FINAL EXAM Flashcards
The genetic material in viruses is composed of: A. DNA B. RNA C. either DNA or RNA D. neither DNA nor RNA E. mitochondria
C
How much of the human genome is thought to be due to insertion by viral DNA? A. 0% B. 0.1-1% C. 5-8% D. 33-35% E. 95-99%
C
What do mitochondria and chloroplasts have that Golgi apparatus and endoplasmic reticulum lack? A. large amounts of catalase B. large amounts of water C. membranes composed of lipids D. DNA E. vesicles
D
Pancreatic cells, which secrete a large amount of digestive enzymes, are labeled with radioactive leucine and then chased for several hours with nonradioactive leucine. Photographic emulsions are prepared at different times during the chase. Where would the black spots appear on an emulsion prepared 3 hours after the pulse? A. rough endoplasmic reticulum B. golgi apparatus C. secretory vesicles D. exterior of the cell E. the nucleus
D
What scientific hypotheses can be tested by a pulse-chase experiment?
A. Solubility of a molecule
B. The amino acid sequence of a protein
C. Movement of molecules through a cell over time
D. The steady-state level of protein in the cell
E. The central dogma of Biology
C
What is the first step in a pulse-chase experiment?
A. Examining cells for the location of the labeled molecules
B. Preparing cells for electron microscopy
C. Incubating cells with an unlabeled molecule
D. Incubating cells with a labeled molecule
E. Breaking the cells open and then spinning them at low speeds
D
Anton Van Leeuwenhoek was the first to A. see vesicles fusing to the plasma membrane of cells B. see autophagy in action C. see individual molecules of DNA D. see proteins E. see organelles
E
Plasmids contain A. lipids B. enzymes that degrade toxic substances C. many ribosomes D. DNA E. microtubules
D
The biological term “flagella” comes from a Greek word meaning A. sweet B. bitter C. whip D. color E. thread
C
Thomas Sudhof, James Rothman and Randy Scheckman were awarded the Nobel Prize in 2013 for their pioneering studies describing
A. How mitochondria and chloroplasts were related
B. how proteins are formed by ribosomes
C. the mechanisms regulating exocytosis
D. the mechanisms involved in extrusion of RNA from the nucleus
E. how enzymes can be inhibited
C
Evidence suggesting that mitochondria were once free-living cells that were engulfed by an ancient eukaryotic cell includes
A. the presence of DNA within the mitochondria
B. the presence of double membranes of mitochondria
C. their ability to make the energy rich compound ATP
D. A & B
E. A, B & C
D
Peroxisomes possess a lot of A. mitochondria B. DNA C. RNA D. sugars E. proteins that degrade H2O2
E
Centrifugation has been used to
A. separate organelles from cells
B. identify the location of proteins using autoradiography
C. identify the location of proteins using fluorescence microscopy
D. define the difference between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
E. study the process of autophagy
A
Microtubules are made of molecules called A. kinesins B. actin C. flagella D. tubulin E. keratin
D
The \_\_\_\_\_ is the bacterial structure that acts as a selective barrier, allowing nutrients to enter the cell and wastes to leave the cell. A. cell wall B. pili C. nucleoid region D. plasma membrane E. nuclear pore
D
The preparation of liver mitochondrial enzymes begins by placing liver and a buffered solution in a blender. What is the purpose of the blender?
A. to remove the plasma membranes from the intracellular structures, such as the mitochondria
B. to separate the nuclei from the mitochondria
C. to separate the mitochondria from the other organelles
D. to prepare a cell homogenate; to break open the liver cells and to release the organelles
E. to separate the RNA from the DNA
D
What central theme of biology helps explain why various cells can look so different from one another?
A. All cells need to engage in energy transformations.
B. Information flow in a cell goes from DNA to RNA to protein
C. cell structure is tightly connected with cell function
D. Different cells contain different macromolecules as their genetic material.
E. The split between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells defines this characteristic
C
Which of these are hollow rods that shape and support the cell? A. actin filaments B. intermediate filaments C. microtubules D. kinesin E. flagella
C
Which type of experiment was critical to showing that kinesin functioned as a transport protein? A. centrifugation B. fluorescent microscopy C. pulse-chase D. acid-induced degradation of proteins E. electron microscopy
B
In experiments to test whether a protein can enter the nucleus, why would proteins be labeled with fluorescent molecules?
