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TRI - 13 > FINAL INFECCIOSA > Flashcards

FINAL INFECCIOSA Flashcards

1
Q

Forma grave de leptospirosis

A

Sx de Weil

renal damage, hepatic damage, and vascular damage

multisystemic
#1 renal failuure = cause of death, jaundice, hemorrage, shock, inflammatory sx

Aumento de alaninoaminotransferasas hepáticas
b. Hipoprotrombinemia
c. Proteinuria
d. hypoproteinemia
Hematuria
b. Cilindruria
c. Piuria

can also cause liver dysnfunction and enlargement, respiratory distress, anemia, and heart failure

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2
Q

Forma grave de meningococcemia

A

Sx water houss friedman

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3
Q

enfermedad del beso

A

mononucleosis infecciosa

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4
Q

agente causal de fiebre escarlatina

A

estrep beta hemolitico grupo A - aka pyogenes

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5
Q

RD we use for malaria…

A

cloroquina

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6
Q

which causes linfoma de burkitt

A

mononucleosis infecciosa

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7
Q

when can you detect leptospirosis in blood

A

first week / 10d

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8
Q

when can you detect leptospirosis in urine

A

wk 1-3

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9
Q

describe the lesions of varicella

A

maculopapular rash of all different stages –> vesicles (24h transparent ) –> leukocytes –> cistras

3 eruptions over 3-4d

back of neck/head –> trunk –> extremeties

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10
Q

nikolsky sign

A

Nikolsky sign is a skin finding in which the top layers of the skin slip away from the lower layers when slightly rubbed.

+++ scalded skin syndrome

— in bullous impetigo

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11
Q

atypical lymphocytes in…

A

infectious mononucleosis

> 10% @ 2nd/3rd wk

= DOWNEY CELLS

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12
Q

Incubation period of mono

A

4-8wk

30-50d

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13
Q

incubation period of scarlet fever

A

12h-7d (nfectious)

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14
Q

incubation period of malaria

A

5-15d (vivax/ovale)

The time from the initial malaria infection until symptoms appear (incubation period) typically ranges from: 9 to 14 days for Plasmodium (P.) falciparum. 12 to 18 days for P. vivax and P. ovale. 18 to 40 days for P. malariae.

How soon will a person feel sick after being bitten by an infected mosquito? For most people, symptoms begin 10 days to 4 weeks after infection, although a person may feel ill as early as 7 days or as late as 1 year later. Two kinds of malaria, P. vivax and P. ovale, can occur again (relapsing malaria).

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15
Q

incubation period for leptospirosis

A

approx 10 days (2-26 days)

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16
Q

incubation for food poisoning

A

1-8hr

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17
Q

incubation period for varicella

A

10-21 days

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18
Q

fiebre cuaternaria benigna

A

plasmodium malaria

72hr cycles

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19
Q

tertiary feber

A

vivax/ovale’

48hr cycles

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20
Q

malignant teriary fever

A

falciparum

irregular fevers of 36-48hr

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21
Q

other cepas of malaria

A

knowelsi, inuii, brasilinam

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22
Q

treatment of osteomyelitis

A

Traditionally, antibiotic treatment of osteomyelitis consists of a 4- to 8-week course.

minimum 6 wks

Recommended agents are as follows:

Piperacillin-tazobactam 3.375 g IV q6h or
Ampicillin-sulbactam 3 g IV q6h or
Ticarcillin-clavulanate 3.1 g IV q6h
Patients with penicillin allergy and osteomyelitis from contiguous spread of infection:

( Clindamycin 600 mg IV/PO q6h or metronidazole 500 mg IV/PO q8h) plus ( ciprofloxacin 750 mg PO or 400 mg IV q12h or levofloxacin 750 mg PO daily), or moxifloxacin 400 mg PO daily
If MRSA is suspected:

