Final Exam Old Material Flashcards

1
Q

How is a fever defined?

A

T > 100.4 (38)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Define Fever without focus/fever without source

A

acute febrile illness of less than 1 week duration in children under 24 months of age in which fever etiology is not apparent after careful H&P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Define fever of unknown origin

A

Temperature greater than 38 (101) or greater on several occasions of more than 2-3 weeks duration with failure to reach a dx despite 1 week of intense investigation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

How would you work up a fever in an infant aged:
29-60 days
61-90 days
90 days +

A
  • Infants 29-60 days: if well appearing – UA, CBC
  • Infants 61-90 days: UA, CBC
  • Infants 90 days-24 months: UA and culture to start
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the general approach to managing pediatric fever?

A
  • Infants 0-4 weeks: ER referral
  • ILL appearing infants 29-60 days: ER referral
  • Empiric treatment is not recommended
  • If immunization within past 24 hours and temp <101.5: watchful waiting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is included in the diagnostic criteria of Kawasaki disease?

A

Diagnostic criteria: Fever ≥ 5 days* and ≥ four of the following five principal clinical features

  • Oropharyngeal mucosal changes: strawberry tongue, oral and pharyngeal erythema
  • Bilateral non-purulent bulbar conjunctivitis
  • Polymorphous rash: maculopapular, erythema multiforme-like rash
  • Extremity changes
    • Acute: edema of hands and feet, erythema of palms and soles
    • Subacute: desquamation of fingers and toes
  • Cervical lymphadenopathy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which children are at high risk for UTI?

A
  • Females under 12 months (females 6months+ are at high risk for UTI)
  • Uncircumcised males esp if fever is 102.2+ and lasts longer than 24-28 hours
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Match the presentation of UTI to the age group:

  1. stomach discomfort, anuresis, malodor, vomiting/diarrhea, malaise, fever, diaper rash
  2. irritable, fever, poor feeding, pain, hypothermia, vomiting/diarrhea, cyanosis, abd distension/pain
  3. frequency, urgency, pain with urination, fever/chills, malaise
A
  1. Older child
  2. Neonate/infant
  3. school age/adolescents
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What do you treat Pediatric UTI with?

A

Bactrim

Augmentin if suspicious of pyelonephritis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

For what criteria would you perform a renal and bladder US?

A
  • <2 yo w/ first UTI
  • All children w/ fever and UTI or pyelonephritis
  • Recurrent UTI
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is used to treat acute otitis media? When should patients start to see improvement in symptoms?

A
  • Adults: Amoxicillin
  • Peds: Amoxicillin, cephalosporin; Augmentin if amox given in the last 30 days; ceftriaxone if patient vomiting
  • Should see improvement in 3 days, if don’t see improvement may try Augmentin to widen the coverage
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What would be used for acute otitis media if the tympanic membrane is perforated, there is otorrhea present or patent tubes in place?

A

Ciprofloxacin drops

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the “watchful waiting” criteria for acute otitis media?

A
  • Observe, analgesics, and f/u 48-72 hrs IF
    • Unilateral AOM without fever > 102.2 or severe symptoms
    • 24 months, no severe symptoms
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

When would you start treatment right away for acute otitis media in a pediatric patient?

A
  • < 6 months or underlying conditions
  • 6 months with severe signs/sx
  • 6-23 months with bilateral AOM
  • Unreliable caregiver
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the components of the CENTOR score for GAS?

A
  • C: Absence of cough +1
  • E: Exudate +1
  • N: Tender anterior cervical lymphadenopathy +1
  • T: Fever +1
  • OR: Age modifier
    • Age less than 15 +1
    • Age greater than 45 -1
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How would you interpret the results of the CENTOR score?

A
  • Rapid strep if CENTOR score 2-5
  • Empiric antibiotics if CENTOR score >6 (Amoxicillin)
  • If rapid strep is negative, follow up with regular culture for peds - do not need to do this in adults
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the 1st and second line meds for Group A Strep pharyngitis?

A
  • 1st line: PCN or amoxicillin
  • 2nd line: Cephalexin, clindamycin or macrolide
18
Q

Head injury red flags (7)

A
  • Decreased LOC
  • Confused/restless/agitation
  • Focal neuro deficits
  • Amnesia
  • Neck pain
  • Loss of consciousness > 30 seconds
  • Otorrhea/rhinorrhea
19
Q

Headache red flags (7)

A
  • Worst headache of their life
  • Unexplained abnormal exam finding w/ non-acute HA pattern
  • Recent change in pattern, frequency, severity
  • Progressive worsening despite appropriate tx
  • Onset w/ exertion, cough or sexual activity
  • Onset after age 40
  • Thunderclap headache
20
Q

What can be used as abortive vs. preventative therapy for migraine?

