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RUSVM LAM I > Final: Neuro > Flashcards

Final: Neuro Flashcards

1
Q

What distinguishes a pathologic nystagmus from normal nystagmus?

A

Pathologic if occurs in absence of head movement

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2
Q

How do we assess smell in horses?

A

If they are eating they can smell

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3
Q

What is the best way to assess vision?

A

Obstacle course/ Maze

Can blindfold one eye and then the other if suspect unilateral vision problems

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4
Q

Which nerves are most commonly affected when there are vision problems? Of these which is most comon?

A

V, VII, VIII

VII (Because it is superficially located)

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5
Q

What nerve is affected if the masseter is atrophied? What does it mean if the jaw is dropped?

A

CN V

Bilateral nerve damage

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6
Q

What horse-specific signs are associated with Horner’s?

A

Asymmetric nasal airflow (localized congestion)

Unilateral sweating on neck

(Also abnormal position of eyelashes)

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7
Q

When CN VII is damaged on the right, to which side does the muzzle deviate?

A

To the normal side (left)

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8
Q

When CN VIII is damaged, in which direction is the head tilt? To which side do they lean and fall?

A

Toward lesion

To affected side

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9
Q

The fast phase of nystagmus is _____ the lesion.

A

Away from

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10
Q

What does Dog Sitting imply?

A

Neurologic disease of some kind, often the case that it is more severe in the hind limbs

R/O Weakness since +++ weight in hind

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11
Q

If you notice a horse being as affected or more affected in the forelimb than the hind limbs what lesion comes to mind?

A

Low cervical (C6-7) lesion or cranial intumnescence involvement

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12
Q

In order to evaluate gait a grading system is used. How many grades are there? Which three parameters are used IN EACH LIMB for evaluation and what grades are used for these?

A

6 grades (0 - 5) 5 is most severe- recumbent

Weakness

Spasticity

Ataxia

Graded 0 to 4+

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13
Q

When you grade the gait and posture and note that only weakness and spasticity are abnormal (i.e. no ataxia) what does this indicate?

A

Weakness or lameness rather than neurologic disease

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14
Q

What words are used to describe weakness when assessing gait and posture?

A

“ings”

Toe dragging

Knuckling

Buckling

Stumbling

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15
Q

What can cause toe dragging?

A

Mechanical disruption (tendon rupture, DJD…)

Weakness

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16
Q

What are the 2 causes for spasticity?

A

Hypermetria: excessive joint flexion

Hypometria: short choppy gait, ‘tin soldier’ gait

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17
Q

What does it indicate if a horse vacillates it’s leg in the air before setting it down?

A

Ataxia

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18
Q

What signs in addition to ataxia and head pressing do you expect to see with cerebral disease? What other conditions cause similar sypmtoms?

A

Mentation and behavior abnormalities

Circling

Seizures, semi-coma, coma, death

Other conditions: Sodium imbalance, Liver disease, Moldy corn poisoning (leukoencephalomalacia- corn looks pink to brown), trauma

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19
Q

Does lack of a fever rule out infectious causes for cerebral disease?

A

Nope

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20
Q

What does a bacterial CNS infection do to the glucose in the CSF?

A

Decreases

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21
Q

What are the 2 locations for CSF sampling? Where should a sample be taken if you have a C2 lesion?

A

Atlantooccipital space

Lumbosacral space

C2 lesion= Lumbosarcal (must consider flow of CSF, it has to ‘flow’ past the lesion for the fluid to be diagnostic for the lesion)

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22
Q

Which type of CSF tap must be done under anesthesia?

A

Atlantooccipital

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23
Q

What is the normal TP in CSF? WBC? RBC? Color?

A

TP <100 mg/dl

WBC <5-6/microL

RBC none

Correction factor (blood contamination)= 1 WBC for every 500 RBC

Clear

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24
Q

You obtain a CSF tap and the values are:

WBC= 13

RBC= 5000

What is the corrected WBC value?

A

3

  • 5000/500= 10*
  • 13 WBC - 10 WBC = 3 WBC = WNL*
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25
Q

What to platelets in a CSF sample indicate?

A

Contamination (iatrogenic)

Or very recent (<8hrs) true hemorrhage

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26
Q

What test is used to determine whether antibodies are being made in the CNS?

A

Comparson of serum and CSF:

Albumin quotient (status of BBB, if elevated disrupted)

IgG index (if increased indicated AB production in CNS)

Antibody index (for antigen-specific antibodies)

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27
Q

What are your top DDx for a horse with hypersensitivity, hyperesthesia, muzzle fasciculation, and twitching? What in the CSF indicates one over the other?

