Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

What is an aneroid gauge?

A

A gauge without liquid

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2
Q

What is a bourdon gauge?

A

A type of aneroid gauge; no liquid inside

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3
Q

A bourdon gauge measures ___ and is seen on what types of tanks?

A

Gas pressures (specifically measures pressure difference between the pressure exerted by the gas in the compressed cylinder vs. atmospheric pressure)

Seen on O2, air, and N2O tanks

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4
Q

When the bourdon gauge reads ‘0’, is there any pressure left in the tank?

A

YES—once it reads 0, it still has the equivalent of atmospheric pressure in there (14 psi of atmospheric pressure remains)

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5
Q

A tank of gas has a gauge that reads 45 psi. If the atmospheric pressure at that time is 14 psi, how much gas is really in the tank?

A

P total = P gauge + P atmosphere

P total = 45 + 14 = 59 psi

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6
Q

1 atm = ___ psi

A

14 psi

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7
Q

1 atm = ___ torr = ___ mm Hg

A

1 atm = 760 torr = 760 mm Hg

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8
Q

Barometer is an instrument used to measure ___

A

Atmospheric pressure

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9
Q

Manometer is an instrument used to measure ___

A

Pressure differences

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10
Q

What law is the basis of pulse oximetry?

A

Beer Lambert’s Law

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11
Q

Pulse ox measures the difference between background absorption in ___ and peak absorption during ___

A

Diastole; systole

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12
Q

Infrared light— ___ nm; measures ___; corresponds with ___% sat

A

940 nm; measures oxyhemoglobin; corresponds with 100% sat

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13
Q

Red light— ___ nm; measures ___; corresponds with ___% sat

A

660 nm; measures deoxyhemoglobin; corresponds with 50% sat

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14
Q

Carboxyhemoglobin— ___ binds to hemoglobin instead of O2; shows SPO2 reading of ___; use ___

A

CO; SPO2 reading of 100% (inaccurate); use co-oximeter

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15
Q

Methemoglobin

A

Fe 2+ converts to Fe 3+ form; O2 cannot be transported by iron in hemoglobin

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16
Q

Methemoglobin is caused by what (6) things?

A
  • Nitrates
  • Nitrites
  • Sulfonamides
  • Benzocaine spray
  • Nitroglycerin
  • Nitroprusside
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17
Q

Methemoglobin absorbs ___ at both wavelengths

A

Equally

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18
Q

Methemglobin shows sat of ___%

A

85%

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19
Q

Treatment for methemoglobinemia

A

Methylene blue or ascorbic acid

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20
Q

What two things do NOT affect pulse ox readings?

A

Fetal hemoglobin and bilirubin

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21
Q

___ is the basis behind non-invasive blood pressure technology

A

Oscillometry

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22
Q

___ is used in pressure monitoring with transducers

A

Piezoelectric technology

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23
Q

Electricity is defined as the effects produced by ___

A

Moving charges

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24
Q

Proton =

A

Positive charge

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25
Q

Electron =

A

Negative charge

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26
Q

Fundamental principle of charge interaction—opposite charges ___; like charges ___

A

Opposite charges attract; like charges repel

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27
Q

Electric current is the amount of…

A

Charge flowing per unit of time

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28
Q

What substances allow electrons to move easily from one atom to the next?

A

Conductors (i.e.: metals—electron shells mostly empty)

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29
Q

What substances do NOT allow electrons to move easily from one atom to the next?

A

Nonmetals

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30
Q

What is the point of CO2 absorption (soda lime) in the anesthesia gas machine?

A

To remove/rebreathe CO2 from the patient’s exhaled air; goal is to conserve O2, agent, as well as heat

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31
Q

How many L of CO2/100g of absorbent?

A

23 L CO2/100 g of absorbent

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32
Q

What is the soda lime reaction that takes place when CO2 is reabsorbed?—CO2 chemically combines with ___ to form __

A

CO2 combines with H2O to form carbonic acid

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33
Q

Soda lime contains ___ that are capable of neutralizing carbonic acid

A

Hydroxide salts

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34
Q

What are the (3) reaction end products of CO2 reabsorption?

A

Heat, water, and calcium carbonate

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35
Q

What color does soda lime turn when exhausted?

A

Purple

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36
Q

Which inhalation agent forms compound A when degraded by soda lime?