Add vancomycin 15 mg/kg IV q12h
If a contraindication exists to the use of vancomycin, an alternative anti-MRSA agent such as linezolid, daptomycin, or ceftaroline [6] may be used
Oral therapy following IV treatment for patients with osteomyelitis from contiguous spread of infection:

Amoxicillin-clavulanate 875 mg/125 mg PO q12h or
Ciprofloxacin 750 mg PO q12h plus clindamycin 300-450 mg PO q6h or
Levofloxacin 750 mg PO daily plus clindamycin 300-450 mg PO q6h or
Moxifloxacin 400 mg PO daily

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23
Q

septic or suppurative arthritis

A

staph invasion most commonly via bloodstream of synovial membrane

causes painful swollen joints and decreases range of motion

caused mpstly by neisseria gonorrea and staph aureus

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24
Q

how will fluid look in septic arthirirs from staph infection

A

yellow turbish
>1000000 neutrophils
gram +

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25
Q

most common resevoirs of staph

A 
nasal cavity 
skin
vagina
fomites (clothes)
water
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26
Q

structure of staph

A

micrococcaecea G+ spheres of approx 1um

in racimos de uva

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27
Q

breathing of staph

A

aerobes and facultative aerobes

Staphylococcus aureus is Gram-positive, facultatively anaerobic, non-motile, non-sporulating, catalase-positive, coagulase-positive

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28
Q

structure of CMV

A

herpes viridae with bicatenario DNA about 200nm

biggest herpes

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29
Q

structure of leptospira

A

mobile spiochete
Bacteria muy fina.
6 a 20 µm de largo y 0,1 a 0,2 µm de ancho.
Flexible- helicoidal.
Extremidades incursadas en forma de gancho.

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30
Q

breathing of lepospira

A

strict aerobe

Puede sobrevivir largo tiempo en ambiente húmedo, templado, en agua fresca.

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31
Q

structure of meningococo

A 
gram negative diplococo
Neisseria meningitidis (meningococo)
Familia: Neisseriaceae
Diplococo gram- (0.6x0.8 um)
Inmóvil
Encapsulado
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32
Q

fermentation of meningococo

A

glucose and maltose\
oxidase and catalase +
aerobio
blood agar

not lactose so not gonorrea

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33
Q

structure of varicella zoster

A 
Familia: Herpesviridae
Cápside con  simetría icosaédrica
Envoltura lipídica con espículas de glicoproteínas
Tamaño: 150-200 nm
ADN bicatenario
 Más pequeño de los virus herpes humanos

The genome is a linear double-stranded DNA molecule made up of two segments (L and S) joined covalently

VVZ sintetiza 7 proteinas gb-gk, la gE es la principal. Europeo, japonés y mosaico. Las 3 sepas, E, J,M.

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34
Q

HHV3

A

varicella zoster

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35
Q

HHV4

A

EBV

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36
Q

HHV5

A

CMV

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37
Q

HHV8

A

Sarcoma de Kaposi

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38
Q

structure of EBV

A

Familia Herpesviridae (VHH4)
2 cepas A y B
A más frecuente en occidente y B más frecuente en Africa central
ADN bicatenario lineal
Es sensible a los ácidos, disolventes, detergentes y desecación.

Cápside es icosaédrica con 162 capsómeros
dentro una doble cadena de DNA lineal de distinto tamaño (larga y corta)

Cubierta de glicoproteínas

Entre cápside y cubierta esta el tegumento repleto de proteínas y enzimas virales

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39
Q

structure of EBHGA

A 
Streptococcus pyogenes
(EBHGA)
Cocos Gram positivos 
Esféricos u ovoides
Organizados en parejas o cadena
Crecen en medios enriquecidos con sangre.
Producen zonas de hemólisis en agar sangre.
Resistentes a bacitracina
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40
Q

coagulase negative staph

A

saprophyticus and epidermidis

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41
Q

catalase test is for…

A

to differentiate staph from strep

see bubbles means H202 is being converted to O2 and H20

inhibiting fagocytosis from neutrophils

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42
Q

factor de propagacion

A

Hialuronidase in staph and also in leptospira interogans

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43
Q
  1. Provoca lisis o destrucción del eritrocito y daña las plaquetas
A