A
  • Abortive
    • NSAIDS
    • triptans
  • Preventative
    • Anticonvulsants
    • Beta-blockers, CCBs
    • TCAs, SSRIs
21
Q

Name the condition:

  • Visual disturbances, weakness of the limbs
  • Facial paralysis, vertigo (brain stem); coordination, tremors (cerebellum)
  • Impaired vision, pain w/ movement (optic nerve)
  • Diplopia, bowel & bladder dysfunction
A

Multiple sclerosis

22
Q

Name the components of the Ottowa knee rule

A
  • Age ≥55
  • Isolated tenderness of the patella (no other bony tenderness)
  • Tenderness at the fibular head
  • Unable to flex knee to 90°
  • Unable to bear weight both immediately and in ED (4 steps, limping is okay)
23
Q

Match the part of the knee to the presentation and provocative test:

  • medial knee pain, swelling and instability not common
  • Test: Valgus stress test
A

MCL

24
Q

Match the part of the knee to the presentation and provocative test:

  • acute lateral knee pain, instability leading to the knee giving way
  • Test: Varus Stress Test
A

LCL

25
Q

Match the part of the knee to the presentation and provocative test:

  • Pop or dizziness, sweating or fainting
  • Swelling and pain
  • Test: Lachman test, anterior drawer test
A

ACL

26
Q

Match the part of the knee to the presentation and provocative test:

  • Pop or dizziness, sweating or fainting
  • Swelling and pain
  • Test: posterior drawer test
A

PCL

27
Q

Match the part of the knee to the presentation and provocative test:

  • May have feeling of locking or giving way, esp while descending stairs or walking on uneven surfaces
  • Tests: Thessaly, McMurray, Apley compression
A

Meniscus

28
Q

What are the imaging guidelines for back pain?

A
  • Imaging (x-ray or MRI w/ gado) if red flags present or no improvement w/in 4-6 weeks
    • Age > 50
    • Recent unexplained wt loss
    • Failure to improve after 1 mo of conservative tx
    • Fever
    • New lower extremity weakness
    • Bowel/bladder dysfunction
29
Q

What can be used to treat impetigo?

A
  • Mupirocin topical
  • Oral Dicloxacillin, cephalexin, azithromycin, Augmentin
30
Q

What can be used to treat erysipelas?

A
  • Oral PCN V or cephalosporin or macrolide if PCN allx
  • If MRSA concern: clindamycin, doxycycline, Bactrim
31
Q

What can be used to treat erythasma

A
  • Benzoyl peroxide wash
  • Clindamycin or azole creams
32
Q

What can be used to treat intertrigo?

A
  • Drying agents: zinc, aluminum, calcium
    • fungal infection: clotrimazole, ketoconazole, oxiconazole, econazole; nystatin
  • Oral: culture and determine abx
33
Q

What can be used to treat paronychial infection?

A
  • Topical abx, antifungals, steroids
  • Oral abx for substantial infection
34
Q

What can be used to treat rosacea?

A
  • Papules and pustules: topical or oral abx:
    • Metronidazole, azelaic acid, sulfacetamide/sulfur, brimonidine
    • Doxycycline, tetracycline
  • Phymatous or severe cases: refer to derm
35
Q

What does ABCDE stand for in regards to malignant melanoma?

A
  • Asymmetric w/ nonmatching sides
  • Border is irregular
  • Color not uniform; brown, black, red, white, blue
  • Diameter usually >6mm
  • Evolving lesions - new or changing
36
Q

What does PUT ON stand for (BCC)?

A
  • Pearly papule
  • Ulcerating
  • Telangiectasia
  • On the face, scalp or pinnae
  • Nodules
37
Q

What does NO SUN (SCC) stand for?

A
  • Nodular
  • Opaque
  • Sun-exposed areas
  • Ulcerating
  • Non-distinct borders
38
Q

What considerations does an HIV positive pregnant mom need?

A
  • Mom should be treated during pregnancy
  • Baby on antiretroviral therapy for 4-6 weeks after birth
  • Newborns should have RNA or DNA checked at 2 weeks of age and 1-2 months and 4-6 months and 12-18 months
  • A negative antibody confirms that the baby is not infected
  • No breastfeeding
39
Q

When is a TST considered positive?

  • > 5mm
  • > 10mm
  • > 15mm
A
  • >5 is considered positive in
    • Recent contact of a person w/ TB
    • Immunosuppressed patients
  • >10mm considered positive in
    • High-risk population
    • Children < 4 years
  • >15mm considered positive in general population
40
Q

Hep A lab results interpretation

What does a positive result of the following indicate?: IgM, IgG, Total Hep A antibody test

A
  • IgM indicates current or recent infection: detectable 2 weeks after sx begin until 6 months post recovery
  • IgG detectable for life, used to detect past infection or immunity by vaccination
  • Total hepatitis A antibody test: detects both IgM and IgG antibodies, identifies current and past infections
41
Q

Hep B lab results interpretation

What does a positive result of the following indicate?: HBsAg, anti-HBs, anti-HBc, IgM

A
  • HBsAg: present in acute or chronic infection
  • Anti-HBs: produced within a few weeks to months after exposure or vaccination
  • Anti-HBc: detectable for life; appears as patient develops symptoms
  • IgM: current or recent infection within the last 6 months
42
Q

Hep C lab results interpretation

What does a positive result of the following indicate?: anti-HCV, C RNA test, genotype test

A
  • Anti-HCV: produced in response to infection, will be positive for life
  • C RNA test: measure the amount of HCV in the body if anti-HCV is positive
  • Genotype test: genotype the strain for treatment