A

Sevoflurane

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37
Q

CO2 reabsorption has the potential to generate ___

A

Carbon monoxide

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38
Q

What should you do with your flows when the anesthesia machine is NOT in use?

A

Turn off all gas flows!

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39
Q

What is the unit of flow rate?

A

M^3/s (cubic meters per second)

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40
Q

Narrowing causes speed to ___ tremendously

A

Increase

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41
Q

Narrowing causes flow rate to ___

A

Remain the same

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42
Q

Which principle does this describe?—as the speed of a fluid increases, the pressure exerted by the fluid decreases

A

Bernoulli’s principle—pressure of a fluid varies inversely with speed

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43
Q

Bernoulli—an increase in speed = ___ in pressure

A

Decrease in pressure

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44
Q

Bernoulli—a decrease in speed = ___ in pressure

A

Increase in pressure

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45
Q

Bernoulli—pressure is ___ in the narrow part of the tube

A

LOWER in the narrow part of the tube because speed is greatest there (inverse relationship between speed and pressure)

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46
Q

The Venturi flow meter was originally used to measure ___; today, it’s the idea behind ___

A

Used to measure the speed of fluid in a pipe; today, it’s the idea behind nebulizer treatments

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47
Q

What type of change is this?—no change in the chemical makeup (i.e.: melting ice)

A

Physical change

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48
Q

What type of change is this?—always makes a chemically different substance (i.e.: 2H2O —> 2 H2 + O2)

A

Chemical change

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49
Q

What type of property is this?—may be observed/measured without changing the chemical makeup

A

Physical property

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50
Q

What are two types of physical properties?

A
  • Intensive

- Extensive

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51
Q

What type of physical property is this?—integral to the material, regardless of amount (i.e.: color)

A

Intensive physical property

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52
Q

What type of physical property is this?—depends on the sample size (i.e.: volume)

A

Extensive physical property

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53
Q

What type of property is this?—describes the type of chemical changes the material tends to undergo (i.e.: flammable)

A

Chemical property

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54
Q

The following is an example of what type of change?—boiling water to steam

A

Physical change

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55
Q

The following is an example of what type of property?—liquid

A

Intensive physical property

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56
Q

The following is an example of what type of property?—mass

A

Extensive physical property

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57
Q

What is kinetic energy?

A

Energy of a mass in motion

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58
Q

What is potential energy?

A

Stored energy

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59
Q

What is the unit of measurement for energy?

A

Joules

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60
Q

What is internal energy?

A

The sum of the kinetic and potential energies in a system

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61
Q

What does STP stand for?

A

Standard temperature and pressure; unless stated otherwise, follow these conditions

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62
Q

What is standard temperature?

A

T = 273 K (0 degrees C)

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63
Q

What is standard pressure?

A

1 atm = 760 mm Hg

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64
Q

One mole of ideal gas has a volume of ___ L

A

22.414 L (or 22.7 according to new literature)

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65
Q

___ forces determine how molecules interact

A

Intermolecular

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66
Q

Intermolecular forces arise because of the attraction of ___ forces—what law does this describe?

A

Opposite forces—Coulomb’s Law

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67
Q

What type of substance does this describe?—intermolecular forces are strong enough to hold molecules rigidly in place with respect to each other

A

Solid

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68
Q

What type of substance does this describe?—molecules are held in a condensed phase, not strong enough to prevent molecules from sliding past each other

A

Liquid

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69
Q

What type of substance does this describe?—neither definite shape nor volume; intermolecular forces are essentially zero

A

Gas

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70
Q

___ are formed from metals and nonmetals

A

Ionic compounds

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71
Q

___ are formed from oppositely charge ions; generally stronger than covalent bonds; most commonly solids

A

Ionic bonds

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72
Q

What is the relative concentration of solutes in osmotic systems?

A

Tonicity

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73
Q

Equal concentrations of particles =

A

Isotonic

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74
Q

Greater concentration of particles =

A

Hypertonic

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75
Q

Lower concentration of particles =

A

Hypotonic

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76
Q

Diffusion of water is ___

A

Osmosis

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77
Q

Diffusion always occurs from ___ concentration to ___ concentration

A

High concentration to low concentration

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78
Q

What law explains why the surface tension on a blood vessel wall depends on the radius of that vessel?

