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Psy 155 > Final Exam Review > Flashcards

Final Exam Review Flashcards

1
Q

define cohabiation

A

an arrangement where two people who are not married live together and often involve a romantic or sexually intimate relationship on a long term or permanent basis

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2
Q

T/F choosing to cohabitate before marriage decreases the chance of divorce from that person

A

False.
it would actually increase the chances

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3
Q

T/F cohabitation has been increasing, while marriage has been decreasing in young adulthood

A

True

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4
Q

what’s an example for sliding?

A

unintentionally letting things happen, lack of attention towards ones situation

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5
Q

what’s an example for deciding?

A

wise choices, making decisions intentionally

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6
Q

how is selection effect related to cohabitation?

A

those who choose to cohabitate may already be at a higher risk for divorce due to other reasons such as poverty and past divorces

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6
Q

how is selection effect related to cohabitation?

A

those who choose to cohabitate may already be at a higher risk for divorce due to other reasons such as poverty and past divorces

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7
Q

define suffocation of marriage

A

our expectations that more of our needs and needs that are of higher level need to be met by our partner, which can be a lot of pressure on the marriage

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8
Q

what are the five category of needs in Maslows Hierarchy?

A

self-actualization (personal growth, autonomy)
esteem (self respect)
belonging and love (trust, sexual intimacy)
safety (control, economic safety)
Physiological (hunger, sleep)

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9
Q

T/F traditional IRA is the best option for young adults with limited income who want to save for their retirement

A

False.
Roth IRA is the best option for that

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10
Q

which retirement plan is tax free?

A

Roth IRA

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11
Q

T/F there is a maximum amount that each person can contribute to their account each year

A

True. it needs to come from their earned wages

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12
Q

what is the most common age definition in middle adulthood?

A

40-45 to 60-65
-but can range up to 10 years (30-75)

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13
Q

T/F Midlife is not an important stage of individual development, and not crucial towards society or its development

A

False.
Midlife is just as important and crucial towards society and development just as much as the other stages

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14
Q

how do middle aged adults play a crucial role in society?

A

they bring together and nurture family members and mentor coworkers.

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15
Q

what are some examples of development tasks during midlife?

A

acting as a caregiver, loosing parents & experiencing grief, launching children into their own lives, dealing w children moving back home, becoming grandparents

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16
Q

what changes start occurring as we move into midlife?

A

changes in vision, hearing, and more joint pain
as well as weight gain due to slow metabolism

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17
Q

how many hours of weekly exercise is most protected against premature death?

A

7 hours compared to fewer hours of weekly exercises

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18
Q

T/F The best exercise programs for middle-aged adults are those that are engaged in regularly, and they are easy to follow.

A

True

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19
Q

T/F About half of Americans meet the recommendations for aerobic physical activity, but less than 50% meet the physical activity guidelines for both aerobic and muscle-strengthening activity

A

False. less than 25% meet the physical activity guidelines for both aerobic and muscle-strengthening activity

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20
Q

how many minutes of aerobic does one need to do in order to gain substantial benefits such as lower risk of premature death?

A

150 minutes is the least amount of aerobic weekly

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21
Q

define sarcopenia

A

loss of muscle tissue and function as we age

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22
Q

T/F leg muscles become detached from the nervous system, and exercise encourages the slow progression of sarcopenia

A

True.
exercise encourages new nerve growth slowing the sarcopenia to progress

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23
Q

define osteoporosis

A

a disease that weakens bones to the point where they break easily

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24
Q

at what age do humans reach peak bone mass?

A

human beings reach peak bone mass around age 35-40

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25
Q

who is most often associated with osteoporosis?

A

women because bone mass deteriorates quicker due to menopause

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26
Q

how much bone mass can women lose per year? what does it render?

A

5-10%, calcium and vitamin D and evaluate individual risk factors

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27
Q

over the age of 50, what is the age percentage of men and women who will most likely suffer a bone fracture due to osteoporosis?