hemolisisna
alfa , beta, gammma, delta, epsilon

tambien altera musculo liso de los casos

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44
Q

heat stable toxins of staph

A

enterotoxins

aka super antigens thhat cause watery diarrea, vomit at ingestion

only takes a small amount

A,B,C1,C2, D, E

susceptible ppl dont have antibodes against these toxins

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45
Q

virulence factors of coagulase negative staph

A

no exotoxins

no enterotoxins

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46
Q

percentage of bullous impetigo with no previous lesion

A

10%

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47
Q

where is bullous impetigo most frecuent

A

cara, tronco, axilas y glúteos

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48
Q
  1. Manifestación mas grave de la infección por S. Aureus
A

SCALDED SKIN SYNDROME

she also said endocarditis and septic shock

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49
Q

Lyell syndrome

A 
not at mucosa
drugies, adults get it
seperates epidermis from basal layer
epidermal necrosis
2-3 wk recovery
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50
Q

vs. Sclded skin syndrome

A

kids under 6 yrs old
bullae dont scar and break between epidermis and granulous layers in mouth genitals thorax any place really
4-5d recovery
low mortality

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51
Q

toxin that causes SSS

A

exfoliative A B exotoxin

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52
Q

causes of celulitis

A

b. S. aureus y SGA

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53
Q
  1. Agente causal de Celulitis en región periorbitaria o peribucal en
A

H.influenzae

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54
Q
  1. Sitios comunes de formación de forúnculos
A

cuello, mamas, cara y nalgas

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55
Q

son más proclives a presentar carbuncos

A

ancianos, diabteicos

boys in the back of the neck

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56
Q
  1. Las pruebas de susceptibilidad p/Dx estafilococos deben hacerse de rutina
A

true like testing beta lactamase to see if resistant to penicillin

(anti-staph still work)

Una prueba B-lactamasa +, indica resistencia a penicilina G

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57
Q
  1. La especie patógena para humanos y animales es la Leptospira
A

interrogans

58
Q
  1. El hombre puede actuar como reservorio y portador crónico d Leptospira ??
A

no we are accidental,

its spread like that by animals

59
Q

leptospira replicates and is eliminated from the whole body except from

A

brain, eyes, kidney
causing myocarditis and uveitis (pupila blanca)
(heart, skeletal muscle)

60
Q

hepatocelular necrosis in leptospira causes

A

jaundice

61
Q

renal failure in leptospirosis is caused by

A

tubular damage, hypoxia, and isquemia

62
Q

phases of leptospira

A

biphasic

septicemia and immune

S: first wk,
lcr blood can be found
fever, mialgia, cefelea, GI, conjunctival

I:
2nd wk
less symptoms
1-3d no fever then it returns
meningeal signs, mialgia, rash, interstitial nefritis, colescitis
IgM
1-3wks seen in urine
@ wks seen in suero
63
Q

differential diagnosis of leptospirosis

A 
Dengue
 influenza
 hepatitis vírica
 fiebre hemorrágica epidémica
 hantavirus,
 septicemia con ictericia
Enfermedades eruptivas
 paludismo
toxoplasmosis
 pielonefritis
 fiebre amarilla
brucellosis
FOD?
64
Q

treatment for leptospirosis

A

a. PGC 6-8 millones de U c/6h EV
(if not cefalosporins III, ami/amoxi,

Balance hidroelectrolítico

  b. Diálisis peritoneal o hemodiálisis
  c. Transfusiones sanguíneas
65
Q

treatment for leptospirosis if pregnant with penicillin allergy

A

erythromycin

66
Q
  1. Tratamiento profiláctico recomendado mientras el huésped se mantenga expuesto
A

c. Doxiclicina, 200 mg semanalmente

67
Q
  1. El VVZ queda latente en los ganglios de las raíces
A

medular posterior

dorsal root ganglion

68
Q
  1. La principal complicación de varicela zoster
A

neuraliga post herpetica

69
Q

varcillea replication occurs where

A

in the infected cells’ nucleus

proteins from icosahedral capsid enter cytoplasm with microtubules towards the nucleus with tegument matrix proteins for replication

