Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Pharma > تجربة 1 > Flashcards

تجربة 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the name of the phase where the uterine lining becomes thicker in preparation for possible pregnancy?

A

Proliferative phase or follicular phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What hormone exerts negative feedback on LH and FSH production during the follicular phase?

A

Estrogen and inhibin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What triggers the mature follicle to rupture and release the egg into the fallopian tube?

A

Peak levels of LH around day 14.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What structure does the follicle develop into after ovulation?

A

Corpus luteum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What hormone does the corpus luteum predominantly produce after ovulation?

A

Progesterone.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the phase of the uterine cycle where the uterine lining thickens and becomes more vascular due to progesterone?

A

Secretory phase or luteal phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What event marks the end of the follicular phase and the beginning of the luteal phase?

A

Ovulation.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What causes the uterine lining to break down leading to menstrual bleeding if fertilization doesn’t occur?

A

Sudden decline in progesterone and estrogen levels.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do elevated levels of circulating estrogen, progesterone, and inhibin inhibit during the menstrual cycle?

A

Secretion of GNRH, FSH, and LH.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What are the two types of hormonal contraceptives?

A

Combined method (estrogen and progesterone) and progestin-only method (progestin).

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which form of hormonal contraceptives is most widely used?

A

Oral tablet or birth control pill.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the term for birth control pills that deliver synthetic forms of both estrogen and progesterone?

A

Combination or combined birth control pills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the term for birth control pills that contain synthetic progestin, a version of progesterone?

A

Progestin-only birth control pills.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What phase of the uterine cycle is known for secreting fluids necessary for embryo nutrition and closing off the uterine opening?

A

Secretory or luteal phase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the major sterol found in fungal plasma membrane?

A

Ergosterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is the function of ergosterol in fungal cells?

A

Maintain membrane integrity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What enzymes are responsible for fungal cell wall construction in the plasma membrane?

A

Multi-subunit enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

How do antifungal drugs targeting ergosterol work?

A

By binding to cholesterol in ergosterol and forming pores

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What is the major adverse effect of antifungal drugs causing membrane permeability?

A

Rapid leakage of intracellular ions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which antifungal drug is used only for severe systemic infections that require a rapid response?

A

Amphotericin B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Why is Nystatin not used systematically like Amphotericin B?

A

It is more toxic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the target of Ergosterol Biosynthesis Enzymes Inhibitors Antifungal Drugs?

A

Squalene epoxidase and P450 enzyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

How do squalene epoxidase and P450 enzyme inhibitors cause fungal cell death?

A

By depleting cell membrane ergosterol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the main advantage of Echinocandins antifungal drugs relative to others?

A

Low potential for toxicity or serious drug interaction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What is cancer characterized by uncontrolled cell division and ability to invade other tissues?

A

Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the term for the spread of cancer cells to other parts of the body?

A

Metastasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Which cancer type is related to tissues that line or cover internal organs?

A

Carcinoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Which cancer type affects bone, cartilage, muscle, etc.?

A

Sarcoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What type of cells are affected by Leukemia?

A

White blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the essential component of thyroid hormones?

A

Iodine (59% and 65%)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which protein primarily binds to circulating thyroid hormones?

A

Thyroxin-binding globulin (TBG)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which thyroid hormone is more potent in activity, T4, or T3?

A

T3 (T3 is four times more potent in activity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Where is T4 converted into T3 in the body?

A

In the tissues, especially in the liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

Which part of the gastrointestinal tract absorbs T4 best?

A

Duodenum and ileum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What factor can modify the absorption of T4?

A

Intraluminal factors such as food, drugs, gastric acidity, and intestinal flora

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

How much of T3 is almost completely absorbed?

A

95%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

What happens to metabolic clearances of T4 and T3 in hyperthyroidism?

A

They are increased, and the half-lives are decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What effects do thyroid hormones have on growth and development?

A

Critical for developing nervous, skeletal, and reproductive tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

How do thyroid hormones affect the metabolism of carbohydrates, fats, and proteins?

A

They produce a general increase in metabolism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Which organs are unresponsive to the calorigenic effects of thyroid hormone?

A

Brain, gonads, and spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

How is hypothyroidism diagnosed?

A

By elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the treatment for hypothyroidism?

A

Administering thyroid hormones as replacement therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is used to treat drug-induced hypothyroidism?

A

Simply removing the depressant agent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Name two thyroid preparations used in replacement therapy.

