Exam 3 Flashcards

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1
Q

n E. coli, a protein that has a helix-turn-helix motif is likely to

A. prevent adenylate cyclase from functioning
B. bind to B-galactosidase to regulate its functioning
C. bind to a repressor protein and cause it to fall off a stretch of DNA
D. bind to a stretch of DNA
E. cause catabolite repression of gene expression

A

D

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2
Q

In eukaryotes, TATA sites can typically be found in

A. exons
B. introns
C. promoter sequences
D. proximal promotor element sites
E. enhancer regions
A

C

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3
Q

Which of the following statements best defines the term operon?

A. An operon is a region of DNA that consists of a single gene regulated by more than one promoter.
B. An operon is a region of DNA that codes for sugar-metabolizing enzymes.
C. An operon is a region of RNA that consists of the coding regions of more than one gene.
D. An operon is a region of DNA that codes for a series of functionally related genes under the control of the same promoter.
E. an operon is a region of DNA that codes for exons and introns, which are then spliced to produce appropriate and specific mRNAs.

A

D

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4
Q

When a stop codon on a mRNA reaches the “A” site in a ribosome,

A. one of four tRNAs that are associated with the stop codon will bind at the “A” site
B. a single, special tRNA lacking an amino acid will bind at the “A” site
C. a special protein factor will fill the “A” site
D. double stranded mRNA will bind at the “A” site
E. a hairpin loop will form in the mRNA

A

C

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5
Q

A compound known as X-Gal is widely used in molecular genetic research. When wild-type (normal) E. coli is grown on medium containing X-Gal, the bacterial colonies turn blue. In contrast, when lacZ mutants are grown on medium containing X-Gal, the bacterial colonies remain their normal white color. What is X-Gal likely to be?

A. a compound that can only be transported into lacA mutants
B. a compound chemically similar to glucose
C. a compound chemically similar to galactose
D. a compound chemically similar to lactose
E. a compound that cannot be transported into lacZ mutants

A

D

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6
Q

The anti-codon portion of the tRNA

A. Binds to the amino acid being transferred
B. Is essential in forming the alpha helix structure of tRNA
C. Associates with the complementary base pairs on mRNA
D. Was found to be radioactively labeled by researchers using cell-free preparations to examine protein synthesis
E. Binds to the enzyme that activates an amino acid to produce an aminoacyl tRNA

A

C

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7
Q

Which of the following have a site that binds specific regulatory proteins that promote highly specific gene transcription?

A. exons
B. introns
C. promoter sequences
D. proximal promoter element sites
E. enhancer regions
A

D

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8
Q

The RNA segments joined to one another by spliceosomes are _____.

A. Caps
B. exons
C. tails
D. introns
E. enhancers
A

B

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9
Q

Which types of mutants did Jacob and Monad come across in their studies of gene regulation?

A. mutations that prevented the expression and function of B-galactosidase
B. mutations that prevented the expression and function of galactoside permease
C. mutations that prevented the expression and function of the regulatory protein that controls expression of other genes
D. all of the above
E. none of the above

A

D

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10
Q

What kind of gene regulation is perceived as being particularly efficient but relatively slow in prokaryotes?

A. synthesis of DNA
B. transcriptional control
C. translational control
D. post-translational control
E. appropriate splicing of exons and introns
A

B

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11
Q

Codons are three-base sequences that specify the addition of a single amino acid. How do eukaryotic codons and prokaryotic codons compare?

A. The translation of codons is mediated by tRNAs in eukaryotes, but translation requires no intermediate molecules such as tRNAs in prokaryotes.
B. Codons are a nearly universal language among all organisms.
C. Prokaryotic codons usually specify different amino acids than those of eukaryotes.
D. Prokaryotic codons usually contain different bases than those of eukaryotes
E. Eukaryotic codons are much more complex than prokaryotic codons.

