Final Exam Culminating Flashcards

1
Q

What is hemagglutinin? What does it bind to?

A

Surface antigen that subdivides influenza A. Binds to sialic acid.

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2
Q

What is neuraminidase and its 3 functions?

A

Surface antigen that subdivides influenza A. 1. binds sialic acid to release virus from infected cell
2. degrades mucous in resp tract
3. increases infectivity in resp tract

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3
Q

Describe the structure of herpes virus and name the 5 strands.

A

Double-stranded DNA.
1. HSV1
2. HSV2
3. VSV
4. EBV
5. CMV

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4
Q

Which herpes viruses can be transferred in-utero? Postnatally? What would be used to treat these infants?

A

In-utero: CMV, VSV
Postnatally: HSV1, HSV2
(EBV (mono) has no fetal infection)
Acyclovir would be used to treat.

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5
Q

What does CMV infect, how is it transferred? Pregnancy implications/treatment?

A

Infects salivary glands and lungs, transferred through saliva and sex. Can be transferred in-utero (causes CNS problems, deafness), treat with Acyclovir.

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6
Q

Distinguish between acute and chronic hepatitis.

A

Acute = liver enlargement, jaundice
Chronic = hepatic enzymes in blood

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7
Q

What is the structure of parvovirus? How is it transferred, pregnancy implication?

A

ssDNA. Usually resp-passed, can occur in utero. Can cause mild illness in infants, rare miscarriage.

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8
Q

What structure is Hep A vs. Hep B? Which can cause acute vs. chronic infections?

A

Hep A = ssRNA. Hep B = dsDNA. Hep B can cause both acute and chronic, Hep A can only cause acute.

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9
Q

What are the ABCDs of hep B?

A

Transfer through ass (sex), blood. Can cause chronic infection, double stranded DNA

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10
Q

What are the FGHIJs of hep A?

A

Transfer through fecal-oral route, IgG treatment, high fever, intense jaundice

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11
Q

What is HCV known for? Fetal transfer?

A

Represents 50% of all chronic hep cases. Yes, feta transfer is possible.

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12
Q

Which disease increases the risk of HCV? Which antiviral CANNOT be used during pregnancy?

A

HIV. Ribavirin (teratogenic).

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13
Q

Hepatitis E is spread by the ________ route, and is ________ in pregnant women. It causes ______, which causes excessive _______.

A

Fecal-oral, deadly, DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation), coagulation.

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14
Q

Describe the structure of rubella. What are the LMNOPs of rubella?

A

Enveloped ssRNA. Lifelong immunity from MMR vaccine or natural infection, “oh no’s” caused by placental or resp infection.

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15
Q

What malformations can occur due to rubella (the “oh no’s”)?

A

Microcephaly, heart defects, cataracts

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16
Q

Describe the structure of HTLV-1? How is it transferred, why is this important in pregnancy?

A

ssRNA, retrovirus, enveloped. Can be spread by sex, blood milk, has breastfeeding implications, especially in African/Caribbean/SA populations.

17
Q

Which two hepatitis strands cause chronic infection/liver cancer?

18
Q

Differentiate between parasitism, mutualism, commensalism.

A

Parasitism = relationship harms one party
Mutualism = relationship benefits both parties
Commensalism = relationship benefits one party, other is unaffected

19
Q

What are two ways that commensal microbes can benefit us?

A
  1. prevent colonization of more pathogenic species
  2. produce metabolites for host ex. B12
20
Q

What are the four stages of infectious disease?

A

incubation, prodrome, specific-illness, recovery

21
Q

What are the five aspects of pathogenesis?

A

colonization/transmission
adherence
invasiveness
toxins
ability to evade immune response

22
Q

What are the three methods of transmission in humans vs. animals?

A

Humans: resp/salivary, fecal/oral, venereal
Animal: vector, vertebrate reservoir, vector-vertebrate reservoir

23
Q

What does hyaluronidase do? Lipase?

A

Hyaluronidase: Breaks up connective tissues to penetrate deep into tissue.
Lipases: Penetrate oily sebaceous glands.

24
Q

List characteristics of exotoxins.

A

Typically polypeptides released into surrounding areas. They are antigenic, specific to a bacterial strain. Can be modified to form a toxoid (antigenic but not toxic, sued in immunizations).

25
Q

Name 3 examples of beta-lactams, and what makes them beta-lactams.

A

Penicillin, amoxicillin, ampicillin. Ring structure that is highly antibacterial.

26
Q

Penicillin binds to ______, which inhibit _______, which catalyze the formation of _________.

A

Penicillin-binding proteins (PBPs), transpeptidases, peptidoglycan

27
Q

Name 2 bacteria that penicillin impact, and 2 bacteria that ampicillin/amoxicillin impact.

A

Penicillin: neisseria, treponema pallidum
Amp/Amox: salmonella, e. coli

28
Q

Which antibiotic(s) best target staphylococcus aureus?

A

Nafcillin, dicloxacillin

29
Q

Which three antibiotics decrease the effectiveness of birth control pills?

A

Ampicillin, amoxicillin, rifamycin

30
Q

Name 3 disadvantages of penicillin.

A
  1. ineffective against gram-negative bacteria
  2. frequent doses necessary
  3. inactivated by beta lactamases
31
Q

Describe cephalosporins and differences between their generations. What are they used for?

A

6-sides rings with a beta-lactam group. 1st gen is only effective against gram-pos, later generations effective against gram-pos and gram-neg. Against nosocomial, gonorrhea, GBS.

32
Q

Glycopeptides are _______ agents only effective against gram-__________ bacteria. What is special about them?

A

Bactericidal, positive. Act at an earlier stage than beta-lactams.

33
Q

What do glycopeptides treat (mainly)? Why are gram-negatives resistant to glycopeptides?

A

Clostridium difficile. Glycopeptides are too large to move through gram negatives’ outer membrane.

34
Q

What are the two subunits of a ribosome? Name two antibacterial units within each subunit.

A

30S, 50S.
30S: Aminoglycosides, tetracyclines
50S: erythromycin, clindamycin

35
Q

What are two mechanisms of action of aminoglycosides?

A
  1. misread mRNA, bacterium dies
  2. bind to proteins in 30S subunit