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NRS155 Intro to PHARM > Final Exam Practice Questions > Flashcards

Final Exam Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Before administering Naltrexone, the nurse should check the patient’s chart and ensure that:

A. The patient is pregnant
B. The patient has taken naloxone for 7-10 days
C. The patient has diabetes
D. The patient has cardiovascular disease

A

B

Before naltrexone, patients should have undergone a naloxone challenge to make sure that they are opioid free.

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2
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer a Naloxone challenge to a patient with opioid overdose. During administration, she should do the following: SATA

A. Maintain an open airway
B. Monitor ECG
C. Provide artificial ventilation
D. Feel comfortable leaving the patient for several hours at a time
E. Continuously monitor the patient
A

A, B, C, E

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3
Q

The nurse is preparing discharge paperwork for his patient on naltrexone therapy. He will anticipate teaching his patient what about therapy?

A. You can take hydrocodone for pain.
B. Wear or carry a Medic Alert bracelet
C. You will need to be continuously monitored
D. It’s perfectly normal for your heart to start racing, so you don’t need to call your doctor about that.

A

B, C

A - Hydrocodone is a narcotic agonist, so we should never tell our patients to take this with naltrexone.
D - While tachycardia is a usual ADE, it is also a dangerous one, so the patient should definitely call the doctor

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4
Q

Narcotic Agonists-Antagonists Memory Trick “BaBies aNd Pain”

A

Buprenophine
Butorphanol
Nalbuphine
Pentazocine

So for treating Moderate to Severe Pain and Labor Pain

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5
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer nalbuphine. She will hold the drug for what on the patient’s chart? SATA

A. Sulfite Allergy
B. Physical dependence on a narcotic
C. COPD
D. Acute MI
E. Renal/Hepatic Dysfxn
F. Pain Level 7/10
G. PG and Lactation
A

A, B, C, D, E, G

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6
Q

During the administration of a narcotic agonist-antagonist, the nurse should make sure to perform the following interventions: SATA

A. Monitor injection sites for irritation and extravasation
B. Make sure to administer the patient’s normal barbiturate during therapy
C. Monitor timing of the dose so the patient doesn’t get behind the pain
D. Avoid injecting the drugs into any body area that is chilled or has poor perfusion

A

A, B, D

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7
Q

The nurse is checking the client’s chart before administering oxycodone. She will call the doctor if she finds which of the following? SATA

A. HTN
B. Allergy
C. Diarrhea d/t ingested poison
D. Patient recovering from ORIF
E. Patient recovering from intestinal surgery
F. Hx of sleep apnea
G. Hx of CVA
H. Current breastfeeding
I. Liver/Renal Dysfxn
J. DM II
A

B, C, E, F, G, H, I

Oxycodone is a narcotic agonist.

No-Gos are allergy and diarrhea d/t poisoning

Cautions include: respiratory depression, PG, labor, lactation, GI or GU surgery, Acute abdomen or ulcerative colitis, head injuries, alcoholism, CVA, renal/hepatic dysfxn

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8
Q

What memory trick do we use to remember the ADEs of narcotic agOnists?

A

lOw and slOw for narcOtic agOnists

Meaning low respiratory, low hr, low BP, slow bowels leading to constipation, and low cns (dizziness)

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9
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient that has received morphine. She assesses VS and discovers that her patient’s HR is 48 bpm and his RR is 10 bpm. She knows that her patient is experiencing:

A. The blocking effects of metoprolol
B. The Respiratory and Cardiac depressive effects of narcotic agonists.
C. The effects of narcotic antagonists

A

B

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10
Q

Before administering any antibiotic, the nurse will assess and check for the following: SATA

A. Allergy
B. Perform any culture and sensitivity tests
C. Mood and Orientation
D. WBC and Renal fxn

A

A, B, D

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11
Q

The client states, “Ever since the doctor started me on that antibiotic, my mouth has just gotten more dry. It’s even hard to swallow sometimes”. The correct from the nurse is…

A. “That is a normal effect of antibiotic use and eventually your body will get used it”
B. “I’ll call the doctor and ask him to come talk to you”
C. “We need to stop this drug immediately”
D. “That is a normal effect of the drug, but there are ways to help you. Make sure to brush your teeth regularly, you can suck on ice chips, and sugarless candy will also help”