A. To target the proteins to the nucleus
B. To make the proteins bigger
C. To give the protein molecules energy
D. To make the proteins easy to see
E. To slow the proteins down
D
Nucleoplasmin is a nuclear protein. This protein was divided into two segments and linked to the same large cytoplasmic protein, generating two fusion proteins. After injecting these fusion proteins into a cell, one of the proteins was found in the nucleus and the other in the cytoplasm. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from these results?
A. Nucleoplasmin does not have a nuclear localization signal.
B. One of the fusion proteins entered the nucleus by passive transport
C. The cytoplasmic protein contains a nuclear localization signal.
D. Only one of the two fusion proteins possesses a nuclear localization signal.
E. Nucleoplasmin regulates its own destruction in a cell
D
Liver cells possess many proteins that are required for many functions, including blood clotting factors and proteins that act to degrade a number of substances such as alcohol, insulin and other hormones. Based on this information, one might expect that
A. these cells would have more chromatin than most other cells
B. these cells would have more DNA than most other cells
C. liver cells would have high levels of rough endoplasmic reticulum
D. liver cells would have lots of processing occurring in the smooth endoplasmic reticulum
E. liver cells would have low levels of lysosomes
C
The word “chromosome” was selected by early cell biologists because
A. they looked like threads
B. they looked colorful with the dyes used at the time
C. they were located in the nucleus
D. they were composed of proteins and DNA
E. they were not present in prokaryotic cells
B
What type of bond joins the monomers in a protein's primary structure? A. hydrophobic B. hydrogen bonds C. disulfide bonds D. peptide ponds E. ionic bonds
D
One side chain of one amino acid in a protein has CH2-CH2-CH3. The side chain of a different amino acid in the same protein has CH3. What type of bonding could occur between these two side chains? A. ionic B. hydrogen bond C. peptide bond D. hydrophobic E. alcoholic
D
α-helices form in a protein due to what kind of bond? A. ionic B. hydrogen bond C. peptide bond D. hydrophobic E. alcoholic
B
Small changes in levels of acid could likely disrupt what kind of bond? A. glycosidic B. hydrogen bond C. peptide bond D. hydrophobic E. alcoholic
B
Two molecules of glucose are joined together. What kind of bond holds them together? A. glycosidic B. hydrogen bond C. peptide bond D. hydrophobic E. alcoholic
A
What type of bond typically connects sugars to proteins as they travel through the Golgi apparatus? A. Peptide bond B. glycosidic bond C. covalent bond D. alcoholic bond E. disulfide bond
C
Which of the following statements about the formation of polypeptides from amino acids is true?
A. Polypeptides form by condensation or hydrolysis reactions.
B. The reaction occurs through the addition of a water molecule to the amino acids
C. A bond can form between any carbon and nitrogen atom in the two amino acids being joined.
D. A bond forms between the carboxyl functional group of one amino acid and the amino functional group of the other amino acid.
E. None of the above
D
Enzymes work by _____.
A. adding a phosphate group to a reactant
B. decreasing the potential energy difference between reactant and product
C. reducing EA
D. adding energy to a reaction
E. increasing the potential energy difference between reactant and product
C
The R group on serine is -CH2OH. Classify serine based on its R group. A. acidic B. basic C. neutral nonpolar D. neutral polar E. an alcoholic amino acid
D
. A protein has an arginine in position 157 of its 430 amino acids. Replacing that amino acid with alanine, which has -CH3 as its side group, would be expected to
A. prevent the synthesis of the protein
B. significantly affect the overall three dimensional structure of the protein.
C. have little effect on the function of the protein
D. eliminate the formation of α-helices in the secondary structure of the protein
E. eliminate the formation of hydrogen bonds in the tertiary structure of the protein.
B
Sickle-cell anemia results from
A. Inappropriate accelerated degradation of the protein hemoglobin
B. An alteration in the quaternary structure of hemoglobin
C. the substitution of a small nonpolar amino acid for a larger acidic amino acid
D. an inability to produce hemoglobin in sufficient amounts
E. B & C
C
In competitive inhibition of an enzyme,
A. A molecule similar to the substrate binds to an enzyme far removed from the active site of the enzyme.
B. A molecule similar to the substrate binds directly to the active site of the protein
C. A molecule with a shape dissimilar from the substrate binds to an enzyme far removed from the active site of the enzyme.