viral dna makes alfa immediate mrna that codes for alfa protein

alfa protein (immediate) enters nucleus to make more mRNA (beta - delayed early) which reenters cytopalsm tp make beta protein

beta protein reenters nucleas o make more dna and structural mrna (:ATE)

structural mrna makes capsid and spikes

immediate anddelayed early are before DNA replication

it all assembles and buds out of ER vesical, envelpops and then is released to infect other cells and damage them (lytic phase) provoking host immunity or and also nervcells (latent phase) = become circular and stop replicating

can revert back with ehat , hormones or at IC

70
Q

most common complication of varicella

A

pneumonia

then acute cerebelous ataxiathink encephalitis
bacterial skin infection (impetigo, necrotizing fasciits)
herpes zoster

71
Q

Varicela a las 6-12 semanas VIU:

A

congential

mother infected in early pregnancy during 1-20wk (first 2 trimesters)
can alter dermatome causing scards and inflmation
decrease growth
alter brain eyes
microofalmia
hypoplastic limbs

30 % mortality

72
Q
  1. Respuesta más importante del huésped para contener al VVZ
A

a. Inmunidad mediada por células

doesnt always happen?? (zoster)

73
Q
  1. Tx en neuralgia post-herpética
A

Aciclovir + corticoesteroides p/↑ Potencia, si hay resistencia se da Foscarnet

Gababentine 300mg/d increase 300 mg a wk (3600 max)

amitriptila (10-25mg/d –> 75-100mg max)

Some creams that help with shingles pain contain capsaicin, the ingredient in cayenne pepper that gives it a kick. Examples are Capsin and Zostrix. …
Lidoderm is a patch that contains the anesthetic lidocaine. You apply it directly to the painful area of skin.

74
Q

Es la causa número uno de infección congénita viral

A

CMV

75
Q

CMV infects what types of cells

A

Infecta a las células mononucleares y a los linfocitos

causes lysis of epithelial cells of salivary glands

The human cytomegalovirus (HCMV) can infect a remarkably broad cell range within its host, including parenchymal cells and connective tissue cells of virtually any organ and various hematopoietic cell types.

peripheral blood mononuclear cell (PBMC) = These cells consist of lymphocytes (T cells, B cells, NK cells) and monocytes, whereas erythrocytes and platelets have no nuclei, and neutrophils, basophils, and eosinophils have multi-lobed nuclei.

76
Q

CMV tx

A

Diana del Tx antirretroviral

polimerasa de ADN viral de la fase temprana

77
Q

MC of CMV

A

frecuencia petequias, ictericia, hepatoesplenomeg y microcef , corioretinitis, low growth, TCP, high LFTs, high CSF proteins, hearing loss, seizure, retardation
115. Secuelas graves de los neonatos que sobreviven microcefalia, crisis convulsivas, retraso del desarrollo psicomotor, parapesias, amaurosis, hipoacusia (53%) y anormalidades oculares (14%)

  1. Características sugestivas de infección por CMV retraso de crecimiento intrauterino, ictericia, hepatoesplenomegalia, calcificaciones cerebrales, coriorretinitis

???114. Poco frec coriorretinitis con ∕ sin atrofia óptica y hernia inguinal en M V

  1. Los síntomas producidos por el Epstein Barr son poco frecuentes V odinofagia, amigdalitis, esplenomegalia y adenopatías
78
Q

complications of CMV

A
  1. Complicaciones hepatitis, miocarditis, meningoencefalitis, Guillain-Barre, neumonía intersticial, trombopenia extrema y anemia hemolítica. cardiomegaly, heart failure, hemolytic anemia, convulsions, autism encefalitis
  2. Son frecuentes coinfecciones por P. jiroveci y Aspergillus en receptores de trasplante cardiaco y pulmonar
79
Q
  1. En una mujer embarazada se hace la titulación pareada de la IgM F
A

