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Anatomy & Physiology 2 > Final :O !!! > Flashcards

Final :O !!! Flashcards

0
Q

Where does the conjugation of bilirubin occur?

A

The liver

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1
Q

The compound stercobilin would be found in the:

A

The intestines

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2
Q

Where is the compound biliverdin formed?

A

The spleen

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3
Q

Where is bile stored

A

The gallbladder

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4
Q

A hemoglobin molecule is composed of :

A

Four protein chains and four heme groups

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5
Q

The stem cells that give rise to all the formed elements are

A

Hemocytoblasts

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6
Q

Which of the following is NOT a component of plasma

A

Platelets

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7
Q

Platelets are

A

Fragments of large megakaryocyte cells

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8
Q

______ are immature erythrocytes that are sometimes found in peripheral blood samples

A

Reticulocytes

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9
Q

The average lifespan of a red blood cell is

A

4 months

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10
Q

Red blood cell production is regulated by the hormone:

A

Erythropoietin

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11
Q

If a person has a low blood volume, they are said to be:

A

Hypovolemic

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12
Q

The term used to describe an abnormally large red blood cell is:

A

Macrocytic

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13
Q

Blood is composed of all of the following except

1) plasma
2) formed elements
3) blood cells
4) cell fragments
5) interstitial fluid

A

5) interstitial fluid

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14
Q

The formed elements of the blood include

A

Blood cells

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15
Q

Functions of the blood include all of the following except

1) transport of nutrients and waste
2) generation of body heat
3) restrictions of fluid loss
4) body defense
5) regulation of pH and electrolyte concentration of interstitial fluids

A

2) generation of body heat

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16
Q

The chief difference between plasma and interstitial fluid involves the

A

Concentration of dissolved oxygen and proteins

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17
Q

The most abundant proteins in blood plasma are

A

Albumins

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18
Q

Over 95% of the protein in a red blood cell is

A

Hemoglobin

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19
Q

The primary function of red blood cells is to

A

Carry oxygen from the lungs to the body’s cells

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20
Q

Uric acid

A

Nucleic acids

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21
Q

Creatine

A

Muscle decomposition

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22
Q

Urobilinogen

A

Hemoglobin

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23
Q

Urea

A

Nitrogen compounds

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24
Q

______ is a condition in which the oxygen carrying capacity of the blood is reduced

A

Anemia

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25
Q

All the circulating red blood cells originate in the

A

Red bone marrow

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26
Q

Which of the following vitamins is needed for the formation of clotting factors?

A

Vitamin K

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27
Q

An elevated neutrophil count is usually indicative of

A

A bacterial infection

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28
Q

Aged and damaged erythrocytes are broken down by the

A

Spleen

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29
Q

Most of the iron that is removed from degraded hemoglobin is

A

Recycled to the bone marrow

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30
Q

The process of red blood cell production is called

A

Erythropoiesis

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31
Q

The porphyrn ring of heme contains an atom of

A

Iron

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32
Q

Excess iron is stored in the liver and bone marrow in

A

Hemosiderin

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33
Q

Which of the following would you expect to see in elevated numbers in a peripheral blood sample after donating a pint of blood to the Red Cross?

A

Reticulocytes

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34
Q

A person with type A blood

A

Will have a transfusion reaction if given type B blood

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35
Q

Rh negative mothers who receive a RhoGAM injection are given that injection

A

To prevent the mother from producing Rh antibodies

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36
Q

White blood cells that release histamine at the site of an injury are

A

Basophils

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37
Q

_____ are large phagocytic white cells that spend most of their time outside of the blood as fixed and free phagocytic cells

A

Monocytes

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38
Q

The white blood cells that are important in producing antibodies are

A

Lymphocytes

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39
Q

White blood cells that increase in number during an allergic reaction or in response to parasitic infections are