A

50% women, 25% men

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28
Q

define climacteric

A

one biologically based change that occurs during midlife

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29
Q

T/F many men experience an increase in their ability to reproduce

A

False.
they actually experience a reduction in their ability to reproduce

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30
Q

when do women lose their ability to reproduce?

A

once they reach menopause

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31
Q

T/F advanced paternal age has been
linked with higher rates of autism and attention deficit hyperactivity disorder among children

A

True

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32
Q

define menopause

A

a period of transition in which a women’s ovaries stop releasing eggs and level of estrogen and progesterone production decreases

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33
Q

when is a women considered to be menopausal?

A

a year without menstruation

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34
Q

define menopausal transition & what could it also be referred as?

A

perimenopause
- when women have changes in their monthly cycle, hot flashes, or other symptoms

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35
Q

at what age does menopause begin? how long does it last?

A

45 to 55 years of age, usually last about 7 to 14 years

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36
Q

what are postmenopausal women vulnerable to?

A

heart disease and osteoporosis

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37
Q

who is most likely to suffer more from hot flashes?

A

african american and hispanics are most likely to have hot flashes for more years than white and asian women

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38
Q

what are some ways to address hot flashes?

A

avoid alcohol, caffeine, and spicy foods, eat a healthy diet, non hormonal medications hormonal medications

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39
Q

define andropause

A

a syndrome associated with a decrease in sexual satisfaction or a decline in a feeling of general well-being w low levels of testosterone in older men

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40
Q

why do some doctors deny the reality of andropause?

A

it lacks a well-defined period as observed in female menopause

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41
Q

what are some potential risk examples for testosterone replacement therapy?

A

acne, disturbed breathing, breast swelling or tenderness, swollen ankles, higher risk of cardiovascular problems, and prostate cancer

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42
Q

T/F Vitamin deficiency may occur if the right foods are consumed?

A

False.
- may occur if the right foods are NOT consumed

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43
Q

define “the Mediterranean Diet” and what is it linked to?

A

a diet rich in plant-based foods, healthy fats, nuts, fish in moderation, and sparing use of red meats
often linked between diet and inflammation

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44
Q

describe the ideal diet and its measurements

A

low in sugar, fat, sodium, cholesterol
high in fiber
(sodium less than 2300 mg/day, cholesterol less than 300 mg/day)

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45
Q

what does fiber reduce the risk of?

A

certain cancers and heart disease

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46
Q

T/F starch converts to fat in the body

A

converts to sugar in the body

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47
Q

what could consecutive sleep loss do to ones health and well-being?

A

after 3 days, both negative emotions and severity of physical symptoms tended to be higher

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48
Q

what was the main study in the Seattle Longitudinal Study?

A

at what age is there a reliably detectable decrement in ability, and what is its magnitude?

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49
Q

at what age is there a reliably detectable decrement in ability, and what is its magnitude?

A

no prior to age 60, but there is a earlier slowing in response speed and/or earlier age of decile due to other reasons (genetic factors, pathology, poverty)

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50
Q

what is the average age for cognitive decline? reliable decrement change?

A

age 74, age 81 fewer than half showed reliable decrement change

51
Q

can intellectual decline w increasing age be reversed by educational intervention?

A

cognitive training resulted in significant improvement in approx. 60% of experimental subjects, and 40% had declined significantly over 14 years; returned to their cognition level

52
Q

what declines in memory overtime?

A

recall, episodic memory, processing speed, divided attention, and fluid IQ

53
Q

what is stable in memory overtime?

A

implicit memory and recognition

54
Q

what is improving in memory overtime?

A

semantic memory, crystalized IQ, and emotional reasoning

55
Q

what are the two fundamental conflicts of adulthood?

A

generativity and stagnation

56
Q

define generativity

A

establishing ways to guide the next generation (parenting), also be outliving the self through contributions to the collective and giving back

57
Q

define stagnation

A

feeling of lethargy and lack of enthusiasm and involvement in both individual and communal affairs

58
Q

how is stagnation possible?