A

Levothyroxine (T4) and Liothyronine (T3)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What adverse effects are associated with chronic overtreatment with T4?

A

Increased risk of atrial fibrillation and accelerated osteoporosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the primary drugs used to decrease thyroid hormone production?

A

Thionamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is the goal of treatment in inhibiting thyroid hormone synthesis?

A

Inhibit hormone synthesis and block its release from the follicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

How do thionamides affect thyroid hormone synthesis?

A

They inhibit organification of iodine and coupling of iodotyrosines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What is a potential adverse effect of thionamides?

A

Agranulocytosis (rare)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What category of drugs are primarily used to decrease thyroid hormone production?

A

Thionamides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

How should tetracycline be taken in relation to antacids, calcium supplements, and magnesium-containing laxatives?

A

One hour before or two hours after.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What is the role of folate in DNA and RNA synthesis?

A

Folate is required for the synthesis of DNA and RNA precursors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

How do sulfonamides inhibit folic acid metabolism?

A

Sulfonamides act as competitive inhibitors by mimicking PABA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

What is the target enzyme of sulfonamides in folic acid synthesis?

A

Dihydropteroate synthase.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is the host range of a virus?

A

The spectrum of host cells in which a virus can multiply.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

Explain the attachment and penetration stage in the virus life cycle.

A

Virus attaches to a host cell and injects genetic material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What happens during the replication stage of the virus life cycle?

A

Viral DNA or RNA incorporates into the host cell’s genetic material.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Describe the release stage in the virus life cycle.

A

Host cell releases newly created viruses.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

How do anti-viral drugs differ from most antibiotics?

A

Anti-viral drugs inhibit virus development, not destroy pathogens.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What makes designing safe and effective anti-viral drugs difficult?

A

Viruses use host cells to replicate.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Name some categories of anti-viral drugs.

A

Anti-Influenza, Anti-HIV, Anti-Hepatitis, Anti-Herpes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

What viral proteins are translated from pregenomic RNAs in hepatitis B virus?

A

Core and polymerase proteins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

How is the negative DNA strand of the viral genome generated in hepatitis B virus?

A

Through reverse transcription using RNA as a template.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What are the functions of nucleoside and nucleotide analogues in hepatitis B virus treatment?

A

Inhibit multiple functions of the virus polymerase by competing with natural substrates.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

How does hepatitis C virus enter hepatocytes?

A

Via receptor-mediated endocytosis.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What viral RNA is used as a template for polyprotein synthesis in hepatitis C virus?

A

Positive single-stranded viral RNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

What enzymes process the viral polyprotein to generate mature proteins in hepatitis C virus?

A

Proteases like NS3-4A serine protease.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What role does NS5A play in hepatitis C viral replication?

A

Regulates the replication of viral RNA.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What does the RNA-dependent RNA polymerase NS5B do in hepatitis C virus?

A

Produces negative-sense RNA intermediates for replication.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

How is the newly replicated viral RNA released from infected cells in hepatitis C virus?

A

Released by exocytosis after being encased between membranes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What is the mechanism of action of anti-Herpes drugs on DNA polymerase?

A

Compete with natural nucleotides or lead to chain termination.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Name two types of deep/systemic fungal infections affecting internal organs.

A

Blastomyces and Coccidiodes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the components of the fungal cell wall that act as a protective barrier?

A

Mannoproteins and complex polysaccharides like glucans and chitin.

74
Q

What is the main action of Folic acid analogues?

A

Interfere with thymidylate synthesis essential for DNA synthesis and cell division.

75
Q

How does Methotrexate work in the body?

A

Prevents the formation of tetrahydrofolate (FH4), essential for purine synthesis.

76
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Alkylating Agents in chemotherapy?

A

They covalently bind to nucleophilic substances, impeding DNA and RNA replication.

77
Q

What are the characteristics of cancer cells?

A

Persistent cell proliferation, invasive growth, metastases.

78
Q

Define Benign tumors in cancer.

A

Noncancerous, not an immediate threat to life, may require treatment eventually.

79
Q

Explain the toxicity of Antineoplastic Drugs in the short-term.

A

Includes common side reactions in rapid proliferating tissues like marrow, GI tract, and alopecia.

80
Q

Name 3 types of central nervous system cancers.

A

Cancers that begin in the tissues of the brain and spinal cord.

81
Q

What is the difference between Benign and Malignant tumors?

