Final Exam part 2 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a species?

A

Groups of organisms that exchange genes within the group but cannot do so with other groups.

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2
Q

Is the degree of isolation higher in species or populations?

A

species

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3
Q

How is a species isolated from other species?

A

reproductively

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4
Q

What is the biological species concept?

A

Species are defined by reproductive isolation

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5
Q

What are the key components of the biological species concept?

A

Individuals do not interbreed, do not produce viable and fertile offspring, and there is no gene flow

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6
Q

What are the disadvantages of the biological species concept?

A

It cannot be observed in fossils or species that reproduce asexually, difficult to apply id species do not overlap, reproductive isolation can be a gradient

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7
Q

What is the morphological species concept?

A

Identifies evolutionarily distinct lineages by differences in size, shape, or other morphological traits.

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8
Q

What species can the morphological species concept be applied to?

A

sexual, asexual, and fossil species

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9
Q

What are the disadvantages of the morphological species concept?

A

Polymorphic species with different phenotypes get named as two different species, cannot identify cryptic species (identify in traits other than morphologically), and picking distinguishing features can be subjective

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10
Q

What is the phylogenetic species concept?

A

Identifies species based on evolutionary history where species are monophyletic groups

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11
Q

What is a monophyletic group?

A

An ancestral population and all of its descendants

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12
Q

What is a synapomorphy?

A

A trait found in certain groups of organisms and their common ancestor, but is missing in more distant ancestors

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13
Q

What are the disadvantages of the phylogenetic species concept?

A

Careful identified phylogenies are only available for a small subset of species, leads to recognition of more species than other concepts

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14
Q

What is speciation?

A

the formation of a new species

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15
Q

How can mutations cause speciation?

A

Different populations will have different, random mutations

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16
Q

How can natural selection cause speciation?

A

Different populations will have different selection pressure since the environment may be different

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17
Q

How can genetic drift cause speciation?

A

Different alleles may be mixed in different populations

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18
Q

Speciation occurs when ______ is reduced or eliminated.

A

gene flow

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19
Q

Reduced gene flow drives speciation because it ____________.

A

allows for divergence

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20
Q

What is allopatric speciation?

A

speciation due to geographic isolation

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21
Q

What is dispersal?

A

Movement of individuals from one place to another

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22
Q

What is vicariance?

A

Physical splitting of a habitat

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23
Q

What is sympatric speciation?

A

Speciation occurs between populations in the same geographic area

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24
Q

What is sympatry?

A

Living in close relation

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25
Q

What are the requirements of sympatric speciation?

A
  1. no geographic isolation
  2. genetic isolation
  3. genetic divergence
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26
Q

What kind of factors can cause non-random mating?

A

extrinsic factors, intrinsic factors

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27
Q

What are extrinsic factors?

A

Disruptive selection due to environmental difference or mate preferences (outside the organism)

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28
Q

What are intrinsic factors?

A

Chromosomal mutations (inside the organism)

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29
Q

______________ can drive sympatric speciation.

A

Changes in chromosome number

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30
Q

What is polyploidy?

A

Condition of possessing more than two complete sets of chromosomes

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31
Q

What is autopolyploidy?

A

Mutation results in the doubling of chromosome number and all chromosome come from the same species

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32
Q

What is allopolyploidy?

A

Parents of different species mate and then an error in mitosis occurs

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33
Q

________ often leads to speciation in plants.

A

Polyploidy

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34
Q

What is a phylogeny?

A

The branching evolutionary history of related species

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35
Q

What is a phylogenetic tree?

A

A graph that allows us to visualize phylogeny

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36
Q

What are systematics?

A

Discipline of biology that characterizes and classifies the relationships among all organisms on earth

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37
Q

What is a branch?

A

A line representing a species or other taxon through time

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38
Q

What is a root?

A

The most ancestral branch of a tree

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39
Q

What is a tip?

A

Endpoint of a branch; represents a living or extinct species or taxon

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40
Q

What is an outgroup?

A

A taxon that diverge before the taxa that are the focus of the study; helps to root the tree

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41
Q

What is a node/fork?