A

LaPlace’s law

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79
Q

LaPlace’s law states that for cylinders, T (wall tension) =

A

T = Pr

T = wall tension
P = pressure
R = radius
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80
Q

LaPlace’s law—wall tension is directly proportional to ___

A

The radius of the vessel; as the radius increases, so does wall tension (and vice versa)

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81
Q

___ has greater wall tension than a capillary

A

Aorta > capillary

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82
Q

What in our bodies helps to decrease surface tension?

A

Surfactant

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83
Q

Water has a ___ (low/high) surface tension

A

HIGH

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84
Q

What is the closed path through which a charge flows?

A

Electric circuit

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85
Q

Direct current circuit—current flows in ___ direction

A

One direction only

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86
Q

Alternating current circuit—current ___ direction

A

Reverses

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87
Q

A short circuit is a ___ path resulting in a large current

A

Low resistance path

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88
Q

If current from a short circuit is NOT limited by a fuse or circuit breaker, the resulting heat from the high current can lead to ___

A

A fire

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89
Q

Series circuits—batteries or resistors are connected in ___; the voltages and resistances are ___

A

Connected in series; added (R total = R1 + R2)

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90
Q

Parallel circuits—current flows through each resistor ___; voltages/resistances are added ___

A

Independently; added inversely (1/R total = 1/R + 1/R)

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91
Q

We pay for ___, NOT electrical power

A

Electrical energy—power x time

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92
Q

What type of shock is this?—large amounts of current conducted through a patient’s skin or other tissues; extent of injury depends on the amount of current and the duration of exposure

A

Macroshock

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93
Q

What type of shock is this?—delivery of small amounts of current directly into the heart

A

Microshock

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94
Q

With Microshock, very small currents < ___ milliamps can produce V Fib

A

< 50 milliamps

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95
Q

What provides a low resistance pathway for leakage current and constitutes the major source of protection against Microshock?

A

Ground wire

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96
Q

Can you touch (simultaneously) an electrical device and a saline filled CVP line or pacing wires?

A

NO!!! Must wear rubber gloves

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97
Q

What are 3 types of safety features used to prevent electrical shock?

A
  • Polarized plugs
  • Three prong grounded plugs
  • Ground fault circuit interrupter (GFCI)
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98
Q

Three prong grounded plug—grounded third prong is wired directly to ___

A

The casing of the electrical device

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99
Q

Three prong grounded plug—if for some reason a high potential wire comes into contact with the case, the current will flow directly to the ___ instead of ___

A

Directly to the third prong instead of through your body

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100
Q

Polarized plugs have one narrow prong (___ potential) and one wide prong (___ potential)

A

Narrow prong = high potential

Wide prong = low potential

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101
Q

Casing in polarized plugs is connected to the ___ prong

A

Wide prong—low potential

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102
Q

GFCIs are used in circuits near ___

A

Water sources

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103
Q

What do GCFIs do if a change in current is detected?

A

Immediately disrupt flow

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104
Q

What is a disadvantage of GFCIs?

A

They interrupt power without warning—problematic when using life support equipment

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105
Q

Modern electrical circuits are typically ___ but can still pose a risk to humans—why?

A

Grounded

Humans at ground potential only have to touch a single object to complete the circuit, resulting in electrical shock

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106
Q

In the OR, electrical systems are isolated from the grounded electrical supply through the use of ___

A

Isolation transformers

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107
Q

Isolation transformers rely on magnetic inductance to transfer current from the ___ electrical system to an ___ secondary system WITHOUT ___

A

Grounded electrical system; an ungrounded secondary system; without the two systems touching each other

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108
Q

Ungrounded systems in the operating room prevent ___ from simply touching a single live wire

A

Accidental shocks

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109
Q

The line isolation monitor alarms when ___ occurs

A

Fault in an ungrounded system occurs

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110
Q

When the line isolation monitor alarms, does current still flow?