A

B

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12
Q

An example of a basal transcription factor is

A. RNA ppolymerase
B. the TATA binding protein
C. a promoter-proximal-binding transcription factor
D. a silencer-binding transcription factor
E. an enhancer-binding transcription factor

A

A

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13
Q

Lactose binds to _____ and causes _____

A. bindin; increased production of cAMP
B. repressor protein; allosteric regulation
C. B-galactosidase; increased gene expression of genes in the lac operon
D. galactoside permease; dereased gene expression of genes in the lac operon
E. glucose; decreased production of cAMP

A

B

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14
Q

When arabinose is present and glucose is absent,

A. the ara operon will be turned on by positive control
B. the ara operon will be turned on by negative control
C. the ara operon will be turned off by positive control
D. the ara operon will be turned off by negative control
E. the ara operon will first turn on and then turn off

A

A

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15
Q

Although the expression of most genes is tightly regulated, some genes are expressed at roughly constant rates (i.e., constitutively). Which of the following genes would you predict to be constitutively expressed?

A. genes involved in the transport of the sugar maltose
B. genes involved in the degradation of arabinose, a sugar
C. genes involved in the degradation of lactose
D. genes that code for ribosomal RNAs
E. genes involved in the synthesis of lactose

A

D

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16
Q

When we say that the genetic code is redundant, what is meant?

A. A single codon never specifies more than one amino acid
B. With a few minor exceptions, all codons specify the same amino acids in all organisms
C. When several codons specify the same amino acid, the first two bases are almost always identical
D. All amino acids except methionine and tryptophan are coded for by more than one codon
E. Codons can be cut out of mRNAs to allow new amino acids to be inserted

A

D

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17
Q

During RNA processing a(n) _____ is added to the 3’ end of the RNA.

A. 3' untranslated region
B. a long string of adenine nucleotides
C. 5' untranslated region
D. coding segment
E. intron
A

B

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18
Q

During transcription, in which direction is (1) RNA synthesized and in which direction is (2) the DNA template “read”?

A. (1) 5'—>3' (2) 5'—>3'
B. (1) 3'—>5' (2) 5'—>3'
C. (1) 5'—>3' (2) 3'—>5'
D. (1) 3'—>5' (2) 3'—>5'
E. (1) 5'—>5' (2) 3'—>3'
A

C

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19
Q

A promoter is

A. a special part of the RNA molecule
B. a site in DNA that recruits an RNA polymerase
C. a protein that binds to the DNA
D. a protein that binds to the RNA polymerase
E. a protein that binds to RNA

A

B

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20
Q

An experimenter wishes to determine the length of the S phase of liver cells. Which of the following compounds might be useful in determining this property?

A. thymidine
B. adenosine
C. uracil
D. cytosine
E. guanosine
A

A

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21
Q

According to the article “Is most of our DNA garbage”, what does Dr. T. Ryan Gregory say about most of our DNA?

A. It is mostly junk
B. Most is critical to producing RNAi and turning on genes
C. Most is critical to producing RNAi and turning off genes
D. Most is critical to the production of mRNAs
E. Most are shuffled exons waiting to be expressed in the right circumstances

A

A

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22
Q

According to the article “The Second Coming of RNAi”, approximately when was RNAi first discovered?

A. “It simply won’t be possible to do this with siRNA”
B. “While theoretically possible, we are many years away from being able to treat Ebola with siRNA”
C. “We are currently dealing with the harmful side effects of siRNA in the use of Ebola infections. It is difficult to separate cure from disease”.
D. “We have been able to establish in animal models that we can rescue the animals from certain death following an Ebola infection”.

A

D

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23
Q

The reason for differences in the sets of proteins expressed in a nerve and a pancreatic cell of the same individual is that nerve and pancreatic cells contain different _____.

A. genes
B. promotors
C. regulatory sequences
D. sets of regulatory proteins
E. promotor proximal elements
A

D

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24
Q

Are histone deacetylases (HDACs) associated with negative or positive control of gene expression? Why?

A. negative control, because they make DNA less accessible for transcription
B. positive control, because they make mRNA more accessible for translation
C. negative control, because they make mRNA less accessible for translation
D. positive control, because they make DNA more accessible for transcription
E. positive and negative control, because they generally sometimes make DNA less accessible and sometimes make it more accessible.

A

A

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25
Q

Which of the following is most critical for the association between histones and DNA?

A. Histones are highly conserved (i.e., histones are very similar in every eukaryote).
B. Histones are small proteins
C. Histones are synthesized in the cytoplasm.
D. Histones are positively charged.
E. There are at least five different histone proteins in every eukaryote.