A

Eosinophils

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40
Q

Universal donor

A

O-

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41
Q

Universal recipient

A

AB+

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42
Q

Rh factor

A

D antigen

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43
Q

Antibodies

A

Immunoglobulins

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44
Q

The most abundant component of plasma is

A

Water

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45
Q

A plasma protein essential for blood coagulation is

A

Fibrinogen

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46
Q

The extrinsic pathway of coagulation is initiated by the

A

Release of tissue factor by damaged endothelium

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47
Q

The intrinsic pathway of coagulation is activated by

A

Sticking of platelets to damaged tissue

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48
Q

The common pathway of coagulation begins with the

A

Conversion of factor X to prothrombinase

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49
Q

Hemolytic disease of the newborn may result if

A

An Rh negative mother carries an Rh positive fetus

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50
Q

Which of the following statements about blood is false

A

Cells in blood comprise the formed elements

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51
Q

The total volume of blood in the body of a 76 kg man is approximately ______ liters

A

5.3

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52
Q

Branches off the aortic arch include

A

The left subclavian artery

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53
Q

Capillaries with an incomplete lining are called

A

Fenestrated capillaries

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54
Q

Which of these structures carry blood to the right atrium

A

Coronary sinus

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55
Q

Branches of the thoracic aorta include all of the following except the _____ arteries

A

Gastric

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56
Q

The first blood vessels to branch from the aorta are the _____ arteries

A

Carotid

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57
Q

The cardiac output is equal to

A

The product of heart rate and stroke volume

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58
Q

The blood supply to the luna include

A

1) the bronchial artistes

2) the pulmonary artery

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59
Q

The artery on the thumb side of the wrist is

A

Radial artery

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60
Q

The artery on the pinky side of the wrist is

A

Ulnar artery

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61
Q

The terminal branch of the internal carotid artery is

A

The vertebral artery

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62
Q

Pulmonary arteries carry blood to the

A

Lungs

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63
Q

Pulmonary veins carry blood to the

A

Left atrium

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64
Q

In which of the following blood vessels would elastic fibers be present in the greatest amounts

A

Large arteries

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65
Q

Which tunic contains most of the smooth muscle in a blood vessel?

A

Tunica media

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66
Q

The two vertebral arteries fuse to form a large artery the

A

Circle of Willis

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67
Q

After blood leaves the capillaries it enters the

A

Venules

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68
Q

Which of the following layers of a vessel contains collagen fibers with scattered bands of elastic fibers?

A

Tunica externa

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69
Q

Each of the following artistes contributes to the circle of Willis expect one. Identify the exception

A

Basilar artery

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70
Q

A branch of the aorta that supplies the liver, stomach and spleen is the

A

Celiac trunk

71
Q

Given the following blood vessels chose the arrangement that lists blood vessels in the order an erythrocyte passes through them as it leaves the heart travels to tissue and returns to the heart

A

1) elastic artery
2) muscular artery
3) arteriolar
4) capillary
5) Venule
6) vein

72
Q

Comparing and contrasting arteries and veins, veins have ____, arteries do not

A

Valves

73
Q

Which vessels carry oxygen rich blood?

A

Inferior vena cava & pulmonary veins

74
Q

Choose the arrangement that lists the vessels in order going from the aorta to the right hand:

A

1) Brachiocephalic artery
2) subclavian artery
3) axillary artery
4) brachial artery
5) radial artery

75
Q

The pacemaker cells of the heart are located in the

A

SA node

76
Q

As blood travels from the aorta toward the capillaries the

A

Diameter of the blood vessels increase

77
Q

The visceral pericardium is the same as the

A

Epicardium

78
Q

Baroreceptors that function in the regulation of blood pressure are located in the

A

Common iliac artery

79
Q

During isovplumetric phase of ventricular systole the atrioventricular valves and semilunar valves are

A

Closed

80
Q

The number of action potentials per minute spontaneously generated by the AV node

A

Greatest action potential

81
Q

The bicuspid or mitral valve is located

A

Between the left atrium and left ventricle

82
Q

The entrance to the ascending aorta is guarded by the ____ valve

A

Semilunar

83
Q

The marginal branch and posterior interventricular branch are branches of the

A

Left coronary artery

84
Q

The circumflex branch and the anterior descending artery are branches of the

A

Right coronary artery

85
Q

The atrioventricular valve that is located on the side of the heart that receives the superior vena cava is the _______ valve

