Final Exam part 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is biogeography?

A

variation in species diversity and distribution across space

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2
Q

Biogeographic patterns are influenced by __________.

A

history, evolution, climate, physiology, and local interactions

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3
Q

_________ and _______ are the primary drivers of global species distributions.

A

temperature, and precipitation

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4
Q

Precipitation varies by _______.

A

Latitude

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5
Q

Species diversity varies by ________.

A

latitude

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6
Q

Why are the tropics more diverse?

A
  1. more solar energy
  2. niche conservatism
  3. lack of seasonality
  4. higher diversification
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7
Q

Historical biogeography studies how _____________.

A

past environmental factors have shaped current species distributions

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8
Q

What is the continental drift per year?

A

2.5 centimeters (1 inch)

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9
Q

Biogeographic regions correspond to __________.

A

Earth’s tectonic plates

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10
Q

Continental drift has resulted in unique ____________.

A

flora and fauna across continents

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11
Q

Biogeographical patterns in species distribution can occur due to _________.

A

past vicariance or dispersal

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12
Q

What is species-area relationship?

A

larger regions support more species

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13
Q

Why do larger regions support more species?

A

more niche space, larger population sizes leads to lower extinction rate

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14
Q

Smaller land areas have _______ species.

A

less

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15
Q

Species richness can be affected by (besides size) ___________.

A

distance from a source of species

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16
Q

What is the equilibrium theory of island biogeography?

A

Uses an area’s size and distance to a source population to determine species richness

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17
Q

The number of species on an island depends on. balance between ____________.

A

Immigration rates and extinction rates

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18
Q

What is an equilibrium number of species?

A

the number of species that should theoretically “fit” on an island

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19
Q

The equilibrium theory of island biogeography can be used to predict _____________.

A

The regional species pool of many habitats (not just islands)

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20
Q

When was the origin of life?

A

3.4-3.8 billion years ago

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21
Q

What was the Precambrian?

A

interval between the formation of Earth 4.6 billion years ago and the appearance of most animal groups 541 million years ago

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22
Q

What were the key developments of the precambrian?

A

liquid water, life, photosynthesis, oxygen atmosphere

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23
Q

Life was exclusively _______ for most of Earth’s history.

A

unicellular

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24
Q

What photosynthetic bacteria was responsible for the creation of the oxygen rich atmosphere?

A

Cyanobacteria

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25
Q

What was the Phanerozoic eon?

A

The interval between 541 million years ago and the present

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26
Q

What are the three domains of life?

A

bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotic

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27
Q

Archaea are ______ closely related to eukaryotes than bacteria

A

more

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28
Q

When did bacteria emerge?

A

3.5 billion years ago

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29
Q

When did archaea emerge?

A

approximately 3 million years ago

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30
Q

When did eukaryotes emerge?

A

1.2 billion years ago

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31
Q

Bacteria, archaea, and eukaryotes are all ______________.

A

monophyletic groups

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32
Q

Bacteria and most archaea are __________.

A

prokaryotes

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33
Q

What are prokaryotes?

A

cells that lack a membrane bound nucleus

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34
Q

Eukaryotic organisms have cells that have a ______________ nucleus.

A

membrane-bound

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35
Q

Eukaryotes can be ___________ or _________.

A

single, multicellular

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36
Q

Most Eukaryotic organisms are ___________.

A

protists

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37
Q

What is a microbe?

A

microscopic organisms

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38
Q

Bacteria and archaea are __________ and _________.

A

prokaryotes, microbes

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39
Q

The majority of bacteria are ____________.

A

Unnamed and undescribed

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40
Q

Lineages are of bacteria and archaea are _____, __________, _________, and _______.

A

ancient, diverse, abundant, and ubiquitous

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41
Q

How long were prokaryotes the only form of life on earth?

A

1.9 billion years

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42
Q

Bacteria and archaea are the __________ life-forms on earth today.

A

dominant

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43
Q

Where can bacteria and archaea be found?

A

almost everywhere (diverse habitats)

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44
Q

What is a microbiome?

A

the community of microbes that inhabits a particular area

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45
Q

What are extremophiles?