A

Yes, current still flows

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111
Q

Line isolation monitor—if live wires contact a ground, a ___ has occurred

A

Fault

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112
Q

Line isolation monitor—if a second fault occurs, it can result in ___

A

Shock

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113
Q

Line isolation monitor is set to alarm between ___ mA

A

2-5 mA

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114
Q

If the line isolation monitor is between 2 and 5 mA, there is ___

A

Too much equipment plugged into the circuit

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115
Q

If the line isolation monitor > 5 mA…

A

Then there is a faulty piece of equipment plugged in; unplug things until the alarm is silenced

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116
Q

If the line isolation monitor system alarms, make sure it is a ___

A

True fault—either too much equipment plugged in or a faulty piece of equipment present

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117
Q

Line isolation monitor is NOT designed for protection against ___

A

Microshock

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118
Q

The main objective of electrical safety is to make it difficult for current to pass through ___

A

People

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119
Q

Electrosurgery involves ___ currents; do not excite ___ cells

A

High frequency currents; do not excite contractile cells

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120
Q

Electrosurgery cannot be safely operated unless the energy is routed from the unit through the patient and back to the unit via a ___

A

Large surface area dispersive electrode

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121
Q

ESU—if the return plate is improperly applied to the patient or if the cord connecting to the return plate is broken, then high frequency electrical current will seek ___

A

An alternate return path (aka shock the patient)

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122
Q

Most important factor in preventing patient burns from the ESU is ___

A

Proper application of the return plate

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123
Q

Which gas law states the following?—pressure is directly proportional to temperature if volume is constant

A

Gay-Lussac’s Law

If temperature goes up, then pressure goes up (if volume is constant)

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124
Q

Name this gas law—if temperature goes up, then pressure goes up (if volume is constant)

A

Gay-Lussac’s Law

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125
Q

What is an example of Gay-Lussac’s Law?

A

N2O cylinder—when gas leaves the tank (pressure goes down), the temperature in the tank drops

126
Q

Do ideal gases exist?

A

NO! Because ideal gases obey gas laws at all temps and pressures

127
Q

Real gases deviate at ___ and/or ___

A

High pressure and/or low temperatures

128
Q

What equation deals with the deviation in real gases from ideal gases?

A

Vander Waals equation

129
Q

What gas law is this?—volume is inversely related to pressure; as pressure increases, volume decreases (and vice versa)

A

Boyle’s Law

130
Q

Boyle’s law is the basis of ___

A

Negative-pressure breathing

131
Q

What gas law is this?—volume is directly proportional to the absolute temperature under constant pressure—if the absolute temperature of a gas doubles, then the volume doubles

A

Charles’ Law

132
Q

What is an example of Charles’ Law?

A

ETT cuff—the volume in the cuff increases when ETT is placed inside a patient (core temp is > room temp)

Volume increases with heat/increased temp

133
Q

___ law—the pressure exerted by an individual gas in a mixture is known as its ___

A

Dalton’s law—partial pressure

134
Q

Dalton’s law states that the total pressure of a mixture of gases is equal to ___

A

The sum of the partial pressures

P total = P1 + P2 + P3

135
Q

___ law states that the rate of diffusion of a gas across a membrane is determined by the membrane itself, partial pressure gradient of the gas, and wall thickness

A

Fick’s Law

136
Q

Fick’s law—diffusion rate of a gas is DIRECTLY proportional to what (3) things?

A
  • Partial pressure gradient
  • Membrane area
  • Solubility of gas in membrane
137
Q

Fick’s law—diffusion rate of a gas is INVERSELY proportional to what (2) things?

A
  • Membrane thickness

- The sq. Root of the molecular weight

138
Q

What law explains these three concepts—concentration effect; second gas effect; diffusion hypoxia?

A

Fick’s law

139
Q

What term best describes the following?—running flows at higher concentrations to speed up induction (higher concentration = faster diffusion of gas)

A

Concentration effect

140
Q

What term best describes the following?—using a second gas speeds up the rate of diffusion of another gas; what gas is typically used for this?

A

Second gas effect; nitrous

141
Q

What term best describes the following?—nitrous causes hypoxia; what should you do to prevent this from happening?

A

Diffusion hypoxia; run 100% FiO2 after using nitrous

142
Q

Henry’s Law—the amount of a non-reacting gas which dissolves in liquid is directly proportional to the ___, if temperature is constant

A

Partial pressure of the gas

143
Q

How to calculate amount of dissolved O2 in blood?

A

Multiple partial pressure of O2 by 0.003 (because there is 0.003 ml of O2/100 ml blood/mmHg partial pressure of O2)

144
Q

How to calculate amount of dissolved CO2 in blood?

