Final Lecture Exam Flashcards

1
Q

homeostasis

A

maintain constant internal conditions despite changing external conditions

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2
Q

communication system of endocrine system

A
  • communication system: hormone is always released into the blood
  • speed: slow (minutes/hours/days) homeostasis
  • latent period: at least 1 minute
  • duration of response: minutes
  • affects a widespread area
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3
Q

communication of nervous system

A
  • quick and brief homeostasis
  • communication system: neurotransmitter; fast (<seconds)
  • latent period: milliseconds (10^-3)
  • duration of response: seconds
  • extremely localized are of the body
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4
Q

chemical messengers

A

can be same (hormones or neurotransmitters)

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5
Q

target cells

A

have receptors for hormones or neurotransmitters or both

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6
Q

hypothalamus

A

nervous system -> directly controls pituitary gland (endocrine system)

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7
Q

organizational hormone effect

A

1st affect = permanent
- ex. testosterone

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8
Q

activational hormone effect

A

2nd affect = temporary but could last a while

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9
Q

hormone classification

A
  • steroids
  • peptides
  • monoamines
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10
Q

amino acid derivatives

A

small

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11
Q

thyroid hormones

A

raise metabolism

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12
Q

melatonin

A

affects mood and sleep
- sunlight -> lower melatonin

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13
Q

peptide hormones

A

act on outside of target cells (fast acting -> large)

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14
Q

lipid derivatives

A

act on inside of cell (slow acting)

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15
Q

eicosanoids

A
  • all derived from local hormones
  • fast acting; causes labor
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16
Q

steroid hormones

A
  • all derived from cholesterol
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17
Q

epinephrine

A

adrenaline
- stress hormone

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18
Q

hormones transported unbound

A

peptide hormones
- outside
- affects G protein
- most amino acid derivatives
- stored

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19
Q

transport bound to transport proteins

A
  • steroids
  • not stored
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20
Q

thyroid

A
  • slow acting hormone
  • only slow one
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21
Q

thyroid gland (TSH)

A

raises metabolism

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22
Q

steroids (ACTH)

A
  • stress hormone
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23
Q

ADH

A
  • causes increase absorption of H2O
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24
Q

oxytocin (OXT)

A
  • causes labor
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25
Q

MSH

A

melanocytes

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26
Q

GH

A

growth hormone
- liver
- bone muscle and other tissues
- protein synthesis
- lipid metabolism
- glucose sparing
- bone effects

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27
Q

inhibin

A

inhibit FSH production

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28
Q

prolactin (PRL)

A

stimulate breast milk production in females

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29
Q

FSH

A

fertility

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30
Q

LH

A
  • testosterone
  • estrogen
  • progesterone
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31
Q

cortisol

A

lowers inflammation and raises blood glucose levels

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32
Q

adrenal cortex

A

slow release of blood hormones

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33
Q

adrenal hormones

A

adrenal medulla
- epinephrine
adrenal cortex
- mineralocorticoids
- glucocorticoids
- sex steroids

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34
Q

insuline - beta cells

A
  • decrease blood glucose
  • stimulate hunger
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35
Q

glucagon - alpha cells

A
  • increase blood glucose
  • stimulate fullness
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36
Q

absorptive state

A
  • absorbing glucose
  • soon after meal
  • glucagon
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37
Q

post absorptive state

A
  • between meals insulin
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38
Q

hormones of the pancreas

A
  • insuline (beta)
  • glucagon (alpha)
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39
Q

meninges

A
  • epidural space
    dura mater
  • subdural space
    arachnoid mater
  • subarachnoid space
    pia mater
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40
Q

cerebrospinal fluid

A

buoyancy
- contrecoup
- support
protection
chemical stability
- waste excretion
endocrine system

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41
Q

spinal cord function

A
  • conduction
  • reflexes
  • locomotion
    • fixed action patterns
    • pattern generators
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42
Q

dorsal columns

A

sensory info (ascending to the brain)

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43
Q

cerebellum

A

balance

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44
Q

reticular formation

A

touch and pressure

45
Q

spinal cord

A

pain and temperature

46
Q

functional organization of gray matter

A

the cell bodies of neurons in the gray matter of the spinal cord are organized into functional groups called nuclei