A

D

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12
Q

During the administration of an antibiotic, the nurse should do the following: SATA

A. Check culture and sensitivity reports
B. Ensure the pt receives the full course of the drug
C. Monitor the infection site and presenting s/sx
D. Monitor for any ADEs
E. Provide frequent, small meals for GI upset

A

A, B, C, D, E

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13
Q

Which of the antibiotic classes are bactericidal? SATA

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Carbapenems
C. Cephalosporins
D. Fluoroquinolones
E. Penicillins and Penicillinase-resistant
F. Sulfonamides
G. Tetracyclines
A

A, B, C, E

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14
Q

Which of the antibiotic classes are bacteriostatic? SATA

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Carbapenems
C. Cephalosporins
D. Fluoroquinolones
E. Penicillins and Penicillinase-resistant
F. Sulfonamides
G. Tetracyclines
A

C, D, F, G

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15
Q

Which antibiotic class is the one safest for use with children?

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Carbapenems
C. Cephalosporins
D. Fluoroquinolones
E. Penicillins and Penicillinase-resistant
F. Sulfonamides
G. Tetracyclines
A

E

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16
Q

The patient has a serious infection and has been started on Streptomycin therapy. The nurse will monitor for which adverse effects of the drug?

A. HA
B. Ototoxicity
C. super infection
D. Nephrotoxicity
E. Bone Marrow Suppression
A

B, D, E

Streptomycin is an aminoglycoside. These are the ADEs.

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17
Q

Which antibiotic class has a nursing intervention of ensuring adequate fluid intake to prevent nephrotoxicity?

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Carbapenems
C. Cephalosporins
D. Fluoroquinolones
E. Penicillins and Penicillinase-resistant
F. Sulfonamides
G. Tetracyclines
A

A

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18
Q

What is the suffix for Carbapenems?

A

“-PENEM”

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19
Q

The nurse has an order for doripenem. She will hold admin and call the doctor for what in the patient’s chart? SATA

A. myasthenia gravis
B. seizure disorder
C. parkinsonism
D. inflammatory bowel disorders
E. Pregnancy
A

B, D, E

Doripenem is a carbapenem. The No Gos include seizure or inflammatory bowel disorders

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20
Q

The patient has a serious infection and has been given ertapenem. The nurse knows to watch for which serious adverse effects of the drug?

A. HA
B. Insomnia
C. Pseudomembranous colitis
D. C-Diff

A

C, D

ertapenem is a carbapenem.

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21
Q

What are the suffixes for Cephalosporins?

A

“CEF-“

“CEPH-“

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22
Q

The doctor has ordered cephalexin for a patient with an infection. Before administration the nurse will look for which other drugs that the patient is taking that would hold the admin of cephalexin? SATA

A. Gentamicin
B. Warfarin
C. Drank alcohol yesterday
D. antacids
E. Quinidine
A

A, B, C

A - Aminoglycosides taken with cephalosporins increase the risk of nephrotoxicity

B - Oral Anticoagulants taken with cephalosporins increase the risk of bleeding

C - MUST wait 72 hours before drinking alcohol after taking this drug

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23
Q

What is the suffix for Fluoroquinolones?

A

“-FLOXACIN”

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24
Q

Which of the antibiotics has a black box warning for risk of tendinitis and tendon rupture?

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Carbapenems
C. Cephalosporins
D. Fluoroquinolones
E. Penicillins and Penicillinase-resistant
F. Sulfonamides
G. Tetracyclines
A

D

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25
Q

The nurse is preparing discharge paperwork for a patient taking ciprofloxacin. She will teach the patient to call the doctor before he takes which of the following drugs? SATA

A. Tetracycline
B. Antacids
C. Warfarin
D. Quinidine
E. Theophylline
F. Any NSAIDs
A

B, D, E, F

Ciprofloxacin is a fluoroquinolone.

B - Antacids decrease the effects of ciprofloxacin
D - Quinidine decreases the QT interval
E, F - increase hallucinations

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26
Q

Which of the antibiotics is broad spectrum?

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Carbapenems
C. Cephalosporins
D. Fluoroquinolones
E. Penicillins and Penicillinase-resistant
F. Sulfonamides
G. Tetracyclines
A

E

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27
Q

What is the suffix for Penicillins and penicillinase-resistant antibiotics?