??? IgG

80
Q

Es sugestiva de infección fetal por CMVla presencia de

A

oligohidramnios o polihidramnios

81
Q

Primer antivírico con actividad contra el CMV

A

ganciclovir puede incorporarse al ADN vírico y del hospedador. El uso de ganciclovir en neonatos infectados sintomáticos con afección del SNC previene el deterioro auditivo, además de producir un incremento del PC. El efecto tóxico del ganciclovir es la neutropenia grave (30%) que remite a la suspensión del tratamiento. Puede presentarse leucopenia, trombopenia y anemia, daño hepático, fiebre, náuseas, vómitos, diarrea, disminución del recuento de espermatozoides y atrofia de los testículos

82
Q
  1. Medicamentos para CMV usados en pacientes transplantados de riñón y medula ósea
A

también se ha utilizado elaciclovir y valaciclovir. El Aciclovir y el Valaciclovir pueden tener acción limitada sobre el CMV bajo ciertas condiciones.

Ig ganciivlovir??

83
Q

glycoproteins of EBV

A

Gp 350 permite la unión con los linfocitos V

132. Gp 85: produce infección latente e inmortalización V

84
Q

La respuesta del hospedero para limitar la infección de EBV consiste en

A

Generar la respuesta de las células NK, Producir anticuerpos neutralizantes y Citotoxidad dependiente de anticuerpos

85
Q

MC of EBV

A
  1. Síntomas en niños Suele presentarse de forma asintomática. En casos de presentar síntomas estos son: otitis, diarrea, dolor abdominal, afectación de las vías respiratorias superiores.
  2. Triada característica en un 50% de los casos: Fiebre alta y prolongada por mas de 5 días, Faringitis y Linfadenopatía
86
Q

complications of EBV

A 
136.	 Complicaciones Linfoma no-Hodgkin, Linfadenopatía generalizada, Neumonitis intersticial, Leucoplasia vellosa oral. Menos frecuente Sx de Reye, mielitis transversa y rotura esplénica 
Ca nasofaringeo, linfoma de Burkitt (mas frec. En Africa Ecuatorial) enfermedad de Hogking, Enfermedad linfoproliferativa (asociada a VIH)
Ca naasofaringe
hodkin linfoma
burkitt linfoma
leucoplaquia vellosa bucl
CFS
CNS complications
hemorragic complications
heart
hemolytic anemia, miningitis, enceflatitis
acute hemiplejia
psycosis, Guillane barre
meningism, ataxia cerebelosa
TCP
acute interstitial nefitis, heart attack, myocardidits, CN palsy
mononeuropathy, opic neritis, functional asplenia, morbilliform rash if tx with strep
aplasia
granulocytopenia
pancitopenia
linfohistocitos y hemofasocitica
87
Q

diff diagnosis of EBV

A

VHA, CMV, VIH, faringoamigdalitis, toxoplasma y rubeola

88
Q

function of aciclovir in EBV

A

inhibe replicación viral, reduce la diseminación, PERO no tiene un efecto significativo sobre los síntomas

89
Q

proteins that cause scarlet fever

A

M protein - adhesion and antifagocytosis

streo erytrogenic toxin toxin

90
Q

3 ways scarlet fever can damage

A

acción local superficial, diseminación por contigüidad, a distancia a través del torrente sanguíneo o por producción de toxinas

91
Q

pastia lines

A

que no son más que una coloración roja intensa en los pliegues debajo del brazo y en la ingle