A

Benign is noncancerous, while Malignant tends to worsen, invade, and metastasize.

82
Q

What is the main function of Myeloma cells in the body?

A

B-cells producing antibodies and spreads through the lymphatic system.

83
Q

How do most antineoplastic drugs act on cancer cells?

A

By targeting the proliferating cycle of cells through various mechanisms.

84
Q

Explain the long-term toxicity of Antineoplastic Drugs.

A

May lead to carcinogenesis, teratogenesis, and sterility in patients.

85
Q

What is danazol primarily used for?

A

To treat certain types of breast cancer, dysfunctional uterine bleeding, and endometriosis.

86
Q

What are the adverse effects of danazol?

A

Edema, hypertension, acne, increased oiliness of skin and hair, increased libido in males, deepening of voice, and menstrual irregularities in females.

87
Q

How do antiandrogens work?

A

By antagonizing the androgen receptor and inhibiting the secretion of LH, FSH, and testosterone.

88
Q

What are the clinical uses of estrogen replacement therapy?

A

Postmenopausal syndrome, hypogonadism, menstrual disorders, contraceptive, and advanced prostate cancer.

89
Q

What is the role of estrogen in the body?

A

Responsible for the development of female genital tract, secondary sex characteristics, uterine endometrium, ovulation, and other functions.

90
Q

What does progesterone do in the body?

A

Converts the uterine epithelium from proliferative to secretory phase, induces thermoregulation, and antagonizes aldosterone.

91
Q

What are the clinical uses of synthetic progestin?

A

Treating menstrual disorders, cancers like endometrial and prostatic cancer, and as a contraceptive.

92
Q

Describe the menstrual cycle feedback system.

A

Involves the hypothalamus, pituitary, ovary, and uterus in a complex feedback system regulating ovulation and menstrual cycle.

93
Q

What is the normal length of the average menstrual cycle?

A

28 days, but it can vary between individuals and from one cycle to the next.

94
Q

Explain the events that occur in the first week of the menstrual cycle.

A

Elevated levels of FSH and LH, followed by rising estrogen levels.

95
Q

What does estrogen primarily do in the early stages of the menstrual cycle?

A

Causes the proliferation of the uterine lining (endometrium).

96
Q

What is the role of viral neuraminidase in influenza virus replication?

A

It cleaves and removes sialic acid receptors from the cell surface for virus release.

97
Q

How do approved drugs for influenza virus target viral gene transcription?

A

They selectively inhibit cap-dependent endonuclease, preventing viral mRNA synthesis.

98
Q

Describe the composition of Human Immunodeficiency Virus (HIV).

A

It consists of an envelope, viral matrix, and core encasing RNA, reverse transcription, and integrase enzymes.

99
Q

How does HIV infection initiate in CD4+ T lymphocytes?

A

It starts with binding of gp120 to CD4 receptor followed by binding to human co-receptor CCR5 or CXCR4.

100
Q

What is the role of reverse transcriptase in HIV replication?

A

It converts the virus RNA into double-stranded DNA in the host cell cytoplasm.

101
Q

Explain the function of HIV integrase in the replication process.

A

It transports viral DNA into the nucleus and inserts it into the host cell’s DNA.

102
Q

How are new HIV viruses formed within the host cell?

A

Structural proteins and replication enzymes assemble with viral genomic RNA, then bud off the host cell.

103
Q

How do Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors work against HIV?

A

They competitively inhibit reverse transcription by acting as structural analogues of nucleic acids.

104
Q

Describe the mechanism of action of HIV protease inhibitors.

A

They prevent cleavage of viral polyproteins, necessary for assembling new viral particles.

105
Q

How do Non-Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors act against HIV?

A

They bind and denature reverse transcriptase enzyme, preventing competitive inhibition.

106
Q

Which receptor does Hepatitis B virus bind to on hepatocytes?

A

It binds to the receptor named Na taurocholate co-transporting polypeptide (NTCP).

107
Q

What is the primary difference between Hepatitis B and Hepatitis C viruses?

A

Hepatitis B virus uncoats at the nuclear membrane releasing circular DNA, whereas Hepatitis C virus’s details are not described.

108
Q

Name two examples of Gram-negative bacteria.

A

E. coli, Salmonella

109
Q

Name two examples of Gram-positive bacteria.

A

Staphylococci, Listeria

110
Q

What are the features of antibacterial drugs related to host toxicity?

