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Pharma > تجربة 5 > Flashcards

تجربة 5 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1 Which of the following antibacterial drugs is primarily used to treat tuberculosis and prevent meningitis after exposure to N. meningitidis? a) Penicillin b) Rifampicin c) Tetracycline d) Sulfonamide

A
  1. b) Rifampicin - Explanation: Rifampicin is primarily used to treat tuberculosis and prevent meningitis after exposure to N. meningitidis.
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2
Q

Question 2 Which antibacterial drug class inhibits enzymes involved in the final steps of Gram-positive bacterial cell wall synthesis? a) Aminoglycosides b) Fluoroquinolones c) β-lactam drugs d) Sulfonamides

A
  1. c) β-lactam drugs - Explanation: β-lactam drugs irreversibly inhibit enzymes involved in the final steps of Gram-positive bacterial cell wall synthesis.
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3
Q

Question 3 What is a major disadvantage of using broad-spectrum antibiotics like Tetracycline? a) High cost b) Narrow range of effectiveness c) Disruption of normal flora d) Low therapeutic index

A
  1. c) Disruption of normal flora - Explanation: Broad-spectrum antibiotics can disrupt normal flora, potentially leading to the overgrowth of other pathogens.
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4
Q

Question 4 Which of the following drugs is contraindicated for children under the age of 8 due to its absorption by bones and teeth, causing dental enamel hypoplasia? a) Penicillin b) Rifampicin c) Tetracycline d) Sulfonamide

A
  1. c) Tetracycline - Explanation: Tetracyclines can cause hypoplasia of dental enamel and other dental disorders, making them unsuitable for children under 8 and during pregnancy.
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5
Q

Question 5 Which antibacterial drug class works by inhibiting the supercoiling of closed circular DNA? a) Aminoglycosides b) Fluoroquinolones c) β-lactam drugs d) Sulfonamides

A
  1. b) Fluoroquinolones - Explanation: Fluoroquinolones inhibit enzymes responsible for the supercoiling of DNA, affecting bacterial DNA replication.
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6
Q

Question 6 Sulfonamides act by mimicking which metabolite, leading to the inhibition of folic acid synthesis in bacteria? a) Glucose b) Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) c) Ribose d) Sucrose

A
  1. b) Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) - Explanation: Sulfonamides mimic PABA and inhibit the enzyme dihydropteroate synthase, preventing folic acid synthesis in bacteria.
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7
Q

Question 7 Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of an ideal antibacterial drug? a) High selective toxicity to pathogens b) High tendency for the development of resistance c) Rapid and extensive tissue distribution d) Free of interactions with other drugs

A
  1. b) High tendency for the development of resistance - Explanation: Ideal antibacterial drugs should have a low tendency for the development of resistance.
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8
Q

Question 8 What is the mechanism of action of aminoglycosides? a) Inhibition of cell wall synthesis b) Inhibition of DNA/RNA synthesis c) Inhibition of protein synthesis d) Inhibition of folic acid metabolism

A
  1. c) Inhibition of protein synthesis - Explanation: Aminoglycosides inhibit protein synthesis by binding to bacterial ribosomes.
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9
Q

Question 9 Which route of administration is not typically used for antibacterial drugs? a) Topical b) Oral c) Intramuscular d) Subcutaneous

A
  1. d) Subcutaneous - Explanation: Antibacterial drugs are typically administered topically, orally, intramuscularly, or intravenously, not subcutaneously.
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10
Q

Question 10 Why might combination therapy be used to treat bacterial infections? a) To reduce drug costs b) To enhance the activity of one drug with another (synergistic effect) c) To avoid allergic reactions d) To limit the range of organisms controlled

A
  1. b) To enhance the activity of one drug with another (synergistic effect) - Explanation: Combination therapy utilizes the synergistic effect to enhance the effectiveness of treatment.
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11
Q

Which of the following drugs is an anti-influenza medication that inhibits viral neuraminidase? A) Zidovudine B) Oseltamivir C) Acyclovir D) Lamivudine

A

B) Oseltamivir Explanation: Oseltamivir is an antiviral medication that inhibits the neuraminidase enzyme, preventing the release and spread of the influenza virus.

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12
Q

What is the primary use of antiretroviral drugs? A) Treating influenza B) Treating herpes simplex virus C) Treating hepatitis B and C D) Treating HIV/AIDS

A

D) Treating HIV/AIDS Explanation: Antiretroviral drugs are specifically used to treat HIV/AIDS by inhibiting various stages of the viral replication cycle.

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13
Q

Which drug is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV? A) Efavirenz B) Ritonavir C) Tenofovir D) Oseltamivir

A

C) Tenofovir Explanation: Tenofovir is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor (NRTI) used in the treatment of HIV by causing chain termination during reverse transcription.