A

Pulmonary semilunar

86
Q

Blood leaving the right ventricle enters the

A

Pulmonary trunk

87
Q

Depolarization of the ventricle is represented on an electrocardiogram by the

A

QRS complex

88
Q

The period of ventricular filling will correspond to

A

Ventricular systole

89
Q

The plateau phase of the cardiac muscle action potential is due to

A

The calcium channels remaining open longer than the sodium channels

90
Q

The sequence of an action potential would move through this system

A

1) AV node
2) AV bundle
3) SA node
4) bundle branches
5) purkinje cells

91
Q

The T wave on an ECG tracing represents

A

Ventricular re polarization

92
Q

Correct order for the flow of blood entering from systemic circulation

A

1) vena cava
2) right atrium
3) right ventricle
4) pulmonary veins
5) pulmonary trunk
6) left atrium
7) left ventricle
8) aorta

93
Q

The cuspid valves open when

A

The ventricular pressure exceeds the atrial pressure

94
Q

The semilunar valves close when

A

Ventricular filling begins

95
Q

The resistance that must be overcome for blood ejection

A

After load

96
Q

The stretch before contraction

A

Preload

97
Q

The actual muscular action

A

Contractility

98
Q

Action potentials pass from one cardiac muscle cell to another

A

Through gap junctions

99
Q

During the transmission of action potentials through the conducting system of the heart there is a temporary delay at the

A

Purkinje fibers

100
Q

The breakdown of glucose to two pyruvic acid molecules

  • requires the I out of two ATP molecules
  • produces two NADH molecules
  • does not require oxygen
A

Glycolysis

101
Q

Anaerobic respiration occurs in the _______ of oxygen and produces ______ energy for the cell than aerobic respiration

A

Absence; less

102
Q

The portion of the digestive tract which digestion begins

A

Oral cavity

103
Q

During deglutition

A

The swallowing center in the medulla oblongata is activated

104
Q

The stomach

A

Has large folds in the submucosa and mucosa called rugae

105
Q

Surface mucous cells

A

Produce mucus

106
Q

Parietal cells

A

Produce hydrochloric acid

107
Q

Endocrine cells

A

Produce regulatory hormones

108
Q

Creates the acid condition necessary for pepsin to work

A

HCl

109
Q

What hormone stimulates stomach secretion

A

Gastrin

110
Q

Which structures release digestive enzymes in the small intestine?

A

Absorptive cells

111
Q

Receives blood from the hepatic artery and hepatic portal vein
-empties into the central veins

A

Hepatic sinusoids

112
Q

The aqueous component of pancreatic secretions

A

Contains bicarbonate ions

113
Q

A molecule that moves electrons from the Citrix acid cycle to the electron transport chain is:

A

NADH

114
Q

The production of ATP molecules by the electron transport chain is accompanied by the synthesis of

A

Water

115
Q

The carbon dioxide you breathe out comes from

A

The food you eat

116
Q

Stored primarily as triglycerides

A

Lipids

117
Q

Converted into urea in the liver

A

Ammonia

118
Q

The conversion of amino acids and glycerol into glucose is called:

A

Gluconeogenesis

119
Q

What takes place during the absorptive state?

A

Glucose is converted into days

120
Q

Defense of the body against a particular bacteria or virus is provided by

A

Nonspecific immunity

121
Q

The effects of activating the complement system include

A

Destruction of target cell membranes
Stimulation of inflammation
Attracting phagocytes to a given area
Opsonization

122
Q

The classic pathway of complement fixation occurs when

A

Cl binds to an antibody attached to an antigen

123
Q

The superior sagittal sinus collects blood from the

A

Brain

124
Q

The vessel that receives blood from the head, neck, chest, shoulders and arms is the

A

Superior vena cava

125
Q

The fusion of the Brachiocephalic veins forms the

A

Superior vena cava

126
Q

The two common iliac veins form the

A

Inferior vena cava

127
Q

Nutrients from the digestive tract enter the

A

Hepatic portal vein

128
Q

Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the

A

Thoracic duct

129
Q

The thoracic duct drains lymph from the

A
  • left side of the head
  • left side of the thorax
  • left arm and shoulder
  • body regions below the diaphragm
130
Q

Lies behind the sternum in the anterior mediastinum

  • reaches it’s greatest size relative to body size during the first to second year of life
  • undergoes involution after puberty
  • produces T cells
A

Thymus gland

131
Q

Class 2 molecules are found only attached to which of the following?