D. A molecule with a shape dissimilar from the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme.
E. Protein subunits fail to get together to form a macromolecular complex
B
In allosteric inhibition of an enzyme,
A. A molecule similar to the substrate binds to an enzyme far removed from the active site of the enzyme.
B. A molecule similar to the substrate binds directly to the active site of the protein
C. A molecule with a shape dissimilar from the substrate binds to an enzyme far removed from the active site of the enzyme.
D. A molecule with a shape dissimilar from the substrate binds to the active site of the enzyme.
E. Protein subunits fail to get together to form a macromolecular complex
C
In Stanley Miller’s experiment in support of the hypothesis of chemical evolution, what chemicals were formed at the end of the experiment? A. amino acids B. proteins C. methane D. ammonia E. DNA and RNA
A
. A string of 40 amino acids is typically referred to as a A. protein B. enzyme C. oligopeptide D. macromolecular complex E. chromosome
C
How many ways are there of connecting together 9 of the most common amino acids found in proteins in most cells? A. 910 B. 920 C. 2010 D. 209 E. 99
D
Which of the following statements about monosaccharide structure is true?
A. A six-carbon sugar is called a pentose.
B. Aldoses and ketoses differ in the position of their hydroxyl groups.
C. Monosaccharides can be classified according to the spatial arrangement of their atoms
D. All monosaccharides contain carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, and nitrogen atoms.
E. All monosaccharides are composed of six carbons
C
Starch and glycogen are similar because they
A. both have many peptide bonds
B. both have many α1,4 glycosidic linkages
C. both are used primarily as a storage mechanism for glucose
D. both bind well to hydrophobic compounds
E. B & C
E
Glucose can A. have a linear structure B. have a ring structure C. form glycosidic linkages D. form into disaccharides E. all of the above
E
Based on the data shown, what would happen if you boiled the solution containing human
peroxidase and then measured enzyme activity?
A. The boiling will have no effect on peroxidase activity.
B. The boiling will increase peroxidase activity
C. The boiling will decrease peroxidase activity
D. The boiling will denature the enzyme, most likely destroying it.
D
The boiling point of ethanol is 78ºC. You want to distill a solution of ethanol and water to
concentrate the ethanol, to what temperature should you heat the solution?
A. 65ºC
B. 78ºC
C. 90ºC
D. 100ºC
E. 110ºC
C
What should your hypothesis be for the “Do yeast produce ethanol under aerobic and
anaerobic conditions?”
A. Only the yeast growing under aerobic conditions will produce ethanol
B. Only the yeast growing under anaerobic conditions will produce ethanol
C. Yeast growing under both aerobic and anaerobic conditions will produce ethanol
D. There will be no ethanol production under aerobic or anaerobic conditions
B
You collected data in the Form and Function in Photosynthesis and made the below graph.
Unfortunately, you forgot to label which data series was 200μmol/m2 s, which data series was
100μmol/m2 s, and which data series was 50μmol/m2 s. Based on what you have read and
hypothesized, which data series is, in fact, the 50μmol/m2 s
A. series 1 (the blue diamonds)
B. series 2 (the green triangles)
C. series 3 (the green triangles)
A
Johnny is growing “tomatoes” in a light chamber in his dorm closet. Some are given Red
light, some are given Green light, some are given yellow light, and some are given Blue Light.