A

A point within the tree where a branch splits into two or more branches

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42
Q

What does the node represent?

A

the most recent common ancestor of the descendant groups

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43
Q

What is a polytomy?

A

A node that depicts an ancestral branch dividing into three or more descendant branches; usually indicates that insufficient data were available to resolve which taxa are more closely related

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44
Q

What is a paraphyletic group?

A

An ancestral population and some, but not all, of its descendants

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45
Q

What is a polyphyletic group?

A

Share similar traits but does not include the most recent common ancestor

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46
Q

What is an ancestral trait?

A

A trait that existed in an ancestor

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47
Q

What is a derived trait?

A

A trait that is a modified form of an ancestral trait, found in its descendant

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48
Q

What is a homology?

A

When two organism share a trait due to common ancestry

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49
Q

What is a homoplasy?

A

When similar traits evolved independently in two or more lineages and thus are similar for reasons other than lineage

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50
Q

What is convergent evolution?

A

Independant evolution of similar traits in different species due to adaptation to similar environmental conditions or ways of life

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51
Q

There is ________ along the branches of phylogenetic trees.

A

evolution

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52
Q

What is anagenesis?

A

When an original species is transformed into a different species over many generations

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53
Q

What is cladogenesis?

A

A pattern of branching in which an ancestral species gives rise to two or more species

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54
Q

_______ are a hypothesis of the inferred relationships subject to further refinement.

A

Phylogenies

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55
Q

More data within the trait matrix = ________

A

more accurate estimate of phylogenetic trees

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56
Q

What is parsimony?

A

The most likely explanation is the one that requires the fewest steps

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57
Q

What is the fossil record?

A

All fossils that have been found on Earth and described within scientific literature

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58
Q

What is a fossil?

A

Any trace of an organism that lived in the past

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59
Q

What does the fossil record support?

A

Descent with modification

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60
Q

What is an extant species?

A

A species living today

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61
Q

What is the geologic time scale?

A

A sequence o named intervals that represent the major events of Earth’s history

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62
Q

What is a transitional feature?

A

A trait in a fossil species that is intermediate between ancestral and derived species

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63
Q

What is the evidence that species change through time?

A
  1. Vastness of geologic time
  2. Species have gone extinct over time
  3. Transitional features link older and younger species
  4. Vestigial traits demonstrate that species evolve from ancestors
  5. Species are observed changing today
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64
Q

What is genetic homology?

A

Similarity in RNA, DNA, or amino acid sequences due to inheritance from a common ancestor

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65
Q

What is developmental homology?

A

similarity in embryonic from or due to developmental processes due to inheritance from a common ancestor

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66
Q

What is structural homology?

A

Similarity in an adult organismal structures due to inheritance from a common ancestor

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67
Q

What is evidence that species are related through common ancestry?

A
  1. Related species share homologies
  2. Similar species are found in the same geographic area
  3. Observations of speciation occurring in modern times
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68
Q

What is ecology?

A

The study of organisms interact with each other and their environment

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69
Q

What levels are ecology studied at?

A
  1. Organisms
  2. Populations
  3. Communities
  4. Ecosystems
  5. The biosphere
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70
Q

What is organismal ecology?

A

The study of how morphological, psychological, and behavioral adaptations increase fitness in a particular environment.

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71
Q

What is population ecology?

A

How the number and distribution of individuals in a population change over time

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72
Q

What is community ecology?

A

Asks questions about the nature of and consequences of species interactions

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73
Q

What is ecosystem ecology?

A

Study of how nutrients and energy move among organisms and through the surrounding atmosphere, soil, and water

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74
Q

What is the biosphere?

A

A thin zone surrounding the Earth where all life exists (5km below land surface, 10km above)

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75
Q

What is global ecology?

A

Studies the effects of human impacts on the biosphere

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76
Q

What is climate?

A

Prevailing long term weather conditions in an area

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77
Q

What is weather?

A

Short term weather conditions of temperature, precipitation, sunlight, and wind

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78
Q

The global climate system is powered by _______.

A

solar radiation

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79
Q

What are the steps of the solar radiation cycle?