A

when the demands of family, work, and relationship diminish resulting in lack of enthusiasm and involvement

59
Q

according to Jung, describe the first half of life

A

involved a lot of social striving, professional goals and focus on self-aggrandizement

60
Q

according to jung, describe the second half of life. and what is another term for the afternoon of life

A

midlife, high noon
- involves familial relations, spiritual aspirations, and other humanistic values

61
Q

T/F? the first half of life calls to the fore a different and often compensatory set of values, goals, needs, and priorities from the second half

A

False.
The second half of life calls to the fore… and priorities from the first half of life

62
Q

what is levinsons theory also known as? and what did he argue about it?

A

stage-crisis view
- that each stage overlaps, consisting of two distinct phases

63
Q

what are the two distinct phases in the stage-crisis view?

A

stable and transitional phase

64
Q

at what age did levinson believe to be profound change and what did it culminate to?

A

40-45
he believed it to be a profound change in culminating in a reappraisal, or reaffirmation of goals, commitments and previous choices- recalibrating what was important in life

65
Q

what did levinson say the mens dream was about? when does it form?

A

ages 22-28
- centered on the occupational role and professional ambitions

66
Q

what did levinson say the women dream was about?

A

split between career and marriage/family

67
Q

what were the tasks of the midlife transition?

A

endings early adulthood, reassessing life in the present and making modifications if needed, and reconciling polarities or contradictions in ones self

68
Q

T/F During midlife, some may struggle to reconcile the discrepancy between the “dream” they had for the future and the reality of today.

A

True

69
Q

what is the happiness U-bend mostly based on?

A

cross-sectional data

70
Q

what has most studies documented about happiness and satisfaction?

A

that its at its lowest level at midlife

71
Q

what did the 2013 literature review find about U-bend?

A

that there were mixed findings showing that some studies had found a U-bend, some inverted U-bend and linear relationship

72
Q

at what age is the U-shape of curve forcefully confirmed in? why?

A

midlife for developing and advanced countries as well as in Africa

73
Q

what are the age differences in happiness?

A

very small, .2 to .7 on a 10 point scale

74
Q

who is at most risk by suicide?

A

middle aged adults, specifically men

75
Q

what do most middle-aged adults deal with?

A

dealing with some of the same social and economic challenge as young people

76
Q

T/F middle-age women are at risk of experiencing depression and anxiety

A

True

77
Q

what is most pronounced for women and individuals with fewer years of education?

A

antidepressant use and seeing a mental health professional is highest in midlife compared to earlier or later in adulthood

78
Q

what percent of middle-age adults have multiple chronic conditions and/or psychological distress? and what are the disadvantages?

A

40%, social disadvantages, poor health, activity limitations, and delayed healthcare

79
Q

define socioemotional selectivity theory

A

the theory maintains that as time horizon shrinks, as they typically do with age, people become increasingly selective, investing in greater resources in emotionally meaningful goals and activities

80
Q

what can SST be applied to?

A

terminally ill patients, to both people and activities that we choose to include in our life

81
Q

define mortality salience

A

time is a valuable commodity requiring careful consideration and investment

82
Q

T/F did Baltes believe that becoming better at selection, optimization and compensation can be the path to successful aging

A

True

83
Q

describe the selection process

A

selection includes shifting or modifying goals based on choice or circumstances

84
Q

describe optimization process

A

optimization is about making the best use of the resources we have on pursuing goals

85
Q

describe the compensation process

A

compensation is about using alternative strategies in attaining those goals

86
Q

what did baltes argue that successful aging was a matter of?

A

was a matter of sustained individual engagement, accompanied by a belief in individual self-efficacy and mastery

87
Q

define plaster hypothesis

A

by age 30, the belief that personality is set like plaster

88
Q

narcissism is defined as?

A

having a highly positive or inflated self-concept, strong need to be admired by others

89
Q

define willfulness narcissism

A

an open expression of grandiosity, self-confidence, dominance, in which there is a willful exploration of others

90
Q

define hypersensitive narcissism

A

also known as close narcissist
- oversensitivity to perceived slight or failed appreciation from others, accompanied by chronic feelings of humiliation and rejection

91
Q

define autonomous narcissism

A

healthy ambitions, feelings of vitality, creativity and empathy in adulthood

92
Q

what is the big five acronym ?