A

Multiple partial pressure of CO2 by 0.067 (because there is 0.067 ml of CO2/100 ml blood/mmHg partial pressure of CO2)

145
Q

Graham’s Law of Effusion states that the rate of effusion is inversely proportional to ___

A

The square root of the molecular mass

146
Q

The rate of effusion depends on the ___ of the molecules

A

Speed of the molecules

147
Q

Graham’s law of effusion—the square of the speed is inversely proportional to the ___, if the KE is constant

A

Mass

148
Q

Effusion is the same process as ___

A

Diffusion

149
Q

What is diffusion?

A

Movement of a substance from an area of higher to lower concentration

150
Q

Effusion is the movement of ___ through ___

A

A gas through a small opening

151
Q

Temperature effect—the amt of gas dissolved is ___ proportional to temperature

A

Inversely—i.e.: the colder the liquid, the more gas that will dissolve in the liquid

152
Q

Ostwald’s solubility coefficient—the quantity of solvent needed to dissolve ___ at a given temperature and pressure

A

Dissolve a quantity of gas

153
Q

Ostwald’s solubility coefficient—the higher the coefficient, the more ___; the two phases must be ___

A

Readily the gas dissolves in the liquid; the two phases must be specified

154
Q

What is the blood gas partition coefficient?

A

Blood solubility of a gas, how soluble a gas is in blood

155
Q

Higher blood gas coefficient =

A

Requires more uptake of gas into the blood, induction will be slower

156
Q

Higher partition coefficient = ___ (lower/higher) lipophilicity = ___ (lower/higher) potency = ___ (lower/higher) solubility

A

Higher lipophilicity = higher potency = higher solubility

157
Q

High solubility = ___ (more/less) anesthetic needs to be dissolved = ___ (faster/slower) onset

A

More anesthetic needs to be dissolved = slower onset

158
Q

MAC ___ (increases/decreases) as blood gas partition coefficient increases, generally speaking

A

Decreases

159
Q

Meyer Overton = agents with ___ (increased/decreased) oil solubility have greater potency

A

Increased

160
Q

Vander Waals—gas molecules have ___ volumes and gas molecules ___ one another

A

Finite volumes; gas molecules attract one another (intermolecular attractions)

161
Q

What is this describing?—thermodynamic process that occurs when a fluid expands from high to low pressure at constant enthalpy (an isoenthalpic process), expanding a fluid from high to low pressure across a valve

A

Joule-Thompson Effect

162
Q

JT Effect—under the right conditions, this can cause ___ of fluid

A

Cooling

163
Q

Example of the Joule-Thompson Effect

A

N2O tanks—as the cylinder of compressed gas empties, the cylinder cools

164
Q

What does this describe?—compression in which no heat is added to or subtracted from the air and the internal energy of the air is increased by an amount equivalent to the external work done on the air

A

Adiabatic compression

165
Q

Adiabatic compression—increase in temp of the air during adiabatic compression tends to ___ (increase/decrease) the pressure on account of the decrease in volume alone

A

Increase pressure

166
Q

pKa =

A

The pH at which 50% is ionized and 50% is nonionized

167
Q

The stronger the acid, the weaker the ___

A

Conjugate base

168
Q

The weaker the acid, the stronger the ___

A

Conjugate base

169
Q

Water is ___—can behave as either an acid or a base

A

Amphoteric

170
Q

Weak acid naming

A
  • Sodium
  • Calcium
  • Magnesium
171
Q

Examples of weak acid drugs

A
  • Barbiturates
  • Thiopental
  • Propofol
172
Q

Weak base naming

A
  • ___ chloride

- ___ sulfate

173
Q

Examples of weak base drugs

A
  • Lidocaine hydrochloride
  • Morphine sulfate
  • Versed
174
Q

Nonionized drugs penetrate ___ and ___ barriers

A

Blood brain barrier and placental barrier

175
Q

The greater the nonionized portion of a drug, the ___ (more/less) transfer to the brain and fetus

A

The more transfer to the brain and fetus

176
Q

Because the fetus is in lower pH, the circulating non ionized drug crosses ___; once in the fetus, equilibrium is reestablished, with a greater % ___ and trapped in fetal circulation

A

Placental barrier; ionized

177
Q

What is the Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics?