A

Highly selective toxicity, low toxicity to host, high therapeutic index

111
Q

What is the advantage of using bactericidal drugs?

A

Useful when host defenses can’t control the pathogen

112
Q

What is the difference between bacteriostatic and bactericidal drugs?

A

Bacteriostatic drugs rely on host immunity; bactericidal kill bacteria.

113
Q

What is the spectrum of activity for narrow-spectrum antibacterial drugs?

A

Work on Gram-positive or Gram-negative only

114
Q

Why is the use of broad-spectrum antibacterial drugs disadvantageous?

A

Disruption of normal flora

115
Q

List two mechanisms of action for antibacterial drugs.

A

Inhibition of cell wall synthesis, inhibition of DNA/RNA synthesis

116
Q

What is the action of b-lactam drugs like penicillins and cephalosporins?

A

Inhibit enzymes involved in final steps of Gram-positive cell wall synthesis

117
Q

What enzymes does fluoroquinolones inhibit for DNA synthesis?

A

Enzymes maintaining supercoiling of closed circular DNA

118
Q

Which drug class reversibly binds to 30S subunit for protein synthesis inhibition?

A

Tetracyclines

119
Q

Why are tetracyclines regarded as bacteriostatic?

A

Effective against certain Gram-positive and negative bacteria but not bactericidal

120
Q

What is the active ingredient of Castor oil?

A

Ricinoleic acid

121
Q

What type of laxative acts as a large bowel irritant?

A

Anthraquinones

122
Q

Which antidiarrheal drug has a selective action only on the GI tract?

A

Loperamide

123
Q

What is the main cause of death in children due to diarrhea?

A

Excessive loss of water and minerals

124
Q

What type of drugs are categorized as diuretics?

A

Most used to increase urine excretion

125
Q

What is the main action of Thiazides and related diuretics?

A

Reduce the circulating fluid volume

126
Q

In which condition are bladder anti-spasmodics like Oxytrol used?

A

Overactive bladder (OAB)

127
Q

What is the purpose of using Phenazopyridine as a urinary analgesic?

A

To reduce burning, pain, discomfort, and urgency associated with cystitis

128
Q

How do uricosuric agents like Probenecid act in the treatment of gout?

A

By blocking reabsorption in the kidneys

129
Q

What is the first-line therapy for treating benign prostatic hyperplasia?

A

Alpha-Blockers like Tamsulosin

130
Q

What is the main role of FH4 in the cell?

A

FH4 transfers methyl groups essential for DNA synthesis, RNA, and proteins.

131
Q

How is antitumor antibiotic Doxorubicin’s mechanism of action described?

A

Inserts between base pairs to block DNA and RNA synthesis; inhibits topoisomerase II.

132
Q

What are the common adverse effects of Doxorubicin?

A

Irreversible heart problems, myelosuppression, hypersensitivity, nausea, red urine.

133
Q

Explain the role of Gonadotropins in the body.

A

Stimulate gonads to secrete sex hormones, induce ovulation and sperm production.

134
Q

What are the main categories of hormones that regulate the reproductive system?

A

Gonadotropins, Androgens, Estrogens, Progestins.

135
Q

How is testosterone absorption affected in the body?

A

Testosterone is absorbed poorly from the GI tract and extensively metabolized in the liver.

136
Q

What is the clinical use of synthetic androgens like testosterone?

A

Replacement therapy for insufficient endogenous production, available in parenteral and transdermal forms.

137
Q

What type of feedback loop is more common in regulating the endocrine system?

A

Negative feedback loops are more common.

138
Q

How are hormones transported in the endocrine system?

A

Hormones are transported in the blood.

139
Q

What are the two types of feedback loops involved in regulating the endocrine system?

A

Negative feedback loops and positive feedback loops.

140
Q

What glands secrete chemical messengers called hormones into the blood?

A

Ductless glands secrete hormones.

141
Q

What controls the endocrine system through a feedback mechanism?

A

The hypothalamus, pituitary gland, and other endocrine glands.

142
Q

What is the purpose of negative feedback loops in the endocrine system?

A

Negative feedback reverses changes in the controlled condition.

143
Q

When do positive feedback loops occur in the endocrine system?

A

Positive feedback loops occur when hormone levels continue to rise in response to stimuli.

144
Q

What are the potential consequences of disorders in the endocrine system and metabolism if left untreated?

A

Serious effects, and in some cases may be fatal.

145
Q

How can drug treatments help individuals with disorders related to the endocrine system?