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14
Q

Which of the following drugs is primarily used to treat hepatitis C and is classified as a direct-acting antiviral? A) Interferon alfa B) Ribavirin C) Sofosbuvir D) Lamivudine

A

C) Sofosbuvir Explanation: Sofosbuvir is a direct-acting antiviral drug used to treat hepatitis C by inhibiting the RNA polymerase NS5B.

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15
Q

What is a common side effect of protease inhibitors used in HIV treatment? A) Rash B) Insomnia C) Lipodystrophy D) Hair loss

A

C) Lipodystrophy Explanation: Protease inhibitors used in HIV treatment can cause lipodystrophy, which is a redistribution of body fat.

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16
Q

Acyclovir is used to treat which type of viral infection? A) Influenza B) HIV/AIDS C) Hepatitis C D) Herpes simplex virus

A

D) Herpes simplex virus Explanation: Acyclovir is an antiviral drug used to treat infections caused by the herpes simplex virus.

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17
Q

Which drug is contraindicated in patients with hypersensitivity to guanine analogues? A) Oseltamivir B) Acyclovir C) Lamivudine D) Sofosbuvir

A

B) Acyclovir Explanation: Acyclovir is contraindicated in patients with hypersensitivity to guanine analogues, as it is a guanine analogue itself.

18
Q

Which of the following statements about influenza treatment is correct? A) Anti-influenza drugs destroy the virus completely. B) Anti-influenza drugs inhibit the development of the virus. C) Anti-influenza drugs can be used interchangeably with antibiotics. D) Anti-influenza drugs are only effective for treating HIV.

A

B) Anti-influenza drugs inhibit the development of the virus. Explanation: Anti-influenza drugs do not destroy the virus but inhibit its development, making it difficult for the virus to multiply.

19
Q

Which enzyme is targeted by drugs such as raltegravir to prevent HIV integration into the host genome? A) Neuraminidase B) Reverse transcriptase C) Integrase D) Protease

A

C) Integrase Explanation: Drugs like raltegravir target the integrase enzyme, preventing HIV from integrating its genetic material into the host genome.

20
Q

Which hepatitis B treatment involves nucleoside/nucleotide analogues that inhibit viral polymerase? A) Acyclovir B) Tenofovir C) Oseltamivir D) Ribavirin

A

B) Tenofovir Explanation: Tenofovir is a nucleoside/nucleotide analogue that inhibits the hepatitis B virus polymerase, leading to chain termination and inhibition of viral DNA synthesis.

21
Q

Which of the following is a superficial fungal infection? A) Blastomycosis B) Coccidioidomycosis C) Tinea pedis D) Cryptococcosis

A

C) Tinea pedis Explanation: Tinea pedis (athlete’s foot) is a superficial fungal infection affecting the skin.

22
Q

What is the main sterol found in fungal cell membranes that antifungal drugs target? A) Cholesterol B) Ergosterol C) Lanosterol D) Squalene

A

B) Ergosterol Explanation: Ergosterol is the primary sterol in fungal cell membranes targeted by many antifungal drugs.

23
Q

Which antifungal drug is known for its nephrotoxic side effects and is used primarily for severe systemic infections? A) Nystatin B) Fluconazole C) Amphotericin B D) Terbinafine

A

C) Amphotericin B Explanation: Amphotericin B is known for its nephrotoxicity and is used for severe systemic fungal infections.

24
Q

Nystatin is most commonly used for treating: A) Systemic fungal infections B) Superficial Candida infections of the mouth, skin, and vagina C) Cryptococcosis D) Histoplasmosis

A

B) Superficial Candida infections of the mouth, skin, and vagina Explanation: Nystatin is used topically for superficial Candida infections due to its high toxicity when used systemically.

25
Q

The mechanism of action for azole antifungal agents includes: A) Binding to ergosterol and forming pores B) Inhibiting β-(1,3)-glucan synthase C) Inhibiting squalene epoxidase and cytochrome P450 enzyme D) Disrupting fungal DNA synthesis

A

C) Inhibiting squalene epoxidase and cytochrome P450 enzyme Explanation: Azole antifungals inhibit these enzymes, disrupting ergosterol synthesis and leading to fungal cell death.

26
Q

Echinocandins inhibit which enzyme to exert their antifungal effects? A) Squalene epoxidase B) Cytochrome P450 C) β-(1,3)-glucan synthase D) DNA polymerase

A

C) β-(1,3)-glucan synthase Explanation: Echinocandins inhibit β-(1,3)-glucan synthase, leading to weakened fungal cell walls and cell death.

27
Q

Which of the following is a notable advantage of echinocandins over other antifungal drugs? A) High potential for nephrotoxicity B) Low potential for toxicity or serious drug interactions C) Effective against superficial fungal infections D) Requires frequent dosing

A

B) Low potential for toxicity or serious drug interactions Explanation: Echinocandins have low toxicity and fewer drug interactions because β-(1,3)-glucan synthase is absent in human cells.