A

West Nile Virus

Rabies

If there are neutrophils in the CSF think rabies (other viruses there will be lymphocytes and plasmacytes)

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28
Q

What is the most common form of rabies in horses?

A

Paralytic

Others are dumb and furious

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29
Q

How can an ante-mortem diagnosis of rabies be made?

A

Tactile Hair IFA

However many false negatives depending on what phase of rabies the horse is in when the sample is taken

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30
Q

What forms of equine viral encephalitides are most severe in horses?

A

EEE

VEE

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31
Q

For which viral encephalitides are horses amplifiers?

A

VEE

Sentinel/dead end host for WEE and EEE

32
Q

How long are vaccines for equine viral encephalitides good for?

A

6 months

(also for West Nile)

33
Q

Do horses always get neurologic disease associated with WNV infection?

A

No

If they do they get it about 8 days after infection

34
Q

What is the most common presenting complaint in a horse with WNV?

A

Ataxia

35
Q

What does it indicate if a horse with a basisphenoid fracture gets massive hermorrhage coming from the guttural pouch and inner ear? Where is is the hemorrhage going that you cannot see?

A

The Basilar artery and venous sinuses have been lacerated

Calvarium

36
Q

What is the early treatment protocol for basilar fractures?

A

IV DMSO (to diminish CNS edema)

Methylprednisone (controversial)

Mannitol is counterindicated if there is active bleeding, which is common with trauma

37
Q

Why should whole body sling systems not be used in horses that cannot hold themselves in a standing position?

A

Can cause evisceration (prolapse intestines through anus)

38
Q

What decreases the prognosis in a horse with a traumatic brain injury?

A

Recumbence for >4 hours after injury

Basilar fracture (rather than a frontal fracture)

Respiratory symptoms (breathing alterations)

Arrhythmias

39
Q

Which of these is included in the routine evaluation of a spinal ataxia case?

a. Antantooccipital CSF tap
b. CSF culture
c. LS CSF tap
d. LS spinal rads
e. Blood chemistry

A

c. LS CSF tap

40
Q

In the gait evaluation of the neurologic horse, which of the following is an indicator of weakness?

a. Toe dragging
b. High stepping gait
c. Tin-soldier gait
d. Non-linear footfall pattern

A

a. Toe dragging

  • B and C are indicative of spasticity*
  • D is indicative of ataxia*
41
Q

Does a head tilt in the abscence of blindfolding indicate acute or chronic disease?

A

Acute

42
Q

What disease should be considered in every neuro case regardless of presentation?

A

EPM

43
Q

What do you use to localize a lesion to the brainstem? What is most commonly affected?

A

Cranial nerves

CN V, VIII, and X (5, 8, 10)

44
Q

What is the pathophysiology of vestibular disease due to otitis media/interna aka Temporohyoid osteoarthropathy (THO)?

A

Aseptic inflammatory process that is created by an extension from the ear to the joint of the temporohyoid aparatus

This results in DJD and then causes a petrous temporal fracture

This causes acute neurologic disease (usually perpheral but can be central)

45
Q

What are risk factors for petrous temporal fracture?

A

Eating ahrd feeds (corn)

Loud vocalization (e.g. Stallion cat-calling a mare)

Yawning

46
Q

What is the best way to diagnose a petrous temporal fracture? What will you see?

A

Endoscopy

Remodeling of the stylohyoid bone (indicating DJD)

Alternative: Nuclear scintigraphy (also might be able to see fracture on rads)

47
Q

What is paradoxical vestibular disease?

A

Head signs indicate one side as involved while ataxia indicates the lesion is on the other side

48
Q

What is the most common sign of cerebellar dysfunction?

A

Intention tremor

49
Q

Which of the following characterized the normal value for CSF protein?

a. <50 mg/dl
b. >100mg/dl
c. <100mg/dl

A

c. <100mg/dl

50
Q

A horse with its forelimbs more involved than its hindlimbs in terms of neurological signs probably has a lesion where?

A

Low cervical (C6-7)

51
Q

Which of the following are included in the routine evaluation of a spinal ataxia case?

a. Physical exam
b. Neuro exam
c. AO CSF tap
d. CSF cytology
e. LS CSF tap
f. Cervical spine rads
g. Cervical spine myelogram
h. Thoracic spine rads

A

a. Physical exam
b. Neuro exam
d. CSF cytology
e. LS CSF tap
f. Cervical spine rads
* Note: In an adult horse you can only image the cervical spine (so myelograms are also limited to the cervical spine)*
* Myelogram would be indicated to proove a cervical spinal problem*

52
Q

If you are looking at a spinal rad and all 3 vertebrae you see look the same, what vertebrae are they?