92
Q

PERIODOS en scarlet fever

A

Invasión o prodrómico:
Dura entre horas y 2 días. Es de presentación brusca con fiebre mayor a los 38.5 ˚C, escalofríos, náuseas y/o vómitos, odinofagia y odinodisfagia, saburra.
Periodo de estado: marca su comienzo la presentación del exantema eritematoso-maculo-micropapular tipo escarlatiforme, a veces con componente petequial. Respeta las zonas periorificiales, si es de origen estreptocócica (facies de Filatow: rubicundez de la región malar con palidez periorificial).
Periodo de convalecencia
unonteced at kid
astenia psicofasica 1-2wk in adult

93
Q

complications of scarlet fever

A

No supurativas: glomerulonefritis, miocarditis y desordenes neurosiquiátricas.
rhemativ fever Supurativas: Otitis media, meningitis, sinusitis, absceso epiduralperiamig, adenoflemon, masotoiditis, sepsis, etmoids, peritonitis, sinusitis, broncopnemonia

94
Q

ritters disease

A

skin comes off at touch in newborn baby

95
Q
  1. Prueba que indica diferencia entre mononucleosis infecciosa por EBV y por CMV
A

anticuerpos heterofilos

96
Q
  1. Esquema de vacunación de varicela
A

12-15 meses y 4-6 años

97
Q

Cuándo en fiebre escarlatina aparece fiebre reumática y glomerulonefritis?

A

Fiebre reumática luego de faringitis y glomerulonefritis luego de faringitis o piodermitis por estreptococo del grupo A.

c) Estreptococo causa gromerulonefritis en 2-3 semanas y fiebre reumatica 5-15 anios

98
Q
  1. La neumonía con displasia broncopulmonar en RN es causada por infección congénita asociada a cuál virus o bacteria
A

citomegalovirus

99
Q

paul bunnel test

A

The mononuclear spot test or monospot test, a form of the heterophile antibody test,[1] is a rapid test for infectious mononucleosis due to Epstein–Barr virus (EBV). It is an improvement on the Paul-Bunnell test.[2] The test is specific for heterophile antibodies produced by the human immune system in response to EBV infection.

100
Q

virulence factors for neisseria meningitis

A 
LPS  - capsule - rsists fago
LOS (endotoxin) --> immunity
IgA1 - mucosal IC survival
Proteins Omp Por A Por B 00 invasion degranulation
proteina Fet A
Porinas
101
Q

staphylocinase

A

lyse fibrinolysyse

lyse clump factor

102
Q

clump factor

A

caralyzes fibrinogen to fibrin

103
Q

teicoic acid

A

strep pa fijacion

104
Q

eliminates carrier state of meningococo

A

rifampicin

105
Q

at risk for CMV

A

QT
HIV
pregnant women
tranplant px

106
Q

scarlet fever complications in pregnancy

A

premature, aborto, sepsis puerperal, nefrii\tis

107
Q

diagnostic methods for leptospirosis

A

prueba de aglutinacion microscopica
enzimoinmunoanalisis
tincion argentica de wartin-stally

108
Q

cerebral malaria is caracterized by

A

microtrombosis capialr
isquemia
hemorrage
edema

109
Q

purpura fulminante

A

complicacion de meningococo

110
Q

befrotic syndrum

A

malaria malaria

111
Q

receptors of pre erytrocytic cycle of malaria

A

toll like receptros

112
Q

in staph aureus playing similar rol as LPS of gram negatices inducing complement and coagulation

A

lipoteicoic acid

113
Q

reed steinberg cells

A

hodgkin linfoma

114
Q

rx findings of pneumonia from staph aureus

A

lobar consolidation
cavitations
maybe pneumotorax, piopnemotora or pneumatoceles

115
Q

where to find burkitt linfoma

A

afrika

116
Q

where to find nasofaringeal CA

A

china alaska greenland asia

Tipo1 mas freceunte en el mundo, tiop2 mas frecuente en áfrica y Europa.