A

“-ICILLIN”

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28
Q

The patient is allergic to penicillin. Which other antibiotic should we avoid administering to the patient because of this allergy?

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Carbapenems
C. Cephalosporins
D. Fluoroquinolones
E. Penicillins and Penicillinase-resistant
F. Sulfonamides
G. Tetracyclines
A

C

Cephalosporins and Penicillins are similar in structure so if a patient is allergic to one, they will have a hypersensitivity reaction to the other

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29
Q

The nurse is providing education to the parent of a child with an ear infection. The doctor has ordered amoxicillin. What care instruction should the nurse give to the mother?

A. Keep the drug in a room temperature, dry area away from children
B. Refrigerate the liquid form of this drug and follow the directions for shaking before your administer
C. It is ok to warm up the medicine for your child so they like to take it
D. You can use a regular spoon to measure out the dosage amount

A

B

Penicillins should be refrigerated if needed, and the liquid form of amoxicillin needs to be refrigerated

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30
Q

What is the suffix for sulfonamides?

A

“-SULFA”

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31
Q

Which of the antibiotics is for treating G+ and G- infections?

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Carbapenems
C. Cephalosporins
D. Fluoroquinolones
E. Penicillins and Penicillinase-resistant
F. Sulfonamides
G. Tetracyclines
A

F

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32
Q

Before administering sulfadiazine, the nurse knows to check for what absolute contraindications of the drug? SATA

A. Allergy to sulfas
B. Renal Dysfxn
C. Allergy to thiazides
D. PG

A

A, C, D

Sulfonamides are teratogenic

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33
Q

The nurse is preparing discharge education for a patient taking sulfasalazine. She will teach the patient what about the PO form of the drug?

A. Take on an empty stomach 1 hr or 2 hrs after meals with a full glass of water
B. Take every morning with breakfast
C. Take before bed on an empty stomach
D. Make sure you chew the capsule and dissolve it in water

A

A

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34
Q

What is the suffix for Tetracyclines?

A

“-CYCLINE”

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35
Q

Which of the antibiotics is a substitute for penicillin when it can’t be given?

A. Aminoglycosides
B. Carbapenems
C. Cephalosporins
D. Fluoroquinolones
E. Penicillins and Penicillinase-resistant
F. Sulfonamides
G. Tetracyclines
A

G

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36
Q

The nurse is caring for an elementary age child with an ear infection. Although he has a confirmed allergy to penicillin, the nurse knows he should not receive what drug and why?

A. Amphotericin B b/c it causes renal toxicity
B. Tetracycline b/c it causes damage to teeth and bones
C. Hydromorphone b/c it causes constipation
D. Ciprofloxacin b/c it causes liver failure

A

B

A - This is an antifungal, not an antibiotic
C - This is an opioid, not an antibiotic
D - This is a fluoroquinolone, which is an antibiotic, but children should NEVER be given this drug no matter what

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37
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer tetracycline to her patient. She will teach the patient about the drug, but especially these important things: SATA

A. Take the drug on an empty stomach
B. Report yellowing of the skin, difficulty urinating, and discoloring of your teeth to your doctor
C. Refrigerate this medication
D. Wear sunscreen and cover up in the sun

A

A, B, D

B - The drug has the potential to cause renal/hepatic dysfxn and teeth and bone damage, so the patient should report these changes to the doctor immediately

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38
Q

What is the memory trick for Anti-TB Antimycobacterials?

A 
"RIPES"
Rifampin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
Streptomycin
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39
Q

What is the leprostatic drug?

A

Dapsone

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40
Q

What phrase to remember with Rifampin and what ADEs does that phrase refer to?

A

“Red-fampin”

It can turn tears, saliva, and urine orange or red;
Liver Toxicity

41
Q

What phrase to remember with isoniazid and what does that phrase refer to?

A

INH

Interferes with absorption of B6 which leads to…

Neuropathy - report numbness and tingling

Hepatotoxicity

42
Q

What memory trick to remember with ethambutol?

A

E=eye

Baseline and periodic eye exams

Report blurred vision or color changes

43
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with tuberculosis. She knows what about the administration of anti-TB meds?