A

If (temp) A = B, and B = C, then A = C (thermal equilibrium, no heat flow will occur between them)

178
Q

What is the 1st law of thermodynamics?

A

A change in the internal energy of a system results from energy transferred to an object from a higher temperature + work done on the object

179
Q

Energy flows into the system

A

Endothermic

Q > 0

180
Q

Energy flows out of the system

A

Exothermic

Q < 0

181
Q

Work done BY the system

A

Expansion

W < 0

182
Q

Work done ON the system

A

Compression

W > 0

183
Q

2nd law of thermodynamics

A

“Entropy law”—heat flows spontaneously from a hot body to a cold body when they are brought into thermal contact; heat will flow until the two temps are equal

184
Q

3rd law of thermodynamics

A

It is impossible to lower the temperature of an object to absolute zero; there’s always some energy in the system

185
Q

Specific heat is the amount of heat needed to…

A

Raise the temperature of 1 gram of material by one degree Celsius

186
Q

Water has a very ___ (low/high) specific heat

A

HIGH—so a lot of energy must flow into water before its temperature will significantly change

187
Q

Metals have a ___ (high/low) specific heat

A

Low specific heat

188
Q

Materials with high specific heats are good ___

A

Thermal insulators because large amounts of heat cause only small changes in temperature (i.e.: water)

189
Q

Materials with low specific heats are good ___

A

Thermal conductors (i.e.: metal pots)

190
Q

___ is the heat required to raise the temperature of a given material

A

Heat capacity

191
Q

Heat capacity = (formula)

A

Mass x specific heat

192
Q

Radiation = ___%

A

40% (heat emitted from an object; requires no physical medium or contact)

193
Q

Convection = ___%

A

30% (air above a heat source)

194
Q

Conduction = ___%

A

20% (direct contact)

195
Q

Evaporation = ___%

A

10% (heat loss through respiration/surgical prep)

196
Q

Gases listed in order of decreasing potency

A

Iso > sevo > des > nitrous

197
Q

Lipid solubility of a gas = ____; more lipid soluble = more ___ gas

A

Potency; more lipid soluble = more potent gas

198
Q

Blood solubility of a gas determines ___

A

Onset of action (aka speed of induction/emergence)

199
Q

Less blood soluble = ___ (slower/faster) onset/induction/emergence

A

Faster

200
Q

As temperature goes down (i.e.: cold body), solubility of gas ___

A

Increases

201
Q

N2O MAC value

A

104

202
Q

Des MAC value

A

6

203
Q

Sevo MAC value

A

2

204
Q

Iso MAC value

A

1

205
Q

Higher blood:gas ratio = ___ (less/more) blood soluble, agent stays in blood ___ (less/longer), ___ (faster/slower) induction (and vice versa)

A

More blood soluble, agent stays in blood longer, slower induction (and vice versa)

206
Q

What type of flow is smooth, orderly, and what we strive for?

A

Laminar flow

207
Q

What law relates to laminar flow?

A

Poiseuille’s law

208
Q

What are 4 ways to increase flow through a tube (according to Poiseuille’s law)?

A
  • Increase the pressure differential across the catheter (pressure gradient)
  • Raise IV bag height/add a pressure bag (pressure gradient)
  • Use larger gauge IV catheter
  • Shorter catheter
209
Q

Poiseuille’s law states that the LAMINAR flow rate of a fluid is proportional to the ___

A

Fourth power of the pipe’s radius!!! Applies to LAMINAR flow only!!!

210
Q

Poseuille’s law applies to ___ flow only

A

Laminar

211
Q

What are the two most important factors for laminar flow?

A

Radius and length

212
Q

What is the MOST important factor for laminar flow?

A

Radius

213
Q

What is turbulent flow?

A

Chaotic, abruptly changing

214
Q

Turbulent flow is proportional to what 3 things?