A
  1. High energy radiation comes to Earth from the sun
  2. 30% of solar radiation that reaches earth’s atmosphere is reflected back into space
  3. The other 70% is absorbed by the Earth’s surface and atmosphere
  4. The earth radiates that back as lower energy longwave radiation
  5. Green house gases trap some of the outgoing longwave radiation, reflecting some back to Earth, warming the system
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80
Q

What are the main greenhouse gases?

A

Ozone (O3), Nitrous Oxide (N2O), carbon dioxide (CO2), water (H2O), and Methane (CH4)

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81
Q

How many atoms should green house gases at LEAST have?

A

3

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82
Q

What percentage of the atmosphere do greenhouse gases make up?

A

1%

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83
Q

What percentage of the atmosphere does nitrogen make up?

A

78%

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84
Q

What percentage of the atmosphere does oxygen make up?

A

21%

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85
Q

Incoming solar radiation is _________ across the globe.

A

not constant

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86
Q

Regions near the equator receive ______ sunlight per unit area than regions closer to the poles.

A

more

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87
Q

Where do deserts tend to occur?

A

30 degrees north and south of the equator

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88
Q

What is the Hadley cell?

A

The area between the equator and 30 degrees north and south of it

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89
Q

How does the Hadley cell work?

A
  1. Air is heated by solar radiation at the equator
  2. Heating causes the air to lose pressure
  3. Warm, moist air begins to rise
  4. As it rises, it begins to cool, increasing its pressure and causing rain at the equator
  5. The cool air is pushed poleward, becomes denser, and begins to fall
  6. Warm, dry air results in bands of deserts
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90
Q

What is the cell above/below the Hadley cell?

A

The mid-latitude cell

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91
Q

What is the cell closest to the poles?

A

The polar cell

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92
Q

what is the definition of a season?

A

regular, annual fluctuations pf temperature, precipitation, or both

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93
Q

What is the tilt of Earth’s axis?

A

23.5 degrees

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94
Q

How do mountain ranges influence regional climate?

A

As moist air blows from the ocean towards mountain ranges , it rises, and rain falls. Dry air continues over the mountain, creating desert-like conditions (called a rain shadow)

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95
Q

Why do oceans have a high influence on regional climate?

A

Water has a high specific heat

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96
Q

What are gyres?

A

Cyclical ocean currents that move warm water to northern latitudes and cold water to tropical latitudes

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97
Q

What are biomes?

A

Regions characterized by similar abiotic characteristics and dominant types of vegetation

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98
Q

What are terrestrial biomes characterized by?

A
  1. Average Temperature
  2. Average Precipitation
  3. Sunlight
  4. Wind
  5. Annual fluctuation of temperature and precipitation
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99
Q

Warmer, wetter biomes have ________.

A

higher NPP

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100
Q

What are the type of biomes?

A
  1. Arctic tundra
  2. Boreal forest
  3. Temperate forest
  4. Temperate grassland
  5. Desert and dry shrubland
  6. Tropical wet forest (rainforest)
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101
Q

What are aquatic biomes characterized by?

A
  1. Salinity
  2. Water depth
  3. Water flow
  4. Nutrient availability
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102
Q

Why is the ocean salty?

A

Because of dissolved, negatively charged solutes

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103
Q

What percentage of Earth’s water is salt water?

A

97.5%

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104
Q

What percentage of Earth’s water is trapped in glaciers and ice caps?

A

2%

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105
Q

What percentage of Earth’s water is in rivers, groundwater, ponds, and lakes?

A

0.5%

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106
Q

What is the littoral zone?

A

Water along the shore shallow enough for plants to take root

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107
Q

What is the limnetic one?

A

Water that receive enough light to support photosynthesis but is too deep for plants to take root

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108
Q

In temperate regions ________ cycles nutrients.

A

turnover

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109
Q

What are the aquatic biomes?

A
  1. Lakes and ponds
  2. Freshwater wetlands
  3. Streams
  4. Estuaries
  5. Oceans
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110
Q

What is distribution?

A

How organisms are arranged over space

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111
Q

What is species distribution?

