - Explanation: Estrogen is responsible for the development and maintenance of the female reproductive system and secondary sexual characteristics.
87
Q
  1. What are common adverse effects of high doses of estrogen? - a) Fluid retention, headache, and thromboembolic risk - b) Bronchospasm and hypotension - c) Edema and acne - d) Hepatic toxicity and increased libido
A
  1. a) Fluid retention, headache, and thromboembolic risk - Explanation: High doses of estrogen can cause fluid retention, headache, and increase the risk of thromboembolic events.
88
Q
  1. Which synthetic estrogen derivative is commonly used in combined birth control pills? - a) Menstranol - b) Norgestrel - c) Drospirenone - d) Desogestrel
A
  1. a) Menstranol - Explanation: Menstranol is a synthetic estrogen derivative commonly used in combined birth control pills.
89
Q
  1. What is the primary use of anti-estrogens like Tamoxifen? - a) Induction of labor - b) Treatment of advanced breast cancer - c) Emergency contraception - d) Fertility enhancement
A
  1. b) Treatment of advanced breast cancer - Explanation: Anti-estrogens like Tamoxifen are used primarily to treat advanced breast cancer.
90
Q
  1. What are the common adverse effects of Clomiphene? - a) Uterine rupture and fetal hypoxia - b) Increased incidence of early abortion and multiple births - c) Bronchospasm and abdominal pain - d) Bleeding and cramping
A
  1. b) Increased incidence of early abortion and multiple births - Explanation: Common adverse effects of Clomiphene include an increased incidence of early abortion and multiple births.
91
Q
  1. Which hormone is used to induce uterine contractions and stimulate milk release? - a) Oxytocin - b) Progesterone - c) Estrogen - d) FSH
A
  1. a) Oxytocin - Explanation: Oxytocin induces uterine contractions and stimulates milk release.
92
Q
  1. What are the adverse effects of oxytocin administration? - a) Edema and acne - b) Postpartum hemorrhage and fetal cardiac arrhythmia - c) Hepatic toxicity and increased libido - d) Fluid retention and headache
A
  1. b) Postpartum hemorrhage and fetal cardiac arrhythmia - Explanation: Adverse effects of oxytocin include postpartum hemorrhage and fetal cardiac arrhythmia.
93
Q
  1. Which drug class is used to induce labor and abortion by causing myometrial muscle contractions? - a) Anti-androgens - b) Anti-progesterone - c) Prostaglandins - d) Gonadotropins
A
  1. c) Prostaglandins - Explanation: Prostaglandins are used to induce labor and abortion by causing myometrial muscle contractions.
94
Q
  1. What is a common clinical use for anti-progesterone drugs? - a) Replacement therapy for low testosterone - b) Inducing labor in fetal death in utero - c) Treatment of hypothyroidism - d) Stimulating milk release
A
  1. b) Inducing labor in fetal death in utero - Explanation: Anti-progesterone drugs are used for inducing labor in cases of fetal death in utero.
95
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a common condition that leads to spasticity? - A) Multiple sclerosis (MS) - B) Spinal cord injury - C) Asthma - D) Stroke
A
  1. C) Asthma - Explanation: Spasticity is usually caused by conditions such as MS, spinal cord injury, and stroke, not asthma.
96
Q
  1. What is the primary function of muscle relaxants? - A) To treat infections - B) To reduce muscle-related symptoms like spasticity and spasms - C) To improve cardiovascular health - D) To enhance digestive function
A
  1. B) To reduce muscle-related symptoms like spasticity and spasms - Explanation: Muscle relaxants are specifically used to treat muscle-related symptoms.
97
Q
  1. What type of muscle relaxant works on the spinal cord or muscle cells? - A) Antispastics - B) Antispasmodics - C) Benzodiazepines - D) Nonbenzodiazepines
A
  1. A) Antispastics - Explanation: Antispastics work on the spinal cord or muscle cells to treat spasms and related conditions.