47
Q

shape changes based on

A

location in the spinal cord
- farther up gets bigger

48
Q

lumbar 4

A

ventral/anterior horns (motor)

49
Q

sacral 3

A

sensory
- ascending and descending info for the entire body

50
Q

coccygeal 1

A

very small amount of ascending or descending info

51
Q

how many spinal nerves are there

A

30

52
Q

how many cervical vertebrae/spinal nerves are there

A

8

53
Q

thoracic vertebrae/spinal nerves are there

A

12

54
Q

how many lumbar vertebrae/spinal nerves are there

A

5

55
Q

how many sacral vertebrae/spinal nerves are there

A

5

56
Q

dermatone

A

portion of skin -> spinal nerve

57
Q

medulla oblongata

A

ascending sensory info (dorsal column)
- synapse -> cross over to opposite side

58
Q

cardiovascular centers

A

heart rate and blood pressure

59
Q

respiratory rhythmicity center

A

DRG (stimulates inspiration)

60
Q

solitary nucelus

A

reflexes (ex. sneezing, coughing, vomiting)

61
Q

pons

A

taste, movements, face, respiration

62
Q

apneustic center

A
  • increase DRG
  • this induces yawning
63
Q

pneumotaxic center

A
  • decrease DRG
64
Q

reticular formation

A
  • controls consciousness
  • filters out unnecessary sensory info
65
Q

beta arousal

A
  • awake
  • norepinephrine up
  • serotonin up
  • acetylcholine down
  • histamine up
  • GABA down
66
Q

betaish arousal

A
  • REM sleep
  • norepinephrine down
  • serotonin down
  • acetylcholine up
67
Q

delta

A
  • non-REM sleep
  • histamine down
  • GABA up
68
Q

midbrain

A
  • controls pain (PAG)
  • pupil constriction
  • inhibit movement
69
Q

cerebellum

A
  • balance and posture; also movement
  • tremors during movement
70
Q

hypothalamus functions

A
  • temp control
  • reproduction
  • hunger and satiation
  • circadian rythmis
71
Q

look at slide 34 on the slides covering specific functional areas in the brain

A

OK!

72
Q

corticospinal tract

A

motor info

73
Q

cortical layers

A

cortex -> consciousness

74
Q

dendrites look like what

A

hair

75
Q

axons look like what

A

masses

76
Q

basal ganglia (nuclei)

A
  • inhibit movement (damage causes things like parkinsons)
  • tremors at rest
77
Q

limbic system

A
  • emotion
  • memory (hippocampus)
78
Q

REM looks like what kind of activity

A

beta

79
Q

amplitude

A

height

80
Q

frequency

A

of events

81
Q

beta waves

A
  • low amplitude
  • high frequency
  • fully awake, eyes open
82
Q

alpha waves

A
  • stage 1 (drowsy)
  • increased amplitude
  • decreased frequency
  • hyping jerks
  • eyes closed
83
Q

hyping jerks

A

wake back up suddenly

84
Q

asynchronous =

A

random

85
Q

sleep spindles

A
  • stage 2 (light sleep)
  • increased frequency
  • decreased amplitude
  • k-complex
86
Q

omega and delta

A
  • stages 3-4 (deep sleep)
  • nonREM sleep
  • highest amplitude
  • lowest frequency
87
Q

keep awake

A

stage 2 - decreases with age

88
Q

go to sleep

A

stage 1 - keeps you from hearing loud noise

89
Q

REM

A
  • EEG desynchrony (beta)
  • lack of muscle tone (paralyzed)
  • REMs
  • narrative dreams with thick plot
90
Q

nonREM

A
  • EEG synchrony (delta)
  • moderate muscle tone (active muscles; ex. sleep walking)
  • slow or absent eyes movements
  • static dreams (nightmares)
91
Q

REM stands for

A

rapid eye movement

92
Q

corpus collosum

A
  • white matter (axons)
  • connects the 2 hemispheres
93
Q

left brain

A
  • controls right side of body
  • speech (brochas)
  • logic (math, language etc)
  • symbolic
  • time
94
Q

right brain

A
  • controls left side of body
  • subjective
  • artistic
  • emotional
  • abstract
95
Q

hippocampus

A
  • short term memory -> long term memory
96
Q

he color of the face is dependent on many factors. One factor is blood flow. Emotions can cause the face to flush, due to increased blood flow into the dermis. Another factor is melanin production in response to UV exposure, causing darkening of the skin. Which of the 2 factors listed above is most likely controlled by the endocrine system and which is most likely controlled by the nervous system? Explain your answer.