A

bacteria and archaea that live in high-salt, high-temperature, low-temperature, or high pressure habitats

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46
Q

Why are extremophiles a hot area of research?

A
  1. help us understand the origin of life
  2. explorations in extraterrestrial life
  3. commercial applications
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47
Q

Where do chemoorganotrophs get their energy from?

A

organic molecules

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48
Q

Where do chemolithotrophs get their energy from?

A

inorganic molecules

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49
Q

Bacteria and archaea are ____________ diverse.

A

morphologically

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50
Q

How are bacteria and archaea morphologically diverse?

A

size, shape, and mobility

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51
Q

What is cyanobacteria?

A

photosynthetic bacteria, first organism to perform photosynthesis, origin of oxygen in the atmosphere, origin of chloroplast

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52
Q

When did cyanobacteria evolve?

A

2.5-2.7 billion years ago

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53
Q

How does bacteria play a role in nitrogen fixation?

A

provides usable nitrogen for plants to incorporate into biomass

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54
Q

What are the key differences between bacteria and archaea?

A
  1. Bacteria have peptidoglycan in their cell wall
  2. Machinery used in the central dogma in archaea are more like those in eukaryotes than bacteria
  3. Bacteria are often pathogenic
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55
Q

What are pathogens?

A

bacteria that can cause disease

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56
Q

What is virulence?

A

the ability to cause disease

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57
Q

Virulence is a _________ trait.

A

heritable

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58
Q

What do antibiotics do?

A

kill bacteria or stop them from growing

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59
Q

Why do some bacteria and fungi naturally produce antibiotics?

A

to reduce competition

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60
Q

Antibiotics usually target the ___________.

A

cell wall

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61
Q

What does gram stain do?

A

distinguishes between two general types of bacteria

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62
Q

What does gram-positive mean?

A

Plasma membrane surrounded by a cell wall with extensive peptidoglycan

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63
Q

What does gram-negative mean?

A

plasma membrane surrounded by a cell wall with peptidoglycan and an outer lipid layer

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64
Q

Gram-negative bacteria are often more _______________.

A

virulent and difficult to treat

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65
Q

What is a virus?

A

an obligate, intracellular parasite that causes disease and must replicate within a host

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66
Q

Viruses are not __________ and are not made up of _______.

A

cells, cells

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67
Q

Viruses cannot manufacture their own ______, _______, or ________.

A

ATP, amino acids, nucleotides

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68
Q

Viruses do have _______.

A

hereditary material

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69
Q

What are two common morphologies of viruses?

A

Genetic material enclosed by a protein capsid or genetic material enclosed by a capsid and a membrane envelope

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70
Q

What are the steps of viral replication within a host?

A
  1. Viral genome enters a host bacterial cell
  2. Viral genome is transcribed; viral proteins are produced
  3. Viral genome is replicated
  4. Particles assemble inside host
  5. Particles exit to exterior
  6. Free virions in tissue or environment are transmitted to new host
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71
Q

Viruses are always made up of _____ and _____.

A

protein, genetic material

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72
Q

Are viruses organisms?

A

No

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73
Q

What are the requirements of life?

A
  1. consists of cells
  2. replicates
  3. contain hereditary information
  4. acquire and use energy
  5. product of evolution and evolves today
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74
Q

Why do researchers construct phylogenetic trees for specific lineages of viruses?

A

To understand the origin and emergence of new diseases

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75
Q

Viruses are grouped by ________.

A

genetic material

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76
Q

What are viruses further classifies by?

A
  1. virion and genome morphology
  2. nature of host species
  3. how the virus replicates in the host
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77
Q

What kind of virus is Covid?

A

ssRNA (single stranded)

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78
Q

Viruses from the same lineage can have different ______ and cause different types of _______.

A

hosts, diseases

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79
Q

Viral evolution can be very _______.

A

fast

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80
Q

What are the fundamental features of eukarya?

A
  1. most eukaryotic cells are larger than bacteria and archaea and have more organelles
  2. all have nuclear envelopes, the defining feature of eukaryotes
  3. multicellularity is rare in bacteria and archaea but has evolved multiple times in eukaryotes
  4. reproduce asexually through mitosis or sexually through producing gametes
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81
Q

How do bacteria and archaea reproduce asexually?

A

through fission

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82
Q

What were the features of the first eukaryote?

A

a single celled organism with mitochondria, and nucleus and membrane system, and a cytoskeleton but no cell wall

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83
Q

What were the first eukaryotes?

A

protists

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84
Q

What are protists?

A

all eukaryotes that are not plants, fungi, or animals

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85
Q

What occurs in mitochondria?

A

cellular respiration

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86
Q

How did mitochondria originate?

A

Via endosymbiosis when a bacterial cell took up residence within another cell 2 billion years ago

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87
Q

Mitochondria replicate by _____ and _______ is independent of division by the host cell.

A

fission, duplication

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88
Q

Mitochondria have their own ______ and manufacture some of their own _______.

A

ribosomes, proteins

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89
Q

Mitochondria have _________.

A

double membranes

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90
Q

Mitochondria have their own ________, which are circular

A

genomes

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91
Q

How did chloroplasts originate?

A

Via endosymbiosis when a protists engulfed a cyanobacteria

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92
Q

What led to chloroplasts in other lineages?

A

secondary endosymbiosis

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93
Q

How did the nuclear envelope originate?

A

Via infoldings of the plasma membrane

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94
Q

Why was the nuclear membrane favorable?

A

it separated transcription and translation

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95
Q

Chloroplast of some algae have an _____ ______ that contains _______ which supports the endosymbiosis theory.

A

outer layer, peptidoglycan

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96
Q

Why are protists paraphyletic?

A

They have no defining feature that is only found in protists and no other organisms.

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97
Q

Protists tend to live in habitats where they are surrounded by _______ most of the time.

A

water

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98
Q

What is a life cycle?

A

The sequence of events that occur as individuals grow, mature, and reproduce.

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99
Q

Protist reproduce asexually via _________ and sexually through ________.

A

mitotic division, meiotic cell division

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100
Q

Many single celled protist spend their life in either _______ or _______ form.

A

haploid, diploid

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101
Q

What form do most multicellular protist spend their life cycle in?

A

alternating between haploid and diploid

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102
Q

What is a sporophyte?

A

A diploid form that produces haploid spores through meiotic cell division

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103
Q

What is a gametophyte?

A

A haploid form that produces gametes through mitotic cell division

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104
Q

What is a spore?

A

A single haploid cell that divides mitotically to form a multicellular gametophyte.

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105
Q

What is a gamete?

A

A single haploid cell that fuses with another gametes to produce a diploid sporophyte.

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106
Q

Many protists are _____ because they have evolved structures for _________.

A

mobile, movement

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107
Q

Can protists be heterotrophs, autotrophs, or both?

A

both

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108
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

The process of ingesting food much larger than individual molecules

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109
Q

How do protists consume bacteria, archaea, and other protists?

A

Through ingestive feeding (feeding through phagocytosis) or absorptive feeding (taking nutrients up directly from the environment)

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110
Q

Some protists have __________ for support or protection.

A

external shells

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111
Q

Some protists ______ humans.

A

parasitize

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112
Q

______ is one of the world’s most deadly infections, which is caused by a protist (Plasmodium)

A

Malaria

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113
Q

Harmful ________ can release toxins that accumulate in shellfish and harm people.

A

algal blooms

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114
Q

What are dinoflagellates?

A

photosynthetic protists

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115
Q

What is phytoplankton?

A

Photosynthetic protists that drift in open oceans and lakes. Basis of the food chains and freshwater and marine environments

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116
Q

What is zooplankton?

A

Drifting organisms, usually microscopic, that feed on phytoplankton

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117
Q

What is kelp?

A

a multicellular brown algae (protist)

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118
Q

Land plants evolved from an ancestral protists in the _____ _____ lineage.

A

Green algae

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119
Q

green algae are the closest living relative to land plants and form a ______ _________ with them.

A

monophyletic group

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120
Q

What led to the diversification of terrestrial life?

A

When land plants diverged from green algae approximately 475 million years ago

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121
Q

What are the defining characteristics of plants?

A
  1. Multicellular, eukaryotic organisms
  2. Cell walls made of cellulose
  3. Specialized reproductive organs
  4. Have chloroplasts and almost all perform photosynthesis
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122
Q

Why did plants transition to land?

A

Land offers plants resources like more light and carbon dioxide (new niches)

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123
Q

What adaptations prevented water loss when plants transitioned to land?

A

cuticle and stomata

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124
Q

What is a cuticle?

A

Waxy, watertight sealant that covers the above ground parts of plants.

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125
Q

What are stomata?

A

An opening surrounded by specialized guard cells that can open and close to prevent water loss and allow the exchange of carbon dioxide

126
Q

Stomata close in _____ __________ and at _____ to prevent water loss.

A

dry conditions, night

127
Q

Stomata open in ____ _______, allowing the uptake of carbon dioxide.

A

wet conditions

128
Q

What adaptation provided protection from harmful UV radiation when plants transitioned to land?

A

Flavonoids

129
Q

What are flavonoids?

A

UV-absorbing compounds which accumulate on plants and act as sunscreen for leaves and stems

130
Q

What adaptation allowed land plants to move water from tissues with direct access to it to tissues without direct access?

A

Vascular system

131
Q

What does the vascular system do?

A

Transports water from roots to above ground systems

132
Q

The evolution of _____ drove the evolution of the vascular system by providing ______ _______ for plant tissues, allowing upward growth.

A

lignin, structural support

133
Q

What do tracheids do?

A

Allowed for more efficient water transfer through gaps in the secondary lignin wall.

134
Q

What do vessel elements do?

A

Reduce resistance and make water movement more efficient to create a continuous pipe-like structure.

135
Q

In what order did the vascular system evolve?

A
  1. Simple water conducting cells
  2. First vascular tissue (found in fossils)
  3. Tracheids (found in vascular plants)
  4. Vessel elements (found in gnetophytes and angiosperms)
136
Q

What are the four groups of land plants ?

A
  1. Nonvascular plants
  2. Seedless plants
  3. Gymnosperms
  4. Angiosperms
137
Q

What are the characteristics of nonvascular plants?

A

Lack of a vascular system, low sprawling growth habit, anchor to substrate using rhizoids, grow in moist habitats, depend on water for reproduction

138
Q

Do nonvascular plants have stomata or cuticles?

A

No, they live in moist environments.

139
Q

What types of plants are nonvascular plants?

A

liverworts, mosses, and hornworts

140
Q

What are the characteristics of seedless plants?

A

Conducting tissues with cells reinforced by lignin, depend on water for reproduction

141
Q

What types of plants are seedless?

A

ferns, club mosses, and horsetails

142
Q

The evolution of ______ and _______ allowed for reproduction on dry land.

A

seeds, pollen

143
Q

What is pollen?

A

A male gametophyte surrounded by a protected coat to prevent drying.

144
Q

What are seeds?

A

A zygote produced by fertilization, surrounded by a protective coating.

145
Q

What do seeds allow for?

A

Nourishment of zygotes and for offspring to disperse form parents

146
Q

The evolution of pollen an seeds led to a ______ __ _____ _____ about 365 million years ago.

A

radiation of seed plants

147
Q

________ produce seed and pollen grains, but do not produce flowers.

A

Gymnosperms

148
Q

What plants are examples of gymnosperms?

A

Palms and evergreens

149
Q

What is a flower?

A

A reproductive organ

150
Q

What is the stamen?

A

The male reproductive organ of a flower where meiosis occurs, producing pollen grains.

151
Q

What does the stamen consist of?

A

Anther and filament

152
Q

What is a carpel?

A

The female reproductive organ of a flow in which meiosis occurs to produce eggs.

153
Q

What does the carpel consist of?

A

Stigma, style, and ovary

154
Q

The evolution of flowers allowed for the evolution of _____.

A

fruit

155
Q

Fruits increase _____.

A

dispersal

156
Q

What is fruit?

A

A structure that develops an ovary and contains one or more seeds

157
Q

What are angiosperms?

A

flowering plants

158
Q

What is adaptive radiation?

A

A single lineage produces a large number of descendent species adapted to a wide variety of habitats.

159
Q

The evolution of flowers led to an _______ _________.

A

adaptive radiation

160
Q

What are angiosperms traditionally split into?

A

monocots and dicots

161
Q

What is the issue with just classifying angiosperms as monocots and dicots?

A

Dicots are not a monophyletic group, so they were reclassified as edicots and magnoliids

162
Q

All plants show __________ __ __________.

A

alternation of generations

163
Q

What is the nonvascular life cycle dominated by?

A

gametophytes

164
Q

What life cycle came first: sporophyte-dominant or gametophyte-dominant?

A

gametophyte-dominant

165
Q

What types of plants spend much of their life as sporophytes and have complicated reproductive structures?

A

Angiosperms and gymnosperms

166
Q

Why did sporophyte-dominant life cycles evolve?

A

Sporophyte-dominant life cycles were advantageous because diploids can respond to varying environments more efficiently (more genetic diversity)

167
Q

What two things did seeds and pollen allow for?

A

reproduction on dry land and dispersal

168
Q

What did specialized reproductive organs allow for?

A

Embryos to be nourished by the parent plant

169
Q

What stage does dispersal occur in: haploid or diploid?

A

diploid

170
Q

What are the benefits of seed dispersal?

A

reduced competition, new niches, and no reliance on water

171
Q

What allowed for the evolution of animal pollination?

A

Flowers

172
Q

What is pollination?

A

The transfer of pollen from one plant’s stamen to another plant’s carpel

173
Q

What is the directed-pollination hypothesis?

A

Natural selection has favored flower scents, shapes, and colors that attract particular types of pollinators

174
Q

What are the benefits of pollination?

A

cross fertilization (increases genetic diversity, reduces inbreeding) and increased gene flow

175
Q

What determines the energy available to other organisms?

A

plant community structure

176
Q

Plants make life on earth ______.

A

possible

177
Q

Plants provide ________ _________.

A

Ecosystem services

178
Q

What are fungi?

A

Eukaryotes that occupy terrestrial environments

179
Q

Are fungi autotrophs or heterotrophs?

A

Heterotrophs

180
Q

How do fungi get their energy?

A

They release their digestive enzymes into the external environment to absorb small molecules

181
Q

Many fungi live in ________.

A

symbiosis

182
Q

Fungi are both _______ and _________.

A

parasitic, mutualistic

183
Q

Are fungi more closely related to land plants or animals?

A

Animals

184
Q

What key morphological traits do fungi and animals share?

A
  1. synthesize chitin
  2. Flagella of spores and gametes are similar to those observed in animals
  3. Both store food to make glycogen
185
Q

What is chitin?

A

A tough, structural material

186
Q

What two growth forms do fungi exhibit?

A

Yeasts and mycelia

187
Q

What are yeasts?

A

single- celled forms

188
Q

What is mycelia (mycelium)?

A

Multicellular, filamentous structures

189
Q

Why are mycelium dynamic?

A

They grow in the direction of food sources and die back in areas without food

190
Q

When does the body shape of fungus change?

A

Almost continuously throughout its life

191
Q

What adaptation supports the external digestion and absorptive lifestyle of fungi?

A

Mycelium

192
Q

What are hyphae (singular form: hypha)?

A

The filaments making up a mycelium

193
Q

Most hyphae are divided into cell walls called _________, which gaps for exchange of materials.

A

septa

194
Q

What are coenocytic hyphae?

A

Hyphae with no septa and the nuclei are scattered across the mycelium

195
Q

Do fungi have long distance transport systems?

A

No

196
Q

Why are mycelium highly efficient at absorbing nutrients?

A

They are thin, branching networks (high surface area: volume ratio)

197
Q

Where are fungi most abundant and why?

A

Moist habitats because they dry out easily

198
Q

Spores are resistant to ______.

A

drying

199
Q

Fungi reproduce using ______.

A

spores

200
Q

What are conidia?

A

asexual spores produced by mitosis from haploid mycelium

201
Q

What are mating types?

A

genetically distinct hypha from different individuals

202
Q

What is plasmogamy?

A

When hyphae from two different mating types grow near each other and fuse to form a hybrid cell

203
Q

What is a heterokaryotic mycelium?

A

When two different mating types are in one mycelium

204
Q

What is karyogamy?

A

When in a heterokaryotic mycelium, pairs of unlike nuclei fuse to produce a diploid nuclei (zygote)

205
Q

What happens after karyogamy?

A

The diploid zygotę divides via meiosis to produce haploid spores (genetically distinct)

206
Q

What form do most fungi spend the majority of their life cycle in: haploid, diploid, or heterokaryotic?

A

haploid

207
Q

What are the reproductive structure of fungi made of?

A

Hyphae (the only part of the fungus exposed to air)

208
Q

Do hyphae absorb food?

A

no

209
Q

What are the four key types of sexual reproductive structures in fungi?

A
  1. swimming gametes and spores
  2. zygosporangia
  3. basidia
  4. asci
210
Q

What are chytrids and where do they primarily live?

A

Species with swimming gametes, primarily in water and wet soils

211
Q

What are zygosporangia?

A

Spore producing structures formed when hyphae are yoked (Haploid hyphae from two individuals meet and become joined in a spore producing structure)

212
Q

What are species with zygosprangia called?

A

zygomycetes

213
Q

Is the zygomycete life cycle primarily haploid, diploid, or heterokaryotic?

A

Haploid

214
Q

What are basidia?

A

Club-shaped cells at the end of the hyphae where meiosis occurs, forming 4 spores (mushrooms, brackets, and puffballs)

215
Q

What are species with basidia called?

A

basidiomycetes or “club fungi”

216
Q

Do basidiomycota spend their life cycle primarily haploid, diploid, or heterokaryotic?

A

haploid

217
Q

What are asci?

A

sac-like cells at the end of the hyphae where meiosis and one round of mitosis occurs, forming 8 spores.

218
Q

What are species with asci called?

A

ascomycetes or “sac fungi”

219
Q

Do ascomycota primarily spend their life cycle in diploid, haploid, or heterokaryotic form?

A

haploid

220
Q

Fungi lineages are linked to production of different ______________ __________.

A

reproductive structures

221
Q

Which two groups of fungi collapsed into a polytomy?

A

chytrids and zygomycetes

222
Q

Which groups of fungi are monophyletic groups?

A

glomeromycota, basidiomycota, and ascomycota

223
Q

What are saprophytes?

A

Fungi that digest dead plant material

224
Q

Why are fungi efficient decomposers?

A
  1. Extracellular digestion
  2. Breakdown of lignin
  3. Fungi can digest cellulose
225
Q

How do saprophytic fungi impact the terrestrial carbon cycle?

A

They release the carbon stored in the lignin of plants

226
Q

Decomposers release useable ______ and ________ from dead organisms back into the soil.

A

nitrogen, phosphorous

227
Q

What are microsporidia?

A

A lineage of parasitic fungi

228
Q

Parasitic fungi can effect ______ and threaten ____ __________.

A

humans, crop production

229
Q

What are mycorrhizae?

A

Fungi that live in close association with plant roots (mutualistic). Fungi benefit through nutrients received from the plant, plant benefits because the fungi release nitrogen and phosphorous back into the soil.

230
Q

What are endophytes?

A

fungi that live between and within plant cells (mostly mutualistic)

231
Q

What are the key traits shared by all animals?

A
  1. Multicellular eukaryotes whose cells lack a cell wall
  2. Heterotrophs
  3. Move under their own power at some point in their life
  4. Have nerve cells and muscle cells (except sponges)
232
Q

When did the radiation of animals begin?

A

550 million years ago during the Cambrian explosion

233
Q

Common ancestor to animals evolved about ________ million years ago. The first animal appear about _______ million years ago.

A

800, 700

234
Q

What were the first animals?

A

early sponges

235
Q

What caused the Cambrian explosion?

A
  1. Higher oxygen levels
  2. Rise of algae
  3. Evolution of predation
  4. New niches beget more new niches
236
Q

How many phyla of animals do biologist recognize?

A

30-35

237
Q

What are the key themes in animal evolution?

A
  1. evolution of animals is more complicated than a smooth transition from simple to complex
  2. many key innovations did not arise at once
    (“deep homology” followed by homoplasy)
  3. evolution did not stop within any of the lineages
238
Q

How can we study the evolution of animals?

A
  1. comparison of body plans
  2. comparison of developmental processes
  3. comparative genomics
  4. the fossil record
239
Q

What is epithelium?

A

A layer of tightly joined cells that cover the exterior and/or interior surface of animals

240
Q

What necessary genes do sponges have that are used animals for development?

A
  1. specialization of cell types
  2. regulation of cell cycling and growth
  3. developmental signaling and gene regulation
  4. programmed cell death
  5. recognition of self and non-self
241
Q

What genes for contractile proteins do sponges have?

A

actin and myosin

242
Q

What are diploblasts?

A

Two types of embryonic tissue

243
Q

What is endoderm?

A

Inner layer that gives rise to the lining of the digestive tract

244
Q

What is the ectoderm?

A

Outer layer that gives rise to the skin and nervous system

245
Q

What are triploblasts?

A

three types of embryonic tissue

246
Q

What is the mesoderm?

A

Middle layer that gives rise to the circulatory system, muscle, and internal structures

247
Q

What are the three major animal groups?

A

Non-bilateral phyla, protostome phyla, and deuterostome phyla

248
Q

What are characteristics of the non-bilateral phyla?

A

Radial and diploblastic. Use a hydrostatic skeleton ( tissue supported by fluids)

249
Q

What are characteristics of the protostome phyla?

A

bilateral and triploblastic

250
Q

What are characteristics of the deuterostome phyla?

A

bilateral and triploblastic

251
Q

Bilateral symmetry is linked to the development of a _____ _______ and ______________.

A

nervous system, cephalization

252
Q

What is a coelom?

A

An internal, usually fluid filled body cavity lined with mesoderm (synapomorphy of bilateral lineages, but lost in some lineages)

253
Q

What is segmentation?

A

The division of the body or part of the body into a series of similar structures

254
Q

What are characteristics of invertebrates?

A

no backbone, segmentation in body plan

255
Q

What is another name for the protostome phyla and why is it called that?

A

“first mouth” named after the embryonic development of the mouth before the anus

256
Q

What is another name for the deuterostom phyla and why is it called that?

A

“second mouth” named after the embryonic development of the anus before the mouth

257
Q

The vast majority of animals are _________.

A

protostomes

258
Q

What is important about arthropods?

A

They are the most abundant and diverse animals observed in both aquatic and terrestrial ecosystems

259
Q

What are the three key features that characterize arthropods?

A
  1. segmented body
  2. an exoskeleton
  3. joint appendages
260
Q

What is an exoskeleton?

A

hard external skeleton made of chitin

261
Q

What are joint appendages?

A

joints between segments and the legs

262
Q

Insects have ________ and __ ___.

A

wings, siz legs

263
Q

Insects are diverse and abundant and play crucial roles in _______ and ______ ecosystems.

A

aquatic, terrestrial

264
Q

What are the four key requirements of chordates?

A
  1. pharyngeal slits or pouch
  2. dorsal hollow nerve chord
  3. notochord
  4. a muscular, post-anal tail
265
Q

What are vertebrates?

A

organisms that have a vertebrae and a cranium

266
Q

What is a vertebrae?

A

a column of cartilaginous or bony structural support

267
Q

What is a cranium?

A

a bony, cartilaginous, or fibrous case that encloses the brain

268
Q

What were the early key innovations of vertebrates?

A

jaws, lungs (lost in sharks & rays and coopted into swim bladders in ray-finned fishes), and bones

269
Q

What are bones?

A

dense tissue consisting of cells and blood vessels in a matrix of calcium that form an endoskeleton in vertebrates

270
Q

Evolution of limbs allowed the __________.

A

transition onto land

271
Q

What was the “Limbs from Fins Hypothesis”?