Under which color light will Johnny’s “tomatoes” grow the poorest?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Blue
D. Yellow
E. B & D
E
The cell walls of a substantial number of pathogenic bacteria are made particularly strong by A. α glycosidic bonds B. peptide bonds C. hydrophobic bonds D. ionic bonds E. peptidoglycans
E
Drugs related to penicillin act by
A. destroying α glycosidic bonds
B. putting holes into bacterial membranes
C. inhibiting enzymes that help construct the cell wall of bacteria
D. disrupting nucleic acids in the bacteria
E. disrupting cellular respiration in bacteria
C
Which complex carbohydrate contains β-1,4-glycosidic linkages? Α. Amylose B. Amylopectin C. Glycogen D. Starch E. Cellulose
E
A function of cholesterol that does not harm health is its role _____.
A. in initiating calcium signaling in cells
B. as a component of animal cell membranes
C. as the most abundant male sex hormone
D. as the most abundant female sex hormone
E. all of cholesterol’s effects cause the body harm
B
A phospholipid is typically
A. Entirely hydrophobic and entirely in the membrane
B. Entirely hydrophilic and out of the membrane
C. Amphipathic with part in the hydrophobic part of the membrane and part facing the
aqueous solution
D. Entirely hydrophobic and out of the membrane
E. Entirely hydrophilic and entirely in the membrane
C
Freezing a cell and then striking it with a very sharp edge was a key component in providing
evidence for
A. the electron transport chain in mitochondria
B. determining the strength of various carbohydrate structures
C. the fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane
D. the process of fermentation in eukaryotic cells
E. the chemiosmotic theory for ATP generation
C
Molecule A has a permeability of 10-2 cm/sec in a pure lipid membrane while molecule B is
measured to have a permeability of 10-12 cm/sec in the same pure lipid membrane. Which of
the following statements is true?
A. molecule A will pass through a cell membrane more easily than molecule B
B. Molecule B will pass through a cell membrane more easily than molecule A
C. Both molecules will pass through a cell membrane easily
D. Both molecules will largely be excluded by the plasma membrane of a cell
E. Molecule A and Molecule B are likely both hydrophobic compounds
A
The enzyme phospholipase is important in
A. creating small holes through membranes that allow selective passage of ions
B. regulating the process of autophagy
C. preventing pellagra
D. creating signaling molecules that can significantly alter cellular processes
E. breaking down antibiotics such as penicillin
D
Substrate-level phosphorylation occurs in the process of A. Oxidative phosphorylation B. electron transport chain C. glycolysis D. ATP synthase activity E. A, B & D
C
How does freeze-thawing lentils affect the mitochondria?
A. Freeze-thawing kills the lentils
B. Freeze-thawing disrupts the mitochondrial membranes, destroying the electron transport
chain
C. Freeze-thawing destroys NADH
D. Freeze-thawing reduces the activity of the enzymes of the Krebs cycle
E. Freeze-thawing disrupts the mitochondrial membranes, preventing them from generating
a significant H+ gradient
E
High levels of ATP would be expected to
A. decrease the rate of Krebs cycle activity
B. Increase the activity of enzymes in the citric acid cycle
C. Increase the rate of fermentation
D. Increase in the activity of phosphofructokinase (the enzyme that converts fructose 6-
phosphate to fructose 1,6 bisphosphate
E. None of the above
A
During strenuous exercise, anaerobic conditions can result if the cardiovascular system cannot supply oxygen fast enough to meet the demands of muscle cells. Assume that a muscle cell’s demand for ATP under anaerobic conditions remains the same as it was under aerobic conditions. What would happen to the cell’s rate of glucose utilization?