A

C3, C4, C5

53
Q

What is the arrow indicating? What is the star indicating?

A

Arrow= Ski jump (remodeling of the ventral canal (dip) + caudal epiphyseal flare (upward sweep))

Star= Dorsal articular facet enlargement

54
Q

How is the intravertebral saggital ratio calculated? What are the normal values for C3-C6 and for C7?

A

a/b x100 = saggital ratio %

C3-C6 >52%

C7 >56%

55
Q

How can you differentiate a lame horse from a neurologic horse?

A

Lame horse will have a consistent and repeated gait abnormality

A neuro horses gait abnormality is always changing

56
Q

What vertebrae is this?

A

C6

(Lateral process is wide and flat creating a straight line on a rad)

57
Q

What vertebrae is this? How can you tell?

A

C2

Caudo-dorsal aspect sweeps downward and all subsequent ones sweep upward

Also characteristic dorsal spinous process?

58
Q

Is muscle atrophy associated with LMN or UMN disease?

A

LMN

59
Q

T/F: A horse presenting with CVI/CVM/CSS (Wobbler) would not manifest brain/head signs.

A

True

60
Q

Radiographs are used to determine whether _______ is a possible cause of ataxia, a Western Blott Test is used to determine whether ____ is the cause.

A

Wobbler’s

EPM

61
Q

What are the 6 ddx for ataxia?

A

EPM

EDM

Wobbler’s

EHV

Verminous encephalomyelitis

West Nile Virus

62
Q

What are the 3 things that indicate EPM in a neuro case?

A

The 3 A’s

Asymmetric Ataxia with Atrophy

Multifocal disease

63
Q

What indicates that herpes is the cause of ataxia in a horse with neuro disease? How do you treat?

A

Weakness (urine dribbling, symmetric signs, ascending paresis/paralysis)

Corticosteroids

Acylovir

64
Q

Dietary vitamin E (and/or selenium), especially in utero and during the first year of life, plays an important role in the development of which neuro disease? When do they typically show clinical signs?

A

EDM

6mo - 1 year (if earlier then worse)

Supplementing RRR vitamin E helps if <1.5yrs

65
Q

A lack of brain signs and hyporeflexia of the cutaneous trunci muscles indicates what disease?

A

EDM

66
Q

In young horses cervical stenotic myelopathy tends to be _____ while in olders it tends to be _____.

A

Dynamic

Static

67
Q

A small focal area of atrophy in a young horse that per the owner is clumsy makes you think of what disease? What may you see on a myelogram?

A

Wobbler’s/ Cervical stenotic myelopathy (type 1)

Ventral and dorsal attenuation of the dye column (50% attenuation compared to in front and behind)

68
Q

How can you diagnose and treat a foal <1 year with Wobbler’s?

A

Scoring system (>12 out of 35 = CSM)

Put on PACE dietary program- to reduce energy intake and slow their skeletal growth

69
Q

How much improvement can you expect post-op in an adult horse with Wobbler’s whose surgery (Bagby basket) went perfectly?

A

Maximum 2 grade improvement

70
Q

What is the difference between a CSF tap between a horse with EPM and a horse with verminous encephalomyelitis (which present VERY similarly)?

A

Verminous= Eosinophils

EPM= Large mononuclear cells

  • Both are inflammatory and have increase in protein*
  • Any time EPM is a ddx, verminous should also be on the list (even though EPM is way more likely)*
71
Q

How does an EPM horse classically present?

A

Undiagnosible lameness (progressive)

72
Q

Acute onset EPM presents with more _____ signs, while chronic shows more ____.

A

Brain

Ataxia

73
Q

Name 2 ddx that you can eliminate if an ataxic horse has brain signs.

A

Wobblers (CVM/CSS)

EDM

74
Q

What is the treatment for EPM?

A

Ponazuril

Sulfadiazine/pyrimethamine (ReBalance)

Diclazuril

Successful in about 60% of cases

Nitazoxanide is no longer available - fatal enterocolitis

75
Q

What disease classically presents as rapidly developing neurologic disease with tendency to progress for ~36 hrs and then plateau?

A

EHV (herpes)

76
Q

How do you diagnose EHV?

A

CSF= High protein without significant WBC changes (Albuminocytologic dissociation)

PCR (nasopharyngeal swabs)

RUSVM LAM I (19 decks)

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