A

flushing of the face is a rapid, localized response so it is probably controlled by the nervous system which effects smaller regions of the body and produces rapid responses. changing of skin color due to UV radiation exposure is a slow response affecting all areas of the skin that have been exposed so probably controlled by the endocrine system, which affects large areas of the body and produces slow responses.

97
Q

Describe differences in the anterior and posterior pituitary gland. Make sure your answer includes: (a.) The type of connection to the hypothalamus (direct OR indirect), (b.) The relative speed at which hormones get released due to connections to the hypothalamus (fast OR slow), (c.) The level of control of release of hormones due to connections to the hypothalamus (high control OR low control), (d.) One anterior pituitary hormone and its function, (e.) One posterior pituitary hormone and its function.

A
  • anterior pituitary: indirect connection to the hypothalamus causing slow release of anterior pituitary hormones; high level of control of release of hormones; TSH - causes the thyroid gland to release thyroid hormone which raises the metabolic rate
  • posterior pituitary: direct connection to the hypothalamus causing last release of posterior pituitary hormones. low level of control of release of hormones. ADH - causes the kidneys t reabsorb more water from the urine, increasing blood pressure and reducing urination
98
Q

Describe differences in the adrenal cortex and adrenal medulla. Make sure your answer includes: (a.) The location (outer layer OR inner layer), (b.) The type of hormones produced (peptide OR steroid), (c.) Which layer can store its hormones and which layer cannot store its hormones, (d.) One adrenal cortex hormone and its function, (e.) One adrenal medulla hormone and its function.

A
  • cortex: outer layer produces steroid hormones which must be released immediately, as they are lipid soluble so can’t be stores. cortisol releases during times of stress causes decreased inflammation and increased blood sugar
  • medulla: inner later produces peptide hormones which can be stored. epinephrine (adrenaline) released during times of sympathetic nervous system activation causes increased heart rate and strength of contraction
99
Q

efine the importance of each of the following glial cells: (a.) Astrocytes, (b.) Ependymal cells, (c.) Microglia, (d.) Oligodendrocytes, (e.) Schwann cells.

A

A. astrocytes: form blood-brain barrier regulation of exchange of m materials between the circulatory system and central nervous system
B. ependymal cells: production modification and circulation of cerebral spinal fluid
C. microglia: immune cells of the central nervous system
D. oligodendrocytes: form myelin around several central nervous system neurons
E. Schwann cells: many form myelin around a single peripheral nervous system neuron

100
Q

Describe the resting membrane potential. Make sure your answer includes: (a.) The type of channel responsible [chemically-gated, leakage, OR voltage-gated], (b.) Whether the resting membrane potential is negative or positive, (c.) 1 reason why, (d.) The effect of the Na+-K+ pump on the resting membrane potential.

A

The resting membrane potential is due to leakage channels (protein channels in the membrane that are always open). The resting membrane potential for most cells is negative for 3 reasons: (1.) Leakage channels allow more K+ to exit the cell than Na+ to enter the cell, (2.) The large number of negatively-charged proteins inside the cell, and (3.) The Na+-K+ pump, which pumps 3 Na+ out of the cell and only 2 K+ into the cell.

101
Q

Describe the effect of a large injection of K+ on nervous system activity (Would it cause a coma or seizures?). Explain your answer.

A

A large injection of K+ would causes seizures. This is because the large injection of K+ would reverse the concentration gradient for K+, making it now enter the cell. The entry of any positively-charged ion will cause depolarization. Depolarization would move the membrane potential closer to threshold, increasing the likelihood of action potentials. An increase in action potentials would cause an increase in excitability of the nervous system, leading to seizures.

102
Q

Compare neurotransmitters and neuromodulators. Make sure your answer includes: (a.) The relative size of each (larger OR smaller), (b.) The relative latent period of each (longer OR shorter), (c.) The relative duration of each (longer OR shorter), (d.) One neurotransmitter and its function, (e.) One neuromodulator and its function.