A

Lymphocytes and macrophages

132
Q

The major histocompatibility complex is a:

A

Group of genes that codes for human leukocyte antigens

133
Q

C5-C9 is the complement cascade functions as:

A

Killing structure

134
Q

The respiratory membrane consists primarily of

A

Simple squamous epithelium

135
Q

A decrease in which population of lymphocytes would impair all aspects of an immune response?

A

Helper T cells

136
Q

Properidin factors B & D

A

Activated when there is no prior exposure

137
Q

Alternate pathway

A

Properidin factors B & D

138
Q

C1 binding to antibody

A

Classical pathway

139
Q

C3B

A

Opsonization

140
Q

Associated with the hilus

A

Efferent vessels

141
Q

Enters the capsule

A

Afferent vessels & arterioles/venules

142
Q

An inflammatory response is triggered when

A

Mast cells release histamine, serotonin & heparin

143
Q

The release of interleukin 1 by active macrophages would

A

Produce a fever

144
Q

Immunity that is genetically determined and is parent at birth

A

Innate immunity

145
Q

Immunity that results from the natural exposure to an antigen in the environment is called

A

Active immunity

146
Q

Immunity that results from antibodies that pass the placenta from mother to fetus is called

A

Natural passive immunity

147
Q

In active immunization:

A

The body is deliberately exposed to an antigen

148
Q

The specificity of an antibody is determined by the

A

Variable region

149
Q

Trachea

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar with goblet cells

150
Q

Oropharynx

A

Stratified squamous epithelium

151
Q

Nasal mucosa

A

Pseudo stratified ciliated columnar with goblet cells

152
Q

Respiratory bronchioles

A

Simple squamous epithelium

153
Q

The superficial veins of the forearm drain into the

A

Cephalic & basilic veins

154
Q

The largest collection of lymphatic tissue in the adult body is located in the

A

Spleen

155
Q

Drives O2 delivery on the arteriolar side of the capillary

A

Blood hydrostatic pressure

156
Q

Drives CO2 pickup on the venule side of the capillary

A

Blood colloid osmotic pressure

157
Q

Tends to have limited contribution to gas exchange in normal individuals

A

Tissue hydrostatic pressure

158
Q

The cells responsible for the production of circulating antibodies are

A

Plasma cells

159
Q

Lymphocytes that attack foreign cells or body cells infected with viruses are ____ cells

A

Cytotoxic T

160
Q

Stem cells that will form T cells are modified in the

A

Thymus

161
Q

The medullary cords of a lymph node contain _____ cells

A

B

162
Q

What is not a physical barrier to infection

A

Complement

163
Q

Right leg

A

Thoracic duct

164
Q

Abdomen

A

Thoracic duct

165
Q

Right arm

A

Right thoracic duct

166
Q

Left arm

A

Thoracic duct

167
Q

Macrophage

A

Phagocytosis

168
Q

T cytotoxic

A

Chemical dumping

169
Q

T - NK

A

Chemical dumping

170
Q

In order for a lymphocyte to respond to an antigen the antigen must

A

Bind to a specific receptors on the lymphocyte membrane

171
Q

Immunoglobulins that attacks to mast cells and basophils and are involved in allergic reactions

A

IgE

172
Q

The portal vein is formed from

A

The superior mesenteric and splenic veins

173
Q

Superficial veins in the arm include

A

The basilic and Cephalic veins

174
Q

Immunoglobulins that are composed of five single molecules joined together and are the first antibodies to be produced in response to infection

A

IgM

175
Q

Immunoglobulins that are primarily found in glandular secretions

A

IgA

176
Q

The only antibodies that normally cross the placenta are

A

IgG

Anatomy & Physiology 2 (5 decks)

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