A

Control symptoms and restore normal health.

146
Q

What hormone is involved in the improvement of cardiovascular functions during septic shock?

A

Adrenal corticosteroids.

147
Q

What are the main drugs for diabetes mellitus?

A

Insulin and anti-diabetic drugs

148
Q

How are insulin injections administered?

A

Parenterally, because insulin is destroyed in the GI tract

149
Q

What is the role of insulin in the body?

A

Insulin helps regulate blood glucose levels

150
Q

What is lipohypertrophy?

A

Localized fat accumulation due to insulin injections

151
Q

What is the onset time of rapid-acting insulin?

A

Within 15 minutes

152
Q

What is the peak action time of short-acting insulin?

A

2 to 3 hours

153
Q

What are the side effects of long-acting insulin?

A

Hypoglycemia, swelling in arms and legs, ocular disturbance

154
Q

What is the mechanism of action of sulfonylureas?

A

Stimulate insulin release from pancreatic beta cells

155
Q

What are the side effects of biguanides like metformin?

A

Gastrointestinal symptoms, lactic acidosis

156
Q

How do thiazolidinediones (Glitazones) work?

A

Enhance insulin sensitivity in peripheral tissues

157
Q

What is the mechanism of action of a-glucosidase inhibitors?

A

Delay carbohydrate absorption in the gut

158
Q

What do DPP-4 inhibitors (Gliptins) do?

A

Enhance incretin hormones, increase insulin release

159
Q

How do GLT2 inhibitors work in diabetes treatment?

A

Block renal glucose reabsorption, increase urinary glucose excretion

160
Q

What is the purpose of the last 7 days of placebo pills in combination birth control?

A

To allow estrogen and progestin levels to fall, triggering withdrawal bleeding.

161
Q

How do multiphasic birth control pills differ from monophasic pills?

A

Multiphasic pills deliver varying hormone levels to mimic natural fluctuations.

162
Q

What is the mechanism of action of progestin-only birth control pills?

A

They thicken cervical mucus and cause endometrial atrophy.

163
Q

How can extended-cycle contraceptive regimens eliminate menstrual periods?

A

By continuously taking combined estrogen-progestin pills beyond the initial 3 weeks.

164
Q

Why are progestin-only pills beneficial for women with contraindications to estrogen?

A

They provide contraception without the use of exogenous estrogen.

165
Q

What is the role of LH and FSH suppression in combined estrogen-progestin birth control?

A

Suppressing LH and FSH inhibits ovulation.

166
Q

How do anti-estrogens like tamoxifen function in the body?

A

They decrease estrogen levels or block estrogen receptors.

167
Q

What is the primary clinical use of anti-progesterone medications?

A

They are used for labor induction, emergency contraception, and Cushing syndrome.

168
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Clomid (clomiphene) in fertility treatment?

A

It inhibits estrogen feedback, stimulating FSH and LH release for ovulation.

169
Q

What are the adverse effects associated with the use of Oxytocin for labor?

A

Adverse effects include postpartum hemorrhage and fetal hypoxia.

170
Q

What are the typical side effects of antacids containing magnesium hydroxide?

A

Diarrhea

171
Q

Which drug category irreversibly inhibits the H+/K+-ATPase in gastric parietal cells?

A

Proton pump inhibitors

172
Q

How do antacids work in the stomach?

A

Neutralize acid, raising gastric pH

173
Q

What is the function of mucus production in the gastrointestinal tract?

A

Creates a protective barrier maintaining pH balance

174
Q

Which drug class is used for symptomatic relief in peptic ulcers?

A

Antacids

175
Q

What is the role of histamine H2 receptor blockers in the treatment of peptic ulcers?

A

Inhibit acid production

176
Q

How do proton pump inhibitors affect acid production in the stomach?

A

Irreversibly inhibit acid pumps

177
Q

What is the primary effect of bulk laxatives in the intestine?

A

Increase bowel content volume

178
Q

Which laxative class triggers peristalsis by causing reflex contractions?

A

Bulk laxatives

179
Q

Which drug category is used to prevent and treat stomach ulcers by stimulating mucus and bicarbonate production?

A

Mucosal protective agents

180
Q

What are the uses of PGF2a analogue?

A

Induction of labor and Abortion (combined with anti-progestrone)

181
Q

List some adverse effects of PGF2a analogue.

A

Nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, bronchospasm, hypotension

Pharma (6 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions