Final Greatest Hits Flashcards

1
Q

which domain should always be improved/worked on first in post-op rehab?

A

ROM!!

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

internal plates are stress ____

A

shielding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

which fixations are stress sharing?

A

screws
pins
rods
casts
wires
external fixators
nails

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

can WB be done with plates or stress shielding devices?

A

NO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what is the best WB protocol for stress sharing devices?

A

early WB helps with callous formation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

absolute stability is required for ____ fracture healing

A

primary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

when is PEACE used? what is it?

A

immediately after soft tissue injury
Protection
Elevation
Avoid anti-inflammatories
Compression
Education

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

when is LOVE used? what is it?

A

a few days after soft tissue injury
Load
Optimism
Vascularization
Exercise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

how long does a tendon take to heal?

A

3-7 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how long does tendonitis take to heal?

A

3-4 weeks to 5-7 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how long does tendon laceration take to heal?

A

5-7 weeks to 3-6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

how long does an exercise induced muscle injury take to heal?

A

0-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how long does a grade 1 muscle strain take to heal?

A

0-14 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how long does a grade 2 muscle strain take to heal?

A

4 days - 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how long does a grade 3 muscle strain take to heal?

A

4 days - 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how long does a bone injury take to heal?

A

5 weeks - 3 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how long does an articular cartilage repair take to heal?

A

2 months - 2 years

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

how long does a grade 1 ligament injury take to heal?

A

0-3 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how long does a grade 2 ligament injury take to heal?

A

3 weeks - 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

how long does a grade 3 ligament injury take to heal?

A

5 weeks - 1 year

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

stage 1 ACL ligamentation

A

acute inflamation
0-2 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

when does avascular necrosis occur after ACL repair?

A

0-3 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

when does revascularization occur after an ACL repair?

A

6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

stage 2 ACL Ligamentation

A

rapid remodeling
2-10 months
increase collagen, cellularity, vascularity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

when is the risk for ACL retear occurs when?

A

~12 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

stage 3 ACL ligamentation

A

maturation
10-36 months
cellular and metabolic activity decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Criteria for full ambulation (phase I ACL rehab)

A

≥ 0 degrees knee extension
90 degrees knee flexion
≥ 30 SLR without lag
Minimal effusion, pain, symmetrical gait without a limp
MD or PT approval

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

Criteria for jogging (phase 2 ACL rehab)

A

Pain less than 3/10 (worst)
Within 2 degrees normal knee extension
120 degrees knee flexion
Quadriceps and hamstring strength ≥ 60% normal
< 4cm deficit on single-leg squat (anterior reach)
at least 1 min of single leg squats
MD or PT approval

29
Q

Criteria for heavy agility (phase 3 ACL rehab)

A

Pain less than 2/10 (worst)
Quadriceps and hamstring strength ≥ 80% normal
≥ 50% H/Q ratio female
at least 3 mins single leg squats (resisted)
≤ 5 on landing error scoring system (less)
MD or PT approval

30
Q

PCL rehab recommendations

A

closed kinetic chain exercises immediately after
hamstring strengthening delay 6-12 weeks

31
Q

what is the optimal length for a LE residual limb (AKA)?

A

long femur

32
Q

post-op precautions for mastectomy

A

no shoulder elevation past 90
PROM only
avoid static dependent position
elevate arm 30 deg supine

33
Q

contraindications for post-op mastectomy

A

ultrasound
e-stim
HEAT!!
aggressive exercise
aggressive manual

34
Q

what to avoid in first 2 weeks of post-op mastectomy?

A

lifting arm above shoulder height
lifting or pushing with involved arm
lifting >5 lbs.
push up from bed or push open door
pulling towards the body with involved arm

35
Q

how many degrees does the temperature increase with mild thermal US?

A

1 degree

36
Q

how many degrees does the temperature increase with moderate thermal US?

A

2 degrees

37
Q

how many degrees does the temperature increase with vigorous thermal US?

A

4 degrees

38
Q

which balance system has the fastest processing time?

A

somatosensory

39
Q

list the balance systems in order of fastest processing time to slowest

A

somatosensory
visual
vestibular

40
Q

how many degrees of A/P sway

A

12 deg

41
Q

how many degrees of M/L sway

A

16 deg

42
Q

where is the COM?

A

S2

43
Q

what moves in static balance?

A

COM only

44
Q

what systems contribute to balance?

A

MSK
reactive mechanisms
anticipatory mechanisms (internal)
proactive mechanisms (external)
sensory systems
neuromuscular synergies

45
Q

where are the hips in relation to the ankles when standing?

A

hips in front of ankles

46
Q

where are the hips in relation to the shoulders when sitting?

A

shoulder over hips

47
Q

what is muscle tone?

A

force with which muscles resist

48
Q

what is postural tone?

A

antigravity muscles

49
Q

what are the 3 components of balance?

A

vision
vestibular
proprioceptive (somatosensory)

50
Q

what does the semicircular canals detect?

A

angular acceleration

51
Q

what do the otolith organs detect?

A

linear acceleration
head position with respect to gravity

52
Q

what brain areas contribute the most to balance?

A

cerebellum
basal ganglia
supplementary motor area

53
Q

what is the motor control model?

A

individual + task + environment = motor control

54
Q

T/F: balance cannot be trained in isolation.

A

T

55
Q

heat and cold contraindications

A
  • Acute and early subacute traumatic and inflammatory conditions
  • Decreased circulation
  • Decreased sensation
  • DVT
  • Impaired cognitive function
  • Malignant tumors
  • Tendency towards hemorrhage or edema
  • Very young
  • Elderly
56
Q

iontophoresis dosing

A

dose 40
intensity 4 or 2
time 10 mins or 20 mins

57
Q

cathode is - or +?

A

negative

58
Q

anode is - or +?

A

+

59
Q

ion movement is affected by ____

A

current density

60
Q

which meds are negative for iontophoresis?

A

acetate
dexamethasone

61
Q

which meds are positive for iontophoresis?

A

lidocaine

62
Q

is iontophoresis DC or AC?

A

DC

63
Q

where do you put the meds for iontophoresis?

A

on the same charged electrode

64
Q

what does biofeedback mainly measure?

A

motor unit of action potentials generated by muscles

65
Q

what other things does biofeedback measure?

A

skin temp
skin conductance
vasocontraction or pulse
EMG activity **
pressure **

66
Q

where to place electrodes for EMG biofeedback

A

parallel

67
Q

what are the contraindications for biofeedback?

A

NONE

68
Q

what are yellow flags?

A

emotions
behaviors
family
work
compensation