A. Always give in combination with another drug
B. Treatment lasts 2 months
C. Cross-sensitivity to cephalosporins
D. No alcohol

A

A

44
Q

When administering an anti-TB drug, the nurse will provide what education to the patient? SATA

A. Treatment lasts 6-12 months, so please be compliant
B. This drug will interfere with hormonal birth control
C. Creams and lotions should be rubbed gently on the area
D. For pregnant patients, take INH, ethambutol, or rifampin

A

A, B, D

45
Q

The patient has been prescribed dapsone. The nurse will expect to find what diagnosis on the patient’s chart?

A. TB
B. Amebiasis
C. C-Diff
D. Leprosy

A

D

46
Q

What are the 2 Lincosamides?

A

Clindamycin

Lincomycin

47
Q

The patient is taking clindamycin. What adverse effects will the nurse watch for? SATA

A. C-Diff
B. Bone Marrow Suppression
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Superinfection

A

A, B

48
Q

What is the suffix for the macrolides?

A

“-THROMYCIN”

49
Q

Which macrolide is for the treatment of C-Diff in patients ages 6 months and up?

A

Fidaxomicin

50
Q

The nurse has administered erythromycin to the patient for treatment of a respiratory infection. The nurse will watch for which adverse drug effects? SATA

A. C-Diff
B. Hearing Loss/Ototoxicity
C. Liver Toxicity
D. Dizziness

A

A, B, C

51
Q

What is the suffix for Oxazolidinones?

A

“-ZOLID”

52
Q

The student nurse is studying antibiotics. She is studying the drug Linezolid. What adverse drug effects does she know happen as a result of therapy? SATA

A. Superinfection
B. Liver Toxicity
C. C-Diff
D. Thrombocytopenia

A

C, D

53
Q

Which monobactam is the only one for IV administration?

A

aztreonam

54
Q

The patient is receiving aztreonam for treatment of a gram negative infection. What adverse drug effects should the nurse expect?

A. N/V/D
B. Ototoxicity
C. Bone Marrow Suppression
D. Liver Toxicity

A

A

55
Q

What are the suffixes for Lipoglycopeptides?

A

“-VANCIN” &

VANCOMYCIN

56
Q

The patient is receiving telavancin. The nurse knows that the adverse effects to watch for are: SATA

A. Nephrotoxicity
B. Foamy Urine (Not serious)
C. Taste Alterations
D. Prolonged QT

A

A, B, D

Foamy urine is something the nurse should warn the patient about, but only so they know that’s it’s normal and we shouldn’t worry about it

57
Q

The nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin to the patient via the IV route. She knows what about administration? SATA

A. Perform the infusion low and slow
B. Vanco is highly irritating to the Vein
C. Flush the vein first and assess the IV before admin
D. Admin IV Push very quickly
E. Monitor the IV site during infusion

A

A, B, C, E

58
Q

The oral form of vancomycin treats what disease?

A. UTI
B. Diabetic Neuropathy
C. Gram Positive Infections
D. C-Diff.

A

D

59
Q

The student nurse is preparing to administer vancomycin via the patient’s IV. Her instructor knows that she understands the results of rapid infusion when she states: SATA

A. Rapid infusion of vancomycin causes red man syndrome
B. S/sx of too fast infusion include sudden hypotension, flushing & pruritis, red rash on face, neck, chest, and extremities
C. There are no adverse effects associated with rapid infusion
D. The treatment is to slow down the infusion

A

A, B, D

60
Q

Put the following steps of the order of administration for systemic antifungals in the correct order. 1. Begin antifungal therapy 2. check the culture and sensitivity report 3. Culture the infected area 4. monitor for liver impairment

A. 4, 3, 2, 1
B. 3, 2, 4, 1
C. 3, 2, 1, 4
D. 1, 2, 4, 3

A

C

61
Q

Which labs should the nurse check before administration of a systemic antifungal? SATA

A. CBC
B. Liver Fxn
C. Renal Fxn
D. Culture and Sensitivity

A

A, B, C, D

62
Q

What is the suffix for Azoles and what class of drugs are they?

A

“-CONAZOLE” &
TERBINAFINE

Systemic Antifungals

63
Q

What is the suffix for Echinodandins and what class of drugs are they?

A

“-FUNGIN”

Systemic Antifungals

64
Q

What is the phrase to remember Systemic Antifungals and what are the drugs?