A
  • Density
  • Diameter
  • Velocity
215
Q

Turbulent flow is INVERSELY proportional to ___

A

Viscosity

216
Q

Laminar flow relates to ___

A

Viscosity

217
Q

Turbulent flow relates to ___

A

Density

218
Q

Increase in viscosity = ___ (increase/decrease) in laminar flow

A

Decrease in laminar flow

219
Q

Decrease in viscosity = ___ (increase/decrease) in laminar flow

A

Increase in laminar flow

220
Q

Change the ___ when you have turbulent flow

A

Density

221
Q

___ the density to make flow less turbulent

A

Decrease density—i.e.: use a less dense gas for better flow

222
Q

Viscosity = measure of a fluid’s ___

A

Resistance to flow

223
Q

Fluids with a high viscosity ___

A

Do NOT flow very readily (and vice versa)

224
Q

Reynold’s number is the measure of the tendency for ___ to occur

A

Turbulence

225
Q

Reynold’s number > ___ = greater chance for turbulent flow

A

> 2000 = turbulence, even in a straight, smooth vessel!

226
Q

What principle is the following?—pressure is exerted equally, regardless of the size of the container (i.e.: pressure exerted on a syringe, arterial blood pressure monitoring)

A

Pascal’s principle

227
Q

Pressure =

A

Force/area

228
Q

How can you increase pressure?

A

Increase force, decrease area

229
Q

How can you decrease pressure?

A

Decrease force, increase area

230
Q

Melting

A

Solid to liquid

231
Q

Freezing

A

Liquid to solid

232
Q

Vaporization

A

Liquid to gas

233
Q

Condensation

A

Gas to liquid

234
Q

Sublimation

A

Solid to gas

235
Q

Deposition

A

Gas to solid

236
Q

What are two types of covalent bonds?

A
  • Non-polar

- Polar

237
Q

What type of covalent bond is this?—two atoms of IDENTICAL electronegativity are bonded together; results in NO partial charges

A

Non-polar covalent bond

238
Q

What type of covalent bond is this?—two atoms of DIFFERENT electronegativity are bonded together; results in partial charges

A

Polar covalent bond

239
Q

In polar bonds, the electrons spend more time around the ___ (more/less) electronegative atom; this creates ___

A

More electronegative; this creates partial charges

240
Q

Polar bonds—the greater the difference in electronegativity between the two atoms, the more ___ the bond

A

More polar

241
Q

What is Avogadro’s number?

A

6.022 x 10^23

242
Q

Avogadro’s law states that the volume of gas is proportional to ___

A

The number of gas molecules (at equal temperatures and pressures)

243
Q

What is R?

A

The universal gas constant

244
Q

R (universal gas constant) describes the relationship between ___ and ___

A

Temperature and kinetic energy

245
Q

R in SI units =

A

8.314 J/mol/K

246
Q

Dipole-dipole attraction is the attraction between ___ charges on polar molecules

A

Opposite/partial charges

247
Q

Dipolar attractions occur only between ___ molecules

A

Polar

248
Q

London forces are AKA ___ forces

A

Vander Waals forces

249
Q

Vander Waals forces are generally the ___ of the three intermolecular forces

A

Weakest

250
Q

Why do vander Waals forces occur?

A

D/t an uneven distribution of electrons in a molecule

251
Q

Larger molecules show ___ (less/more) London forces because large molecules have more electrons

A

More London forces

252
Q

LaPlace’s law = the surface tension of a blood vessel is directly proportional to ___

A

The radius of the vessel—larger radius = more surface tension

253
Q

LaPlace’s law and aneurysms—aneurysms ___ (increase/decrease) surface tension in blood vessels

A

Decrease surface tension (spherical bulge in the vessel wall, weaken part of the vessel, leading to rupture)

254
Q

___ is the pressure exerted by the most energetic molecules escaping into the gas phase at the surface of a liquid

A

Vapor pressure

255
Q

Vapor pressure increases with ___ (increasing/decreasing) temperature

A

Increasing temperature (direct relationship)

256
Q

The greater the intermolecular forces, the ___ (lower/higher) the vapor pressure

A

Lower

257
Q

___ is the tendency of a liquid to evaporate

A

Volatility

258
Q

Volatility of a liquid increases with ___ (increasing/decreasing) temperature

A

Increasing

259
Q

A more volatile liquid has a ___ (lower/higher) vapor pressure

A

HIGHER

260
Q

A more volatile liquid has a ___ (lower/higher) boiling point

A

LOWER

261
Q

___ is the temperature at which the vapor pressure of a liquid equals the ambient pressure

A

Boiling point

262
Q

Compounds with more intermolecular forces have ___ (lower/higher) boiling points

A

Higher

263
Q

___ is the temperature at which the solid state reversibly passes into the liquid state

A

Melting point

264
Q

Compounds with more intermolecular forces have ___ (lower/higher) melting points

A

Higher

265
Q

Which anesthetic gas has the highest vapor pressure?