A

Where that species can be found geographically

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112
Q

How are species limited in their distribution through abiotic conditions?

A
  1. No species can survive all conditions on earth
  2. Species are adapted to a limited set of abiotic conditions
  3. Enzymes can only function in a narrow band of temperatures
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113
Q

What is performance?

A

Any trait that impacts fitness

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114
Q

What does T0 mean?

A

Optimum temperature for survival

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115
Q

What does CTmin mean?

A

Minimum temperature for survival

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116
Q

What does CTmax mean?

A

Maximum temperature for survival

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117
Q

What is a tolerance breadth?

A

All the temperatures in which an organism can survive

118
Q

How are organisms limited in their dispersal through biotic conditions?

A

Not all organisms can reach other environments with suitable conditions (dispersal ability) and interactions between organisms of different species can effect distribution.

119
Q

How are organisms limited through past conditions?

A

Past conditions on Earth have shaped the evolutionary trajectories of species living today

120
Q

What is a niche?

A

An organism’s place in the environment

121
Q

What determines distribution?

A

An organism’s niche

122
Q

What is an ecological/fundamental niche?

A

The limits for all important environmental features in which individuals of a species can survive, grow, and reproduce

123
Q

What is a realized niche?

A

The portion of a fundamental niche actually occupied by the species

124
Q

Species ranges are determine by ________________.

A

The distribution of populations over space

125
Q

Usually species consist of __________________.

A

Independent populations connected through dispersal

126
Q

What is a metapopulation?

A

A population of populations connected by dispersal

127
Q

What are the types of spacial distribution?

A

random, clumped, and uniform

128
Q

Populations are dynamic, meaning?

A

Distribution and abundance can change over time and space

129
Q

What is demography?

A

The study of factors that determine the size and structure of populations through time.

130
Q

What is immigration?

A

organisms moving into a population

131
Q

What is emigration?

A

organisms leaving a population

132
Q

How do populations gain individuals?

A

Through birth and immigration

133
Q

How do populations lose individuals?

A

Through death and emigration

134
Q

To determine changes in population size over time use a _______ to track the individuals in a population over time.

A

life table

135
Q

What does a life table do?

A

Summarizes the probability that an individual will survive and reproduce at any given interval of their life

136
Q

What is a cohort?

A

A group of individuals of the same age

137
Q

What is a type 1 survivorship curve?

A

Survivorship throughout life is high and then drops drastically in old age

138
Q

What does a type 1 curve demonstrate?

A

Parental care, small number of offspring, and slow development

139
Q

What is a type two survivorship curve?

A

Individuals have the same probability of dying each year of life

140
Q

What are/is the trait(s) of a type 2 curve?

A

Some parental care early on in life

141
Q

What is a type 3 survivorship curve?

A

Extremely high death rates in early life stages but high survivorship for individuals that make it past this stage

142
Q

What are the traits of a type 3 curve?

A

Little to no parental care, common in insects and fish

143
Q

What is fecundity?

A

The number of female offspring produced by each female within a population

144
Q

What is net reproductive rate?

A

Survivorship x fecundity

145
Q

If net reproductive rate = 1, the population is _______.

A

stable

146
Q

If net reproductive rate is >1, the population is ________.

A

growing

147
Q

If net reproductive rate is < 1, the population is _______.

A

decreasing

148
Q

An organisms life history strategies influence ________________.

A

survivorship and reproductive rates

149
Q

What is life history?

A

How an individual allocates resources to reproduction, growth, and survival.

150
Q

What are life history traits?

A

Traits that affect the amount of reproduction or the development of offspring

151
Q

Life history traits are the result of _________.

A

fitness trade-offs

152
Q

Every individual has a limited amount of _____________.

A

time and resources at its disposal

153
Q

Growth curves predict _________.

A

how population size changes over time

154
Q

Change in N/ Change in T = _______________

A

Births - deaths + immigrants - emigrants

155
Q

N= ________

A

Population size

156
Q

t= ___________

A

time

157
Q

Population growth curves only measure __________.

A

births and deaths

158
Q

What are two types of population growth curves?

A

Logistic and exponential

159
Q

What are the characteristics of an exponential growth curve?