117
Q

antigens of EBV

A

latent - genome: EDNA - DNA at linfoctes,
LMP - limits expression

initial (EA) - replication
tardios (VCA capsid) and glycoprotein envelope
structural
produce infection

118
Q

replication phases of EBV

A

latent
persistant
lyric

119
Q

Si el ninio no tiene sintomatologia, que debe hacerse –> CMV

A

fluid studies

120
Q

IgG no valen como diagnostico en lactantes porque (CMV)

A

tienen IgG de la madre y le dura 32 semanas

121
Q

Primera causa de muerte en trasplantados por CMV

A

pneumonia

122
Q

Causa mas comun de cardiopatia

A

fiebre reumatica

123
Q

Que se le da de profilaxis al que se va para africa parra malaria

A

mefloquina

124
Q

malaria congenita

A

e) malariae es el mas frecuente que causa malaria congenita. el falciparum no es frecuente porque lleva a aborto

125
Q

structure of scarlet fever

A

Pyogenes: inmóvil, catalasa -, no forma esporas, anaerobio facultativo. La fiebre es producida por exotoxinas A, B, C. puede presentar capsula. La exotoxina A es la mas toxica.

Ac. Hialuronico y la proteína M, disminuye la fagocitosis. Ac.lipoteicoico y la proteína F (se une a fibroblastos), adherencia bacteriana. Estreptomicina O acción toxica contra glóbulos rojos, blancos y plaquetas. Estreptomicina S (lesión membranosa y leucocitosis)

126
Q

risk factor for scarlet fever

A

edad (5-15 anos), biológico (estrecha vías respiratorias, infecciones, inmadurez inmunológica)

ASLO se eleve a partir de la segunda semana.

127
Q

Periodo de transmisión scarlet fever

A

sin tratamiento 2-3 semanas con antibióticos 24-48 horas`

128
Q

tx scarlet fever

A

penicilina VO o amoxicilina, macrolidos si son alérgicos.

129
Q

streptococcus pneumoniae complications

A

Conditions that may develop by direct extension of S pneumoniae from the nasopharynx include the following:

Conjunctivitis
Otitis media
Sinusitis
Acute exacerbations of chronic bronchitis (AECB)
Pneumonia (which may be complicated by purulent pericarditis)
Conditions that may result from vascular invasion and hematogenous spread of S pneumoniae include the following:

Meningitis
Bacteremia (most common manifestation of invasive pneumococcal disease)
Joint and bone infections (osteomyelitis and septic arthritis)
Soft tissue infections (eg, myositis, periorbital cellulitis, abscess)
Peritonitis
Cardiac infections (eg, endocarditis

130
Q

varicella vaccine

A

live attnuated zostavex vs varivax

The varicella vaccine is given in two doses. A child should have the first shot at ages 12-18 months. The second shot should be given at ages 4-6 years. Older children and adults should have two shots, with four to eight weeks between the first and second shot.

131
Q

antibodies in varicella

A

Niveles de anticuerpos se alcanzan 4-8 semanas después del inico, siguen elevadas aprox. 6 meses y luego declinan.

132
Q

MC of varicella

A

Fiebre de 1 o 2 días antes del exantema que dura aprox. 5 días, mas frecuente en tronco y cabeza. 250- 500 lesiones.

133
Q

diff dx varicela

A

Impétigo, rickettias, síndrome de Steve-Johnson, picadura de insecto, alergia como dx diferencial

134
Q

linfadenopathy in EBV

A

non mobile

enlarged tenderness

135
Q

EBV immortalizes

A

B cells

136
Q

Fue descrita inicialmente como fiebre glandular.

A

EBV

137
Q

Mencione dos fallas en la barrera cutánea favorecedoras de infección por Estafilococos

A

burn and drugs

138
Q

Mencione dos enfermedades con fallas en la fagocitosis que predispongan a enfermedad grave por estafilococo

A

GRAN CRONICa, DIABETES, neutropenia, defecto congenito____

139
Q

osler node

A

endocarditis

140
Q

janeway sign

A

endocarditis

141
Q

Droga anti malaria que produce hipoglicemia:

A

quinina

TRI - 13 (7 decks)

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