A

OCEAN
openness, conscientiousness, extraversion, agreeableness, and narcissism
- enhance by age 32

93
Q

T/F Sandwiched adults are somewhat MORE likely than other adults to say that they are satisfied with
life

A

True

94
Q

T/F parents tend to be as happy as their LEAST happy child

A

True

95
Q

what is related to the happiness of middle-aged parents?

A

their adult children success and problems

96
Q

T/F some adult children were least likely than their siblings to receive support
from their middle-aged parents

A

False.
they were more likely ..

97
Q

what is favoritism linked with?

A

depression, negative sliding relationship

98
Q

what does the parents happiness correlate to?

A

whoever is the least happiest

99
Q

what are some family consequences of an aging population?

A

support or conflict among more generations, might contribute to higher likelihood of transition of culture or language among immigrants

100
Q

what are the qualities for young old? & age?

A

65-74
- may still work full time
- relative health

101
Q

what are the qualities of old old? age?

A

75-84
- live independently, higher chance of dealing w disease

102
Q

what are the qualities of oldest old? age?

A

85+
- might need full time care, nursing homes

103
Q

describe centenarians

A

100+, rare and distinct, usually live in japan

104
Q

define ageism

A

prejudice and discrimination that is directed at older people and may lead to a self-fulfilling prophecy

105
Q

define primary aging

A

process by which cells stop dividing and enter a state of permanent growth arrest without undergoing cell death
-inevitable changes such as hair, skin, weight, height

106
Q

define secondary aging

A

changes that are caused by illness or disease and impact independence, quality of life, family members, and bring financial burden

107
Q

describe the hayflick limit

A

the limited number of times cells divide and then stop (humans cells can divide up to 50x before stopping)

108
Q

describe integrity

A

the ability to look back over life with a feeling of satisfaction, peace, and gratitude

109
Q

describe despair

A

when a person looks back at ones life as unproductive and is dissatisfied

110
Q

describe emotional stability

A

when older adults are more likely to focus on positive things in life and be grateful

111
Q

T/F? low affect variability and low affective reactivity to daily events tend to increase across the adult lifespan

A

True

112
Q

describe social input model

A

suggest that social partners may treat older adults in ways that contribute to positive social experiences, beyond older adults’ individual motivations

113
Q

define physiological death

A

when vital organs no longer function

114
Q

define psychological death

A

when the dying person begins to accept their death and withdraw from others and regress into self

115
Q

define social death

A

when others begin to withdraw from the terminally ill person or has been diagnosed with a terminal illness

116
Q

define grief

A

psychological, physical, and emotional experience and reaction to loss

117
Q

define bereavement

A

outward expressions of grief, the period of mourning following the death of someone; external

118
Q

what are the fives stages of Kubler Ross’s stages of life?

A

denial, anger, bargaining depression and acceptance

119
Q

describe each stage in Kubler Ross’s stages of life

A

denial: refusal to accept
anger: recognition, body goes into motivated state
bargaining: thinking what one could’ve done
depression: why should i continue
acceptance: accepting life will continue

120
Q

describe palliative care and where do they stay?

A

medical care for people living w serious illness, focuses on the quality of life
-home, palliative care clinic

121
Q

describe hospice care and where do they stay?

A

anyone with a serious illness who has less than six months to live, focuses on care, comfort and quality of life
- home, hospice facility, hospital

122
Q

define euthanasia

A

helping a person fulfill their wish to die, can happen in two ways: voluntary and physician assisted suicide

123
Q

what are the two voluntary ways of euthanasia

A

passive and active

124
Q

describe passive euthanasia

A

when they are no longer feeding someone or giving them food

125
Q

describe active euthanasia

A

administering lethal dose of medication to someone who wishes to die

126
Q

describe physician assisted suicide

A

when a physician prescribes the means by which a person can end their own life

Psy 155 (4 decks)

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