A

Resources are not limiting, growth is density-independent

160
Q

Birth rate - death rate = __

A

r

161
Q

r=_________

A

per capita rate of increase

162
Q

r= 0, the population is ___________

A

not changing

163
Q

r > 0, the population is ___________

A

increasing

164
Q

r < 0, the population is __________

A

decreasing

165
Q

R= __________

A

net reproductive rate

166
Q

g= ___________

A

generation time

167
Q

To know if population size is changing in the number of individuals _________________.

A

multiply the per capita rate of increase by the population size

168
Q

What is an intrinsic rate of increase?

A

When birth rates are as high as possible, or as low as possible

169
Q

Nt= ________

A

population size at the end of time

170
Q

N0= ___________

A

population size at time 0

171
Q

When is exponential growth common?

A

colonization of a new habitat, recovery after a natural disaster

172
Q

What are the characteristics of logistic growth?

A

Resources are limiting, growth is density-dependent, early growth is rapid, growth later falls to 0

173
Q

What is carrying capacity?

A

K. The maximum number of individuals in a population that can be supported in a particular habitat over a sustained period of time

174
Q

What are some density-dependent factors?

A

Competition for resources, disease and parasitism, predation, toxic waste, and social behavior

175
Q

Carrying capacity is not _____.

A

fixed

176
Q

Carrying capacity can be _______.

A

overshot

177
Q

Species interactions are characterized by _________.

A

their outcomes

178
Q

What density-dependent factors would you measure to quantify the outcome of a species interaction?

A

population size, reproductive success, organismal health, death rate, and offspring survival

179
Q

What is mutualism?

A

Interaction in which both species benefit

180
Q

What is commensalism?

A

One species benefits while the other is unaffected

181
Q

What is parasitism?

A

Parasite lives in or on a host and feeds off the flesh or fluid of the host

182
Q

What is symbiosis?

A

An interaction between two organisms living in close physical association

183
Q

What is predation?

A

One organism benefits by preying on the other, which is negatively affected

184
Q

What is herbivory?

A

Animal species benefits from feeding on a plant species, which is negatively affected

185
Q

Predation and herbivory often drives the __________.

A

evolution of defenses

186
Q

What is competition?

A

An interaction between individuals in which each is harmed by their shared use of a limited source

187
Q

What is intraspecific competition?

A

Competition among individuals of the same species

188
Q

What is interspecific competition?

A

Competition among individuals of a different species

189
Q

What is interference competition?

A

Direct competition in which one individual physically excludes the other from that portion of the habitat

190
Q

What is exploitative competition?

A

Indirect comptions in which use of resources depletes the amount available to others

191
Q

What is competitive exclusion?

A

if two species require the same resources, they cannot coexist indefinitely

192
Q

What is niche partitioning?

A

When competing species use different resources to reduce competition

193
Q

What is character displacement?

A

Genetically based divergence in phenotypic traits results in decreased competition between species

194
Q

Species interactions can change based on __________.

A

environmental conditions

195
Q

What is coevolution?

A

A pattern of evolution in which two interacting species reciprocally influence each other’s adaptations over time

196
Q

In what kinds of competition does coevolution occur?

A

mutualism, parasitism, and predation/herbivory

197
Q

A change in the trait of one species acts as a __________ on the other species.

A

selection pressure

198
Q

What is an evolutionary arms race?

A

A mechanism of coevolution that occurs in t/- species interactions. Traits that increase feeding efficiency in predators, herbivore, and parasites evolve. In response, traits evolve that make prey elusive or unpalatable.

199
Q

Communities are _______ and _________.

A

dynamic, change over time

200
Q

What is a disturbance?

A

A strong, short-lived disruption to a community that changes the distribution of biotic and abiotic factors

201
Q

What does the impact of a disturbance depend on?

A
  1. Type of disturbance
  2. Frequency of disturbance
  3. Severity
202
Q

What is a disturbance regime?

A

Predictable frequency and severity of characteristic disturbances in a community

203
Q

What is succession?

A

Predictable pattern of community dynamic after a disturbance where species with certain life history patterns succeed each other.