A. Glucose utilization would increase a little.
B. Glucose utilization would increase a lot.
C. Glucose utilization would remain the same
D. Glucose utilization would decrease a little.
E. Glucose utilization would decrease a lot.
B
What compound couples pyruvate to the production of acetyl-CoA? A. ATP B. citrate C. O2 D. FADH E. NAD+
E
The rate of activity of the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase
A. increases when NADH levels are high
B. decreases when acetyl-CoA levels are high
C. decreases when levels of AMP are high
D. decreases when glucose levels are high
E. increases when ATP levels are high
B
At which steps do the least changes in free energy occur during glycolysis and the Krebs cycle? A. production of NADH B. production of FADH2 C. production of ATP D. A & B
C
Pellagra results from a deficiency in A. excessive feedback inhibition that occurs in glycolysis B. insufficient levels of citrate C. low levels of ATP D. malfunction of the enzyme Co-A E. low levels of NAD+
E
Ubiquinone is important most directly in
A. transferring electrons within the electron transport chain
B. ferrying protons across lipid membranes
C. generating NADH
D. regulating the enzymes that control glycolysis
E. A & B
E
The tail portion of cytochrome c2 is important in
A. transferring electrons within the electron transport chain
B. ferrying protons across lipid membranes
C. generating NADH
D. regulating the enzymes that control glycolysis
E. securing the molecule to the hydrophobic interior of the mitochondrial cristae
membranes
E
Fermentation in yeast results in A. the production of pyruvate B. the production of ADP C. the breakdown of lactate D. the production of lactate E. the breakdown of NADH
E
What is the final electron acceptor in the mitochondrial electron transport chain? A. water B. cytochrome C C. ADP D. O2 E. ATP
D
The heme group of a cytochrome in the mitochondrial electron transport chain is characterized by \_\_\_ A. an iron atom B. a hydrophobic tail C. an H+ D. PO4 E. ADP
A
Which of the following are products of the light reactions of photosynthesis that are utilized in the Calvin cycle? A. electrons and hydrogen ions B. CO2 and glucose C. H2O and O2 D. ATP and NADPH E. ADP, Pi, and NADP+
D
When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it is a direct by-product of
A. chemiosmisis
B. formation of NADPH
C. the electron transfer system of photosystem II
D. the electron transfer system of photosystem I
E. splitting water molecules
E
Imagine that algae are genetically engineered to remove their normal chlorophylls and
replace them with chlorophylls that absorb most strongly at 500 nm and 560 nm. What
would happen if oxygen-loving bacteria were plated atop these modified algea, and
different colored lights were applied to
A. Bacteria would congregate in the green-yellowish region of the dish.
B. Bacteria would still congregate near the violet-to-blue, but not the red, region of the dish.
C. Bacteria would still congregate near the red, but not the violet-to-blue, region of the dish.
D. The line for the action spectrum would be completely flat.
E. The results would not change from those that were originally obtained with regular
pigments.
A
A small acorn over time can grow into a huge oak tree. The wood in such a tree can weigh many tons, even after it has been cut into logs and dried. Where does most of this mass come from as the tree grows? A. Minerals in the soil B. Organic matter in the soil C. Gases in the air D. Sunlight E. Water
C
Which compound is most directly involved in connecting photosystem II to photosystem I? A. plastoquinone B. plastocyanin C. NADP D. NADPH E. water
B
The graph above shows an absorption spectrum for a non-photosynthetic pigment,
anthocyanin found in a special plant leaf, as well as absorption spectra for the
chlorophylls and carotenoids found in the plant leaf. Which statement is likely to be
correct? The action spectrum for this plant leaf will show
A. a large new peak in the green portion of the spectrum as well as large peaks in the blue and
red
B. a large new peak in the green portion of the spectrum but the peaks for blue and red will be
largely gone
C. large peaks in the blue and red portions of the spectrum but not in the green or yellow
D. essentially a flat line throughout the spectrum and will be much reduced in size throughout
compared to a leaf without anthocyanin
E. no peaks in the blue or green, but a large peak in the red
C
During photosynthesis, where do protons (H+) end up after promoting the synthesis of ATP? A. matrix B. inner membrane of mitochondria C. lumen of the thylakoid D. stroma E. cytoplasm of the plant cell
D
Which of the following represents reduction in the Calvin cycle?