A

“AntiFunGals Are Especially Narly for the liver”

Amphotericin B
Flucytosine
Griseofulvin
Azoles
Echinodandins
Nystatin
65
Q

Which of the following antifungals have pediatric dosing? SATA

A. Fluconazole
B. Flucytosine
C. Ketoconazole
D. Terbinafine
E. Amphotericin B
F. Griseofulvin
G. Nystatin
A

A, C, D, F, G

66
Q

The patient has received fluconazole for a fungal infection. What adverse effects should the nurse watch for?

A. HA
B. Hepatotoxicity
C. Bone marrow suppression
D. N/V

A

B

67
Q

Which of the systemic antifungals are teratogenic?

A

Azoles

Echinodandins

68
Q

The nurse has administered caspofungin. He will monitor for which adverse drug effects? SATA

A. HA
B. N/V
C. Liver toxicity
D. Bone marrow suppression

A

C, D

69
Q

Which of the systemic antifungals can cause renal toxicity?

A. Azoles
B. Echinodandins
C. Amphotericin B
D. Griseofulvin

A

C

70
Q

The patient is a child with oral candida. The nurse can expect the physician to order which drug and route of administration?

A. fluconazole via oral route
B. nystatin swished or spread around the mouth
C. amphotericin b via IV route
D. griseofulvin via oral route

A

B

71
Q

What teaching points should the nurse include for a patient taking a systemic antifungal? SATA

A. Call the physician for yellowing eyes, easy bruising, itchy skin, or dark urine
B. Take the drug until you see no s/sx of the fungus
C. This drug will take a long time to eradicate the infection. Take the full course of the drug
D. You’ll have to come to the doctor’s office to receive an injection

A

A, C

72
Q

What is the suffix +2 drug names for the topical antifungals?

A

at&t

“-AZOLE”
TERBINAFINE
TOLNAFTATE

73
Q

What is the only contraindication for topical antifungals?

A

Known allergy to the drug

74
Q

T/F:

Topical antifungals are not systemically absorbed.

A

True

75
Q

The nurse is preparing education for a patient that will be using terbinafine. Which of the following facts will she include? SATA

A. You may experience irritation, burning, rash, or swelling at the site of the infection
B. This medicine is absorbed systemically, so you may experience some side effects like nausea or vomiting
C. Do not use this cream over open or draining areas of the skin
D. Do not use a tight dressing or tight diapers over the affected area

A

A, C, D

76
Q

After the administration of a vaginal suppository, the nurse will instruct the patient to remain in what position and for how long?

A. Supine for 5 min
B. Dorsal recumbent for 10 min
C. lithotomy for 20 min
D. Supine for 10 min

A

B

77
Q

What are the suffixes for antimalarials?

A

“-QUIN”

“QUIN-“

78
Q

The patient asks the nurse, “How exactly does quinine work? I don’t understand how it will protect me from malaria”. Select the correct response from the nurse.

A. The drug enters your RBCs and changes the metabolic pathways necessary for the Plasmodium to reproduce and grow.
B. Enter the RBC and alters DNA synthesis of the plasmodium to halt replication.
C. Works by making RBCs impervious to plasmodium so that the body cannot be infected.
D. It directly destroys the plasmodium that cause the disease in the body.

A

A

79
Q

T/F?

Antimalarials are for the prophylaxis and treatment of the infection of plasmodium.

A

True

80
Q

A patient is planning on traveling to Africa in a month. Before recommending an antimalarial such as chloroquine, the nurse will check the patient’s history for which contraindications? SATA

A. Blindness
B. Allergy 
C. Liver Disease
D. Alcoholism
E. Alopecia
F. PG and Lactation
A

B, C, D, F

A - this a common ADE of antimalarials, but not a contraindication

81
Q

Before administering an quinine, the nurse will assess for which diseases or conditions that the physician should be aware of because they are listed as cautions? SATA

A. Retinal disease or damage
B. Alopecia
C. Psoriasis 
D. Porphyria
E. Damage to mucous membranes
F. Ataxia
A

A, C, D, E

A - one of the ADEs is blindness, so we want to show caution with a patient that already has damage to the eyes
C - One of the ADEs is hair loss, so we want to show caution with a patient that already gets scaly rashes and has the possibility of hair loss
D - This med works by entering the RBCs, so we should show caution in patients that already have a disease that effects the RBCs

82
Q

The patient is taking mefloquine as prophylaxis treatment before traveling to India. The nurse knows to expect which adverse effects of therapy? SATA

A. HA, dizziness
B. N/V
C. Hepatic Dysfxn
D. Hair Loss
E. Blindness
F. Ototoxicity
A

A, B, C, D, E, F

These are all ADEs of antimalarials

83
Q

Which lab values will the nurse pay special attention to before administering quinine?