A

D

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26
Q

In eukaryotes, TATA sites can typically be found in

A. exons
B. introns
C. promoter sequences
D. proximal promotor element sites
E. enhancer regions
A

C

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27
Q

The advantage of having exons and introns is that

A. expression of proteins can be significantly enhanced
B. it is easy to degrade mRNA signals
C. a very large number of variant proteins can be made from a single gene
D. enhancers and silencers can be used to regulate gene transcription
E. translation can be halted quickly

A

C

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28
Q

Scientists isolate cells in various phases of the cell cycle. They find a group of cells that have 1½ times more DNA than do G1 phase cells. The cells of this group are _____.

A. between the G1 and S phases in the cell cycle
B. in the M phase of the cell cycle
C. in the G1 phase of the cell cycle
D. in the S phase of the cell cycle
E. in the G2 phase of the cell cycle
A

D

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29
Q

The phenomenon in which RNA molecules in a cell are destroyed if they have a sequence complementary to an introduced double-stranded RNA is called

A. RNA blocking
B. RNA targeting
C. RNA obstruction
D. RNA operons
E. RNA interference
A

E

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30
Q

Imagine that you’ve discovered a regulatory sequence thousands of base pairs away from the promoter and that when this sequence is lost due to mutation, levels of gene expression decrease sharply. This sequence is most likely

A. an enhancer
B. a silencer
C. a promotor
D. a promotor-proximal element
E. an operon
A

A

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31
Q

Skeletal muscle cells often have several nuclei per cell. How could such multinucleated cells be explained?

A. The cell had multiple S phases before it entered mitosis.
B. The cell underwent repeated cytokinesis but no mitosis.
C. The cell underwent repeated mitosis with simultaneous cytokinesis.
D. The cell underwent repeated mitosis, but cytokinesis did not occur.
E. The cell was stuck in the G0 portion of the cell cycle

A

D

32
Q

In many eukaryotes, attaching an acetyl group onto specific histone portions would be expected to

A. enhance expression of certain genes
B. inhibit the expression of certain genes
C. lead to chromatin condensation
D. lead to decondensation of chromatin
E. A & D
A

E

33
Q

According to the article “The Second Coming of RNAi”, what happens to unmodified siRNAs injected directly into the blood stream?

A. They are engulfed by virtually every cell in the body
B. They are engulfed by all cells except brain cells
C. They are engulfed primarily by cells of the bone marrow
D. They are degraded by enzymes and are unable to cross cell membranes
E. They are incorporated into the DNA od many cells

A

D

34
Q

According to the article “Is most of our DNA garbage”, what did Francis Crick think regarding most of our DNA?

A. It is mostly junk
B. Most is critical to producing RNAi and turning on genes
C. Most is critical to producing RNAi and turning off genes
D. Most is critical to the production of mRNAs
E. Most are shuffled exons waiting to be expressed in the right circumstances

A

A

35
Q

A promotor is

A. a special part of the RNA molecule
B. a site in DNA that recruits an RNA polymerase
C. a protein that binds to the DNA
D. a protein that binds to the RNA polymerase
E. a protein that binds to RNA

A

B

36
Q

An example of a basal transcription factor is

A. RNA ppolymerase
B. the TATA binding protein
C. a promoter-proximal-binding transcription factor
D. a silencer-binding transcription factor
E. an enhancer-binding transcription factor

A

B

37
Q

MicroRNAs work to

A. decrease the binding of ribosomes to the 5’ cap of messenger RNA
B. bind to selective regions of DNA to activate their silencing activity
C. speed up transcription by binding to enhancer regions of DNA
D. destroy mRNA or block its translation
E. alter the pattern of alternative splicing

A

D

38
Q

A RISC protein complex

A. enhances the expression of select genes
B. decondenses chromatin
C. binds short strands of RNA
D. facilitates the destruction of mRNAs
E. C & D
A

E

39
Q

A mutation occurs in DNA such that the messenger RNA now codes for a valine instead of a glutamate in the hemoglobin of a person. Which of the following statements is most correct?
A. there is a change in the genotype of the individual but not the phenotype
B. there is a change in the phenotype of the individual but not the genotype
C. there is no expected change in either the genotype or phenotype of the individual
D. there is both a change in the phenotype and genotype of the individual
E. none of the above