A. 3 RuBP + 3CO2 > 6 3-phosphoglycerate
B. 4 e- + red light + Photosystem I > 2 NADPH
C. 5 G3P + 3 ATP > 3 RuBP
D. 6 3-phosphoglycerate + 6 ATP + 6 NADPH > 6 G3P
E. 2 H2O + red light + Photosystem II > 4e- handed to pheophytin
D
Which bonds form the backbone of a nucleic acid? A. A purine-purine bond B. A purine-pyrimidine bond C. A phosphodiester bond D. A sugar-phosphate bond E. C & D
E
Which bonds are critical in holding the two chains together that form the DNA double helix? A purine-purine bond B. A purine-pyrimidine bond C. A phosphodiester bond D. A sugar-phosphate bond E. C & D
B
Which of the following are not present in DNA? A. deoxyadenosine B. deoxyuracil C. deoxythymidine D. deoxycytosine E. none are present in DNA
B
Which of the following statements best describes the relationship between the lightdependent
and light-independent reactions of photosynthesis?
A. The light-dependent reactions pass electrons through an electron transport chain to the
light-independent reactions.
B. The light-dependent reactions produce carbon dioxide, which is then used by the lightindependent
reactions.
C. The light-dependent reactions produce ATP and NADPH, which are then used by the lightindependent
reactions.
D. The light-independent reactions release energy, and the light-dependent reactions require
energy.
E. The light-dependent reactions can run effectively even when the light-independent reactions
are not working at all.
C
After 3-PGA is phosphorylated, it is reduced by \_\_\_\_\_. A. NADPH B. ATP C. CO2 D. ADP E. NADP+
A
When different wavelengths of light from a spectrophotometer are applied to a tube
containing significant amounts of both chlorophyll A, and chlorophyll B, which
wavelength will produce the largest electric current in the spectrophotometer’s
photoelectric tube?
A. deep blue (~ 450 nm)
B. light blue (~475 nm)
C. green (~525 nm)
D. light red (~650 nm)
E. deeper red (~675 nm)
C
According to the article “The 'Greatest Pandemic in History' Was 100 Years Ago-- But Many of Us Still Get the Basic Facts Wrong”, how many people died from the flu epidemic of 1918? A. 18,000 B. 180,000 C. 1,800,000 D. between 50 and 100 million E. no one died – it was all “fake news”
D
What does the molecule above represent? A. the structure of chlorophyll B. the oxidized form of plastoquinone C. the reduced form of plastoquinone D. The oxidized form of a cytochrome E. The reduced form of a cytochrome
C
CRISPR-CAS 9 is a tool that most directly is used to
A. enhance mRNA production
B. inhibit protein synthesis
C. edit the genome of many different species
D. modulate the activity of ribosomes
E. inhibit the activity of micro RNAs
C
Nucleic acids are assembled in the \_\_\_\_\_ direction. A. 2’ to 3’ B. 5’ to 3’ C. 1’ to 5’ D. 4’ to 5’ E. 5’ to 4’
B
If a strand of DNA has the nitrogen base sequence 5'-ATTTGC-3', what will be the sequence of the matching strand? A. 3'-TAAACG-5' B. 3'-TUUUCG-5' C. 3'-UAAACG-5 D. 3'-GCAAAT-5' E. 3'-ATTTGC-5'
A
If a DNA double helix is 100 nucleotide pairs long and contains 25 adenine bases, how many guanine bases does it contain? A. 75 B. 200 C. 150 D. 25 E. 50
A
The two strands of a DNA double helix are held together by \_\_\_\_\_ that form between pairs of nitrogenous bases. A. peptide bonds B. hydrogen bonds C. ionic bonds D. hydrophobic bonds E. phosphodiester bonds
B
What are the steps (in the correct order) that link a change in the base sequence of a gene
to a change in the phenotype of an organism like a mouse or a human?
A. DNA—>Protein—>RNA
B. DNA—>RNA—>Protein
C. Protein—>RNA—>DNA
D. RNA—>DNA—>Protein
E. Protein—>DNA—>RNA
B
The process of using the information in mRNA to synthesize a protein is \_\_\_\_\_\_. A. translation B. transcription C. transcendentalism D. transacetylation E. transmogrification
A
Given the DNA template shown in the figure above, which of the following bases would you
find in a complementary RNA strand and where would they be synthesized in a eukaryotic cell?
A. A-A-A-A-A; nucleus
B. A-A-A-A-A; ribosome
C. U-U-U-U-U; ribosome
D. U-U-U-U-U; nucleus
E. G-G-G-G-G; ribosome
B
Which of the following codons could, via a mutation in just one nucleotide, lead to a Nonsense mutation? A. GAU B. UCG C. CCU D. AUG E. GGC
B
The redundancy of the genetic code is a consequence of ______.
A. having fewer codons than there are amino acids
B. having three-letter-long genetic words (codons)
C. having an equal number of codons and amino acids
D. having more codons than amino acids
E. having four different letters (As, Cs, Gs, and Us) in the genetic alphabe
D
A particular triplet of bases in the template strand of DNA is 5’ AGT 3’. The corresponding
codon for the mRNA transcribed is _____.
A. 5’ TCA 3’
B. 3’ ACU 5’
C. 3’ UGA 5’
D. 3’ UCA 5’
E. either UCA or TCA, depending on wobble in the first base
D
A point mutation that results in the substitution of just one amino acid for another within a protein is a A. frameshift mutation B. silent mutation C. neutral mutation D. deleterious mutation E. missense mutation
E
The most commonly occurring mutation in people with cystic fibrosis is a deletion of a single
nucleotide in the middle of the gene. This results in _____.
A. a silent mutation
B. a missense mutation
C. a nucleotide mismatch
D. a protein missing a single amino acid
E. a frameshift mutation
E
Nucleotide tri-phosphates are used to create A. mRNA B. miRNA C. DNA D. proteins E. A, B & C
E
The template strand of DNA
A. is also called the coding strand
B. is the stretch of DNA on which a mRNA molecule is built
C. connects to the non-template strand by phosphodiester bonds
D. is a stretch of DNA that is not directly involved in transcription
E. binds to the small subunit of ribosomes.
B
The protein sigma in bacteria is key in A. initiating transcription B. terminating the process of translation C. enabling alternative splicing D. generating microRNAs E. creating ribosomes
A
A promotor is made up of A. DNA B. mRNA C. amino acids D. several proteins E. ribosomal RNA
A
A hairpin loop of RNA is involved in A. initiation of translation B. termination of transcription C. initiation of elongation D. termination of translation E. B & D
B
α-amanitin
A. selectively inhibits the function of RNA polymerase II
B. is used as a detector for beta galactosidase activity
C. acts normally as a repressor protein to regulate the production of gene products of the lac
operon
D. selectively inhibits translation by inhibiting ribosomal subunits from coming together
E. is essential in the production of miRNAs
A
Small nuclear ribonucleoproteins are important in the process of A. translation B. transcription C. joining exons together D. the creation of micro RNAs E. mitosis
C
The 5’ cap on a mature RNA is critical in
A. enabling the RNA to bind to the appropriate section on the small subunit of a
ribosome
B. enabling the spliceosome machinery to cut out introns
C. terminating the process of transcription
D. extending the poly-A tail portion of the mRNA
E. terminating the process of translation
A
Termination of translation normally occurs when
A. a hairpin structure is made in mRNA
B. the Shine-Dalgarno region of mRNA is reached
C. the amino acid methionine enters the ribosome
D. a protein release factor enters the ribosome and associates with a stop codon
E. binding of a specific tRNA in the A site of the ribosome
D
Transcription factors
A. Usually have a domain that binds to DNA
B. Usually have a domain that binds to RNA
C. Usually have a motif that enables protein-protein interaction
D. Almost always turn down the expression of a particular gene
E. Are a section of DNA that binds to repressor proteins
A
Histone deacetylases (HDACs) when activated will result in
A. transcripts of mRNA that show alternative splicing
B. transcripts of mRNA that lack 5’ caps and poly-A tails
C. the formation of 30 nanometer strands of tightly packed DNA
D. enhanced gene expression of many proteins
E. mRNAs that have many multiple ribosomes attached to them
C
Epigenetic modulation usually involves
A. the generation of silent mutations in the DNA
B. the generation of point mutations that change a single amino acid
C. mutations of several codons in the DNA sequence
D. turning on or turning off gene expression by methylation and acetylation
E. the continued production of specific miRNA molecules
D
In a eukaryote, a silencer is a A. transcription factor B. RNA C. miRNA D. regulatory protein E. a small portion of a DNA molecule
E
In E. coli that have a knockout mutation of the LacI gene (LacI-),
A. production of enzymes needed for processing lactose will be eliminated
B. production of the gene product for lacZ will be eliminated but that for the lacY gene product
will function normally
C. production of the gene product for lacY will be eliminated but that for the lacZ gene product
will function normally
D. the repressor protein will bind to the DNA permanently and not come off
E. the bacteria will always be producing the enzymes needed to process lactose
E
Proteins that have a helix-turn-helix motif
A. Are likely to bind to DNA
B. Are likely to bind to RNA
C. Are likely to bind to ribosomes
D. Are likely to be involved in alternative splicing
E. inhibit the production of tRNAs
A
Which is not part of the Lac operon? A. promotor of the lac operon B. operator of the lac operon C. lacZ gene D. lacY gene E. lacI gene
E
In negative control of gene transcription, binding of a regulatory protein
A. enhances the production of a gene product
B. decreases the production of a gene product
C. occurs at the operator region
D. occurs at the incubator region
E. B & C
E
Alternative splicing enables
A. one gene to make many variants of a protein.
B. different codons to code for different amino acids
C. one codon to code for several amino acids
D. several codons to code for one amino acid
E. regulation of the lifetime of an mRNA molecule
A
RNA interference is induced by
A. enzymes that degrade the poly A tail of a mRNA
B. proteins that cleave off the 5’ cap of a mRNA
C. short double-stranded RNAs
D. proteins that act as termination enhancers of translation
E. production of excess ribosomal RNA
C
Radioactive adenosine added to a cell will bind to A. DNA that is being synthesized B. mRNA that is being synthesized C. tRNA that is being synthesized D. miRNA that is being synthesized E. all of the above
E
In eukaryotes, the RISC complex A. enhances the expression of a gene product B. regulates transcription of mRNA C. degrades mature mRNA molecules D. binds to promoter proximal elements E. unwinds DNA during DNA synthesis
C
Synthesis of DNA generally occurs in A. the M phase B. the G1 phase C. the S phase D. interphase E. C & D
E
If one takes a small amount of cytoplasm from a cell in mitosis and injects it into a cell in
interphase, what will likely happen?
A. nuclear laminin proteins will link together
B. chromosomal proteins will be phosphorylated
C. an enzyme that degrades MPF will be activate
D. chromosomes will decondense
E. B & C
E
The TATA box is essential in eukaryotes for A. transcription B. translation C. post-translational modification D. miRNA function E. alternative splicing
A
A specific miRNA
A. greatly increases the expression of a given protein
B. splices specific sections of mRNA
C. selectively silences only one gene product
D. blocks all production of mRNA
E. binds to only one specific portion of DNA
C
In which mitotic phase are sister chromatids separated? A. anaphase B. metaphase C. prophase D. telophase E. allophase
A
What happens to MPF during the M stage of the cell cycle?
a. it is degraded
b. it does not change
c. it increases
d. it is activated by phosphorylation
e. it is inactivated by dephosphorylation
A OR B
The protein p53 is thought to play a key role in
a. driving cells into apoptosis
b. driving cells into mitosis
c. driving cells into the G2 phase of the cell cycle
d. increasing the concentration of cyclin
e. degrading cyclin
A
A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to
have an average of 25 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms per
nucleus would be found at the end of S and the end of G2?
a. 25; 50
b. 50; 25
c. 100; 52
d. 50; 50
e. 25; 100
D
The word “allele” refers to
A. different versions of the same gene
B. two different genes coding for unrelated proteins on different chromosomes
C. two different genes on the same chromosome
D. two different intron sets on different chromosomes
E. polycistronic genes
A
If large amounts of cyclin-dependent CDK were injected into cells in the G1 stage of the cell
cycle,
A. they would stay in the G1 phase
B. they would undergo apoptosis
C. they would immediately go into the G2 phase
D. they would undergo cytokinesis
E. they would undergo mitosis
A