204
Q

When does primary succession occur?

A

When a disturbance removes the soil

205
Q

When does secondary succession occur?

A

When a disturbance removes some of the organisms in an area leaves the soil intact, including the seeds and organisms within the soil

206
Q

Primary succession is a ________.

A

slow process

207
Q

Secondary succession is a ________.

A

fast process

208
Q

What is a pioneering species?

A

A species adapted for growth in disturbed soils that devote most of their energy to reproduction, not competition

209
Q

What are the steps of secondary succession?

A
  1. Pioneering species
  2. Early successional community
  3. mid-successional community
  4. Climax community
210
Q

What is a keystone species?

A

A species with a much greater impact on the distribution and abundance of the surrounding species than predicted by abundance

211
Q

When characterizing community structure, ecologists often consider a subset of species when studying ________.

A

the community

212
Q

What is species diversity?

A

The number of species and abundance of each species

213
Q

What is sampling effort?

A

How many samples are required to characterize the community

214
Q

When the sampling curve levels out ___________.

A

we have found almost all of the species

215
Q

When a species accumulation curve levels off at a higher y-value, __________.

A

The community has a higher species richness

216
Q

What are species indices?

A

A mathematical measure of diversity that takes into account species richness and evenness

217
Q

H= ________

A

diversity index

218
Q

S= _________

A

total number of species in a community

219
Q

Pi= _________

A

portion of community made up of the species

220
Q

What are primary producers?

A

Organisms that transform solar energy into chemical energy as sugars and carbohydrates (also called autotrophs)

221
Q

What is gross primary productivity (GPP)?

A

Measure of the total amount of chemical energy produced within an area over a given period

222
Q

What do primary producers use the energy they produce for?

A

Cellular respiration, growth, and reproduction

223
Q

What does NPP represent?

A

The total amount of chemical energy stored in organic material in an ecosystem (biomass)

224
Q

What do primary consumers eat?

A

Primary producers

225
Q

What are trophic levels?

A

Organisms that obtain their energy from the same source

226
Q

What do food chains represent?

A

The pathway of energy flow through trophic levels

227
Q

Energy transfer is ________.

A

Inefficient

228
Q

Only ___ of biomass is transferred between trophic levels.

A

10%

229
Q

What is productivity?

A

Rate of biomass produced by growth and reproduction

230
Q

What is efficiency?

A

Fraction of biomass transferred from one trophic level to the next

231
Q

Pollutants become concentrated at _______.

A

Top trophic levels

232
Q

What is biomagnification?

A

Persistent organic pollutants (POP’s) increase at higher levels of the food chain

233
Q

_________ varies across space.

A

Productivity

234
Q

NPP is higher in the ________.

A

Wet tropics

235
Q

NPP is lower in __________.

A

Dry and cool environments

236
Q

Productivity varies by _______.

A

biome

237
Q

What are decomposers?

A

Organisms that feed on dead animals

238
Q

How are decomposers impactful on the environment?

A

They play a key role in nutrient cycling by breaking down dead organisms, they make nutrients available to primary producers, and without them NPP would drop.

239
Q

What is detritus?

A

Dead animals and dead plant tissue

240
Q

Community structure can be determined by _______________.

A

Bottom-up and top-down processes

241
Q

What is bottom up control?

A

When the amount of nutrients, sunlight, water, and other abiotic facts determine the abundance of different trophic levels.

242
Q

What is top down control?

A

When the presence of certain consumers (biotic factor) determine the abundance of different trophic levels.

243
Q

What is a trophic cascade?

A

When changes in top-down control cause conspicuous effects two or three links away in the food web.

244
Q

What are nutrients?

A

Elements that are essential for normal metabolism, growth, and reproduction

245
Q

What is a biochemical cycle?

A

The path an element takes as it moves from abiotic systems, through trophic levels, and back again

246
Q

What are the steps of nutrient cycling?

A
  1. Nutrients are taken up from the soil by plants and assimilated with plant tissue
  2. Nutrients pass through the consumer food web
  3. Decomposers feed on detritus and release nutrients back into the soil
247
Q

What is soil organic matter?