A

Neurotransmitters: Relatively small molecules with short latent periods and durations. Glutamate = the most common excitatory neurotransmitter in the brain.
Neuromodulator: Relatively large molecules with long latent periods and durations.
Substance P = neuromodulator associated with the transmission of pain information in the spinal cord.

103
Q

Give a function for each of the following: (a.) Medulla oblongata, (b.) Pons, (c.) Midbrain, (d.) Cerebellum, (e.) Hypothalamus.

A

Medulla oblongata: Pacemakers controlling breathing; control of blood pressure; control of reflexes such as sneezing and vomiting.
Pons: Modification of breathing; control of face.
Midbrain: Control of pupil constriction; descending control of pain information in the spinal cord.
Cerebellum: Posture and balance.
Hypothalamus: Control of sleep-waking, body temperature, circadian rhythms, hunger, thirst, hormone release, etc.

104
Q

Describe the cerebral cortex. Make sure your answer includes: (a.) The color of the cortex (grey OR white), (b.) The name of 1 cell type found in the cerebral cortex, (c.) The number of layers of the cerebral cortex, (d.) The importance of layer I of the cerebral cortex, (e.) The importance of layer VI of the cerebral cortex.

A

The cerebral cortex is composed of grey matter (dendrites and cell bodies). Pyramidal cells are large neurons found in the cerebral cortex. In most of the cortex, there are 6 layers. Layer I contains dendrites of pyramidal cells, so represents inputs to the cortex. Layer VI contains axons of pyramidal cells, so represents outputs of the cortex.

105
Q

Describe the differences between the REM and non-REM sleep. Make sure your answer includes: (a.) The type of EEG activity (beta OR delta), (b.) The type of muscle tone (low OR moderate), (c.) The type of dreams (narrative OR static), (d.) The neurotransmitter levels associated with REM sleep, (e.) The neurotransmitter levels associated with non-REM sleep.

A

REM sleep: Beta activity; low muscle tone; narrative dreams; decreased NE and serotonin levels; increased acetylcholine levels.
Non-REM sleep: Delta activity; moderate muscle tone; static dreams; decreased histamine levels; increased GABA levels.

106
Q

Describe the function of hair cells. Make sure your answer includes: (a.) The effect of bending of the smaller hairs toward the larger hair on membrane potential (depolarization OR hyperpolarization), (b.) The effect of bending of the smaller hairs away from the larger hair on membrane potential (depolarization OR hyperpolarization), (c.) The location of hair cells that detect high frequencies in the cochlea (apex OR base), (d.) The location of hair cells that detect low frequencies in the cochlea (apex OR base).

A

Hair cells are the sensory receptors in the inner ear that detect sound (cochlea) and movements of the head (vestibule and semicircular canals). When the smaller hairs bend toward the larger hair, hair cells depolarize; when the smaller hairs bend away from the large hair, they hyperpolarize. Hair cells that detect high frequencies are located near the base of the cochlea (where the basilar membrane is thicker). Hair cells that detect low frequencies are located near the apex of the cochlea.

107
Q

List the 3 layers of the eye. For each layer, give at least one function for each layer.

A

Outer layer: (a.) Sclera = white of eye – gives support to the eyeball and is the site of attachment of eye muscles, and (b.) Cornea = clear portion at the front of the eyeball – does most of the focusing of light.
Middle layer: (a.) Choroid = blood supply for retina, and (b.) Ciliary body = controls thickness of lens, to adjust focusing of light.
Inner layer: Retina = location of all photoreceptors; also much of the initial processing of visual stimuli.

108
Q

concentration gradient, effect on membrane potential, ion moving in response to glutamate, ion moving in response to GABA for K+ and Na+

A
  • concentration gradient: higher inside K+, higher outside Na+
  • effect on membrane potential: hyperpolarization for K+, depolarization for Na+
  • ion moving in response to glutamate: Na+ moves in response to opening glutamate channels
  • ion moving in response to GABA: K+ moves in response to GABA
109
Q

directions of information travel, type of membrane potential, type of gated channel, color, presence of myelin for axons and dendrites

A
  • direction of information: axons away, dendrites towards
  • type of membrane potential: axons have action potential, dendrites have graded potential
  • type of gated channel: axons have voltage gated channels, dendrites have chemically gated channels
  • color: axons are white, dendrites are gray
  • presence of myelin: axons have myelin, dendrites do not have myelin