98
Q
  1. Baclofen is primarily used to manage spasticity in people with which of the following conditions? - A) Acute muscle pain - B) Flexor spasms, clonus, spinal cord lesions, and MS - C) Allergic reactions - D) Chronic headaches
A
  1. B) Flexor spasms, clonus, spinal cord lesions, and MS - Explanation: Baclofen is used to manage spasticity in these conditions.
99
Q
  1. Which muscle relaxant is an agonist for GABA B receptors? - A) Dantrolene - B) Diazepam - C) Baclofen - D) Carisoprodol
A
  1. C) Baclofen - Explanation: Baclofen is an agonist for GABA B receptors.
100
Q
  1. Which of the following is a potential side effect of Baclofen? - A) Increased heart rate - B) Drowsiness and confusion - C) Enhanced muscle strength - D) Liver damage
A
  1. B) Drowsiness and confusion - Explanation: Baclofen can cause side effects such as drowsiness and confusion.
101
Q
  1. Dantrolene acts as an antagonist to which receptor? - A) GABA B - B) Ryanodine receptor (RYR) - C) Dopamine receptor - D) Serotonin receptor
A
  1. B) Ryanodine receptor (RYR) - Explanation: Dantrolene acts as an antagonist to the Ryanodine receptor.
102
Q
  1. What is a serious potential side effect of oral Dantrolene use? - A) Respiratory muscle weakness - B) Increased appetite - C) Liver damage - D) Increased blood pressure
A
  1. C) Liver damage - Explanation: Oral Dantrolene can potentially cause liver damage.
103
Q
  1. Which type of muscle relaxant is typically prescribed for a maximum of three weeks due to insufficient evidence of long-term efficacy? - A) Baclofen - B) Diazepam - C) Carisoprodol - D) Dantrolene
A
  1. C) Carisoprodol - Explanation: Carisoprodol is prescribed for short-term use due to insufficient evidence of long-term efficacy.
104
Q
  1. Diazepam is commonly used to treat: - A) Mild muscle pain - B) Severe muscle spasms and spasticity associated with neurological disorders - C) Allergic skin reactions - D) Chronic fatigue syndrome
A
  1. B) Severe muscle spasms and spasticity associated with neurological disorders - Explanation: Diazepam is used for severe muscle spasms and related neurological conditions.
105
Q
  1. Which muscle relaxant may cause side effects such as drowsiness and fatigue? - A) Baclofen - B) Diazepam - C) Dantrolene - D) Carisoprodol
A
  1. B) Diazepam - Explanation: Diazepam can cause side effects such as drowsiness and fatigue.
106
Q
  1. What is the mechanism of action for Baclofen? - A) Directly acting on skeletal muscle to decrease calcium release - B) Acting as an agonist for GABA B receptors to inhibit reflex transmission in the spinal cord - C) Altering central nervous system conduction to decrease muscle spasms - D) Increasing potassium influx and decreasing calcium influx at nerve terminals
A
  1. B) Acting as an agonist for GABA B receptors to inhibit reflex transmission in the spinal cord - Explanation: Baclofen’s mechanism involves acting on GABA B receptors.
107
Q
  1. What type of muscle relaxant is Diazepam classified as? - A) Antispastic - B) Antispasmodic - Benzodiazepine - C) Antispasmodic - Nonbenzodiazepine - D) Calcium channel blocker
A
  1. B) Antispasmodic - Benzodiazepine - Explanation: Diazepam is classified as an antispasmodic under Benzodiazepines.
108
Q
  1. Carisoprodol is prescribed primarily for: - A) Chronic muscle conditions - B) Acute, painful muscle conditions - C) Long-term muscle spasticity management - D) Neurological disorders
A
  1. B) Acute, painful muscle conditions - Explanation: Carisoprodol is primarily prescribed for acute, painful muscle conditions.
109
Q
  1. Which drug class includes both Benzodiazepines and Nonbenzodiazepines? - A) Antispastics - B) Antispasmodics - C) Calcium channel blockers - D) Opioids
A
  1. B) Antispasmodics - Explanation: The antispasmodic class includes both Benzodiazepines and Nonbenzodiazepines.ases of fetal death in utero.

Pharma (6 decks)

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