A

Complex mixture of partially and fully decomposed detritus

248
Q

What is humus?

A

Completely decayed detritus, rich in humid acid

249
Q

What is decomposition rate influenced by?

A

abiotic conditions, quality of detritus, abundance and diversity of detritivores

250
Q

Warmer and moisture environments have _____ decomposition rate.

A

higher

251
Q

What are reservoirs?

A

Areas where elements are stored within the cycle

252
Q

What is flow?

A

Processes that moves elements from one reservoir to another

253
Q

What is groundwater?

A

A reservoir of freshwater stored in the ground

254
Q

What are aquifers?

A

layers of porous substrate saturated with water

255
Q

What is genetic diversity?

A

The total genetic information contained within all individuals of a population, species, or group of species.

256
Q

What is genome sequencing?

A

Investigates the entire genome (complete set of genes present in an organism)

257
Q

What is environmental sequencing?

A

Sequences all genes from a sample of water or soil

258
Q

Genetic diversity is important because ____________.

A

it represents the ability to evolve in response to environmental change

259
Q

What is species diversity?

A

species richness and evenness of a community

260
Q

The evolutionary and ecological contexts of all species are not equal, meaning __________.

A

some species play a bigger role in the community than others

261
Q

Species richness=________

A

the number of species within a community

262
Q

What is phylogenetic diversity?

A

Evolutionary distinctiveness, measured using branch lengths among species in a phylogeny.

263
Q

What is functional diversity?

A

Ecological distinctiveness, measured by categorizing and counting the functional traits of species.

264
Q

There are often ________ in protecting functional versus phylogenetic diversity

A

trade-offs

265
Q

Biodiversity is ________.

A

dynamic

266
Q

Why is biodiversity dynamic?

A

Changes in time and changes over space

267
Q

How does genetic diversity change over time

A

mechanisms of evolution

268
Q

How does species diversity change over time?

A

Speciation increases it while extinction decreases it

269
Q

Changes in environmental conditions impacts the distribution and abundance of species, influencing ______________.

A

diversity of regions across the globe

270
Q

Biodiversity is ________ in the tropics and ________ with increasing latitude.

A

highest, decreases

271
Q

Biodiversity is ______ on land than in the sea.

A

higher

272
Q

What is an endemic species?

A

Species that are found in a particular area and nowhere else.

273
Q

What the conditions of a biodiversity hotspot?

A
  1. contain at least 1500 endemic vascular plant species
  2. have lost at least 70% of their primary vegetation
274
Q

How much of earth’s area do biodiversity hotspots make up?

A

17%

275
Q

Biodiversity hotspots make up ___ of all plant species and ____ of all terrestrial species.

A

50%, 77%

276
Q

What are ecoregions?

A

Regions with similar conservation concerns, biological processes, and ecosystem services

277
Q

What are ecosystem services?

A

The direct and indirect benefits that humans derive from organisms and the ecosystems they compose.

278
Q

What are provisioning services?

A

services that provide raw materials

279
Q

What are regulating services?

A

part of earth’s life support system

280
Q

What are cultural services?

A

Services that enrich quality of life

281
Q

What are supporting services?

A

Services that enable all other ecosystem services

282
Q

Biodiversity supports ______.

A

ecosystem functioning

283
Q

Increased diversity leads to __________.

A

increased NPP

284
Q

How does biodiversity support ecosystem functioning?

A

Resource use efficiency, facilitation, and chance inclusion of high productivity species

285
Q

If biodiversity improves productivity and stability improves ecosystem function which in turn ________.

A

promotes healthy ecosystem services

286
Q

When does a mass extinction occur?

A

When at least 60% of species are wiped out within one million years

287
Q

Current extinction rates indicate __________.

A

a 6th mass extinction

288
Q

What is background extinction?

A

Extinction rate when no mass extinction is occurring

289
Q

What was the End-Cretaceous mass extinction?

A

Hypothesis: an asteroid struck earth, leading to the extinction of 60%-80% of living species

290
Q

What happened because of the end of the cretaceous period?

A

The rise of mammalian diversity