A

The fossil record links the limbs of the ancestors of today’s lungfish to those of the earliest land-dwelling vertebrates

272
Q

What are tetrapods?

A

organisms with two pairs of limbs

273
Q

Why were tetrapods a key morphological innovation?

A

They allowed vertebrates to exploit the ecological opportunities of the terrestrial environments, leading to diversification

274
Q

What are amphibians?

A

the first tetrapods to live on land (adults feed on land but lay their eggs in water)

275
Q

what does ectothermic mean?

A

individuals do not use their internally generated heat to regulate their body temperature

276
Q

What did amniotes allow for?

A

allowed for reproduction on land

277
Q

What is an amniotic egg?

A

Eggs that have a protective covering that reduces the rate of drying, allowing species to lay them outside of water

278
Q

Are reptiles more closely related to amphibians or mammals?

A

mammals

279
Q

What is an endotherm?

A

organisms that regulate their body temperature with energy produced internally

280
Q

Mammals have _______ and _____.

A

lactation (mammary glands), fur

281
Q

What is lactation?

A

The production of milk which nourishes offspring

282
Q

Mammals are the only vertebrate group with _____ ________ and _____ which makes suckling possible.

A

cheek muscles, lips

283
Q

Hair is primarily made of _____.

A

Keratin

284
Q

What contains the amniotic egg in most mammals?

A

The placenta

285
Q

What is the placenta?

A

An organ containing maternal and embryonic tissues, provides oxygen and nutrients to the developing embryo

286
Q

What are the benefits of the placenta?

A
  1. Offspring develop at a more consistent temperature
  2. Offspring are protected
  3. Offspring are portable
287
Q

What lineage are humans a part of?

A

Primate

288
Q

Humans evolved from the common ancestor of all ______ animals.

A

placental

289
Q

What are the traits of primates? (6 of them)

A
  1. Hands and feet that are efficient at grasping
  2. Flattened nails instead of claws
  3. Brains that are large relative to body size
  4. Color vision
  5. Complex social behavior
  6. Extensive parental care
290
Q

Humans are the only living hominid that is fully ____.

A

bipedal

291
Q

What is bipedalism?

A

The ability to walk upright on two legs

292
Q

Humans share ____ of our genome with chimpanzees.

A

95%

293
Q

When did humans begin to split off from chimpanzees?

A

6 million years ago

294
Q

What percentage does the brain make of body mass in Humans and what percentage of energy does it use?

A

2% of mass, 20% of energy

295
Q

Approximately when did Homo sapiens evolve?

A

300,000 years ago

296
Q

How much of the human genome is of Neanderthal origin?>

A

4%

297
Q

Why did the Neanderthals go extinct?

A
  1. Inbreeding, causing a decline in genetic diversity
  2. Climate change and competition for resources with humans
  3. Humans had more complex social behaviors
  4. Hybridization between Neanderthals and humans
  5. Conflict between Neanderthals and humans
298
Q

What did the rise in human populations cause?

A

global change

299
Q

What is the current population of Humans on Earth?

A

Approximately 8 million

300
Q

What type of population growth curve does the human population represent?

A

density independent, exponential

301
Q

Will humans reach density dependent growth and overshoot carrying capacity?

A

Yes, if populations growth rate does not decline more.

302
Q

Is population growth rate in Humans currently declining or growing?

A

declining

303
Q

What is fertility rate?

A

Average number of surviving children that a woman has in her lifetime

304
Q

What fertility rate would result in a population growth rate of zero?

A

2

305
Q

What is the current fertility rate?

A

2.5

306
Q

What will the population reach if the growth remains the same?

A

nearly 17 billion

307
Q

What will the population reach if if the growth rate reaches 2?

A

A little over 11 billion

308
Q

What was the growth rate in the 1950’s?

A

5

309
Q

What are endangered species?

A

Species whose number has decreased such that it will go extinct without conservation action

310
Q

Rate of species extinctions are increased with rapidly growing _____ ________.

A

human populations

311
Q

What threats from human activities act on species endangerment/ extinction?

A
  1. Habitat destruction and degradation
  2. Overexploitation
  3. Invasive species and disease
  4. Pollution
  5. Climate change