A

669 mm Hg

266
Q

Cation

A

Positive ion

267
Q

Anion

A

Negative ion

268
Q

An ___ contains only one type of atom

A

Element

269
Q

What are two types of mixtures?

A

Homogenous (uniform throughout)

Heterogeneous (different components throughout)

270
Q

___ and ___ are in the nucleus

A

Protons and neutrons

271
Q

Atomic number (Z) =

A

Number of protons, determines identity

Example: Carbon Z = 6

272
Q

Neutron number (N) =

A

Number of neutrons

273
Q

Mass number (A) =

A

Z (atomic number) + N (neutron number)

274
Q

Can the mass number ever be smaller than the atomic number?

A

NO!

275
Q

Isotopes =

A

Same atomic number, different mass number (same number of protons, diff number of neutrons)

276
Q

Elements with nearly full electron shells ___ electrons

A

Accept electrons; i.e.: anions

277
Q

Elements with nearly empty electron shells ___ electrons

A

Release; i.e.: cations

278
Q

Aluminum should be avoided in ___ patients

A

Dialysis—can build up and be toxic

279
Q

Barium is used in ___

A

Radiographic GI studies

280
Q

Calcium is important for ___, ___; found in ___, ___

A

Muscle contraction, bone stability; found in antacids, phosphate binders

281
Q

Carbon is found in…

A

Activated charcoal—used in overdoses; also found in most compounds

282
Q

Chlorine is used as a ___

A

Disinfectant (i.e.: Clorox, other cleaners)

283
Q

Copper is a good ___

A

Conductor

284
Q

What is fluorine used for?

A

Sodium fluoride strengthens teeth

285
Q

Helium is used as ___

A

An MRI coolant

286
Q

What is the most common atom in the universe? (> 95% of all known matter)

A

Hydrogen

287
Q

Iodine is found in ___ and ___ medications

A

Topical antiseptics and anti thyroid medications

288
Q

Iron is found in ___

A

Hemoglobin

289
Q

Lithium is used as a ___

A

Mood stabilizer for bipolar patients

290
Q

Magnesium is important for ___ conduction and ___ levels; ___ therapy; ___ (think bathroom)

A

Cardiac conduction and potassium levels; tocolytic therapy; laxatives

291
Q

Which electrolyte should you replete first—potassium or magnesium?

A

Replete mag before potassium

292
Q

Nitrogen is found in what inhalation agent? What % of the air is nitrogen?

A

Nitrous oxide (N2O); ~80% of air

293
Q

Oxygen is important for ___ synthesis

A

ATP

294
Q

Phosphorous is found in ___, ___, and ___

A

RNA, DNA, ATP

295
Q

Low phosphorous levels may cause ___ bones and ___ failure

A

Brittle bones and respiratory failure

296
Q

Phosphorous is supplemented in ___ forms with ___ or ___

A

Salt forms with sodium or potassium

297
Q

Potassium is important for ___ contraction

A

Muscle

298
Q

Potassium has an inverse relationship with ___

A

Insulin

299
Q

Potassium is affected by ___ inhibitors, ___

A

ACE inhibitors, loop diuretics

300
Q

Sodium is important for ___ stability, ___ balance

A

CNS stability, water balance

301
Q

Titanium is found in ___

A

Prosthetic implants

302
Q

Zinc is found in ___ lotion and ___block

A

Calamine lotion and sunblock

303
Q

Zinc is important in ___

A

Wound healing

304
Q

A colligative property depends only on the ___, not the identity of solute particles

A

Number of solute particles

305
Q

Colligative property—the vapor pressure of a solution ___ with increasing solute concentration

A

Decreases

306
Q

Colligative property—the boiling point of a solution ___ with increasing solute concentration

A

Increases

307
Q

Colligative property—the freezing point of a solution ___ with increasing solute concentration

A

Decreases

308
Q

Colligative property—the osmotic pressure of a solution ___ with increasing solute concentration

A

Increases

309
Q

Which two elements are liquid?

A

Mercury and bromine

310
Q

Which element melts in your hand?

A

Gallium