A. Blood culture
B. CBC
C. Renal/Hepatic Fxn
D. PaO2

A

A, C

A - We check this to make sure we are treating the correct protozoa

84
Q

The patient will be taking mefloquine before and during travel to Africa. What will the nurse teach the patient about the drug? SATA

A. Only take the med when you feel sick during your trip
B. Take the complete course of the drug exactly as prescribed
C. Mark a calendar or set an alarm for prophylactic doses
D. You will need an ophthalmological exam before you begin therapy
E. You should never take this med with food
F. Report any hearing or vision changes to your doctor

A

B, C, D, F

85
Q

Which antiprotozoal agents treat amebiasis, trichomoniasis, and giardiasis? SATA

A. Atovaquone
B. Metronidazole
C. Pentamidine
D. Tinidazole
E. Benznidazole 9
A

B, D

86
Q

Which antiprotozoal agents treat PCP?

A. Atovaquone
B. Metronidazole
C. Pentamidine
D. Tinidazole
E. Benznidazole 9
A

A, C

87
Q

Which protozoal diseases does pentamidine treat? SATA

A. PCP
B. Amebiasis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Giardiasis
E. Trypanosomiasis
F. Leishmaniasis
G. Chagas in Pediatric patients
A

A, E, F

88
Q

Which protozoal disease does benznidazole 9 treat?

A. PCP
B. Amebiasis
C. Trichomoniasis
D. Giardiasis
E. Trypanosomiasis
F. Leishmaniasis
G. Chagas in Pediatric patients
A

G

89
Q

What is the way to remember the antiprotozoal agents?

A

“-IDAZOLE” + 5DINE (PENTAMIDINE) AND ATOVAQUONE

90
Q

The nurse knows to watch for which adverse effects for the patient taking atovaquone for PCP? SATA

A. HA, dizziness, ataxia
B. Peripheral neuropathies
C. Loss of coordination
D. Mood Changes
E. N/V/D
F. Loss of Libido
G. Superinfections
A

A, B, C, E, G

91
Q

What are the suffixes for the influenza a and respiratory virus agents?

A

“-IVIR”

“-ANTADINE”

92
Q

Which of the following are correct nursing interventions for treatment or prevention of influenza A? SATA

A. Teach the patient to stay home and wear a mask
B. Start oseltamivir regimen asap after exposure to the virus, usually w/in 2 days of symptoms
C. Admin the flu vaccines before flu season
D. Admin the full course of oseltamivir
E. Teach the patient to wash hands every 10 minutes

A

B, C, D

93
Q

The patient has been started on the med peramivir for a respiratory infection. The nurse is teaching the patient when to call the doctor. She is correct which she states:

A. Call the doctor when you have a HA.
B. Call the doctor when you experience fatigue.
C. Call the doctor if you develop a rash that starts to spread or blister.

A

C

C- this is Stevens-Johnson syndrome, a serious ADE of Peramivir

94
Q

The patient has a respiratory infection. Why would the nurse recommend that the doctor not order amantadine? SATA

A. HA
B. Allergy
C. Fatigue
D. Renal Impairment
E. PG 
F. Lactation
A

B, D, E, F

95
Q

The patient has been started on rimantadine therapy for a respiratory viral infection. Which adverse effects will the nurse teach the patient he could experience? SATA

A. Dizziness
B. Insomnia
C. Nausea
D. Ataxia
E. Othostatic hypotension
F. Aphasia
G. Urinary retention
A

A, B, C, E, G

96
Q

The nurse is caring for a patient with herpes. She knows that she will not administer acyclovir for what contraindications in the patient? SATA

A. Allergy
B. Hepatic Dysfxn
C. PG and/or Lactation
D. Renal Disease
E. Severe CNS disorders
F. PCOS
A

A, C, D, E

97
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of iodism?

A

Metallic taste and sore mouth

98
Q

What is iodism?

A

Too much iron in the body, or iron toxicity

NRS155 Intro to PHARM (14 decks)

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