28
Q

Which enzyme is inhibited by allylamines to disrupt ergosterol biosynthesis? A) β-(1,3)-glucan synthase B) DNA polymerase C) Squalene epoxidase D) Lanosterol synthase

A

C) Squalene epoxidase Explanation: Allylamines inhibit squalene epoxidase, disrupting ergosterol biosynthesis and impairing fungal cell membrane integrity.

29
Q

Which of the following is an example of an azole antifungal drug? A) Terbinafine B) Caspofungin C) Ketoconazole D) Amphotericin B

A

C) Ketoconazole Explanation: Ketoconazole is an example of an azole antifungal drug that inhibits ergosterol biosynthesis.

30
Q

What is a major adverse effect associated with azole antifungal agents? A) Nephrotoxicity B) Hepatotoxicity C) Cardiotoxicity D) Pharmacokinetic drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes

A

D) Pharmacokinetic drug interactions due to inhibition of cytochrome P450 enzymes Explanation: Azoles inhibit cytochrome P450 enzymes, leading to numerous drug interactions.

31
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs is an alkylating agent? a) Methotrexate b) Doxorubicin c) Cyclophosphamide d) 5-Fluorouracil
A
  1. c) Cyclophosphamide Explanation: Cyclophosphamide is an alkylating agent, while the others belong to different classes.
32
Q
  1. What is the primary mechanism of action for antimetabolites like Methotrexate? a) Alkylating DNA strands b) Inhibiting DNA synthesis by mimicking folate c) Interfering with RNA transcription d) Inhibiting topoisomerase II
A
  1. b) Inhibiting DNA synthesis by mimicking folate Explanation: Methotrexate inhibits the enzyme dihydrofolate reductase, crucial for DNA synthesis.
33
Q
  1. Doxorubicin is classified as which type of antineoplastic drug? a) Antimetabolite b) Alkylating agent c) Antitumor antibiotic d) Vinca alkaloid
A
  1. c) Antitumor antibiotic Explanation: Doxorubicin is an antitumor antibiotic that interferes with DNA and RNA synthesis.
34
Q
  1. Which of the following drugs interferes with hormone balance? a) Paclitaxel b) Tamoxifen c) Dactinomycin d) Mercaptopurine
A
  1. b) Tamoxifen Explanation: Tamoxifen interferes with hormone balance, particularly estrogen.
35
Q
  1. A common short-term side effect of many antineoplastic drugs is: a) Nephrotoxicity b) Teratogenesis c) Myelosuppression d) Infertility
A
  1. c) Myelosuppression Explanation: Myelosuppression, or decreased bone marrow activity, is a common short-term side effect.
36
Q
  1. Long-term toxicity of chemotherapy may include all of the following EXCEPT: a) Carcinogenesis b) Gastrointestinal symptoms c) Teratogenesis d) Sterility
A
  1. b) Gastrointestinal symptoms Explanation: Gastrointestinal symptoms are short-term effects, not long-term toxicities.
37
Q
  1. Which adverse effect is specifically associated with Doxorubicin? a) Alopecia b) Nephrotoxicity c) Irreversible heart problems d) Myelosuppression
A
  1. c) Irreversible heart problems Explanation: Doxorubicin is known to cause irreversible cardiac issues, unlike the other options.
38
Q
  1. Methotrexate primarily targets which enzyme to exert its effects? a) DNA polymerase b) Topoisomerase II c) Dihydrofolate reductase d) RNA polymerase
A
  1. c) Dihydrofolate reductase Explanation: Methotrexate inhibits dihydrofolate reductase, affecting DNA synthesis.
39
Q
  1. Which drug is known for causing urine and tears to take on a red color as a side effect? a) Cyclophosphamide b) 5-Fluorouracil c) Doxorubicin d) Methotrexate
A
  1. c) Doxorubicin Explanation: Doxorubicin can cause a red discoloration in urine and tears.
40
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic mechanism of alkylating agents? a) Cross-linking DNA strands b) Inhibition of protein synthesis c) Impeding DNA and RNA replication d) Binding covalently to nucleophilic substances
A
  1. b) Inhibition of protein synthesis Explanation: Alkylating agents do not inhibit protein synthesis; they cross-link DNA strands.
41
Q
  1. What is a common mechanism through which tumors develop resistance to Methotrexate? a) Increased efflux of the drug from cells b) Increased concentration of the target enzyme c) Mutation in RNA polymerase d) Enhanced DNA repair mechanisms
A
  1. b) Increased concentration of the target enzyme Explanation: Tumor resistance to Methotrexate often involves increased levels of the target enzyme, dihydrofolate reductase.
42
Q
  1. Tamoxifen is contraindicated in patients with: a) History of thromboembolic disorders b) Diabetes mellitus c) Hypertension d) Asthma
A
  1. a) History of thromboembolic disorders Explanation: Tamoxifen is contraindicated in patients with a history of thromboembolic events due to increased risk.

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