A

D

40
Q
2. What percentage of the DNA in your body is used to code for proteins?
A.  3%
B.  15%
C.  50%
D.  75%
E.  100%
A

A

41
Q

When we say that the genetic code is redundant, what is meant?
A. A single codon never specifies more than one amino acid
B. With a few minor exceptions, all codons specify the same amino acids in all organisms
C. When several codons specify the same amino acid, the first two bases are almost always identical
D. All amino acids except methionine and tryptophan are coded for by more than one codon
E. Codons can be cut out of mRNAs to allow new amino acids to be inserted

A

D

42
Q

What are the components of a nucleotide?
A. a sugar, a sulfate group and a pyrimidine
B. a sugar, a sulfate group and a purine
C. a sugar, an amino acid and a nitrogenous base
D. a sugar, a phosphate group and a nitrogenous base
E. a sugar and a nitrogenous base

A

D

43
Q

By convention, nucleotide sequences are always written from the _____.
A. amino terminus to the carboxyl terminus
B. 3’ end to the 5’ end
C. sugar end to the phosphate end
D. 5’ end to the 3’ end
E. nucleotide to diphosphate bond end

A

D

44
Q
If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of guanine?
A.  10
B.  40
C.  80
D.  20
E.  It is not possible to tell
A

B

45
Q
  1. What holds the strands of the DNA double helix together?
    A. Attractions between polar sugars.
    B. Attractions between the ionized phosphates.
    C. Hydrogen bonds between purines and pyrimidines.
    D. Proteins that bind to DNA bases.
    E. Covalent bonds between A and T, and between C and G.
A

C

46
Q

If you were to analyze a DNA sample from a eukaryotic cell, you would find that:
A. the number of purines equals the number of pyrimidines.
B. (b) the number of adenines equals the number of uracils.
C. (c) the number of guanines equals the number of cytosines.
D. Both (a) and (c).
E. (a), (b), and (c).

A

D

47
Q

In determining the structure of DNA, Rosalind Franklin played a key role in
A. determining that the number of purines equaled the number of pyrimidines
B. determining that the number of As equaled the Number of Ts and that the number of Cs equaled the number of Us
C. providing an estimate of the number of phosphate and sugar groups that made up the structure of DNA
D. providing X-ray crystallography measurements of the dimensions of DNA
E. showing that the DNA was in the form of a double helix

A

D

48
Q
10. In sickle-cell anemia, how many base pairs in the DNA coding for hemoglobin have typically been changed?
A.  1.
B.  2.
C.  3
D.  4
E.  none; one is in fact removed
A

A

49
Q

How is a mutation in a bacterial cell that deletes three base pairs 10 base pairs upstream from the +1 site likely to affect transcription and why?
A. A three-base-pair deletion is too small to have an effect.
B. A normal RNA message will be produced with only one change in the ultimate amino acid
C. Initiation will be inhibited because RNA polymerase core enzyme cannot bind to the promoter.
D. Initiation will be inhibited because sigma cannot bind to the promotor.
E. Termination will not occur because hairpin secondary structure cannot form.

A

D

50
Q

Genotype is to _____ as phenotype is to _____.
A. heredity; DNA base sequence
B. gene regulation; translation
C. transcription; amino acid sequence
D. DNA base sequence; physical traits that are products of the proteins produced
E. Translation; transcription

A

D

51
Q

If a mutated DNA sequence produces a protein that differs in one central amino acid from the normal protein, which of the following kinds of point mutations could have occurred?
A. none
B. an addition mutation
C. a deletion mutation
D. an addition mutation and a deletion mutation
E. an addition mutation and two deletion mutations

A

D

52
Q
  1. The primary structure of DNA is specified by
    A. the number of phosphodiester bonds
    B. the sequence of nucleotides in each of its strands
    C. the number of phosphate groups
    D. the sugar backbone provided by deoxyribose
    E. the three-dimensional form of the DNA molecule
A

B

53
Q

A geneticist alters an mRNA so that there is a new nucleotide triplet, UAG, in the middle of the RNA strand. This will result in
A. a missense mutation
B. a silent mutation
C. a frameshift
D. a protein that is about half as long as the original protein coded by the normal mRNA
E. no effect at all

A

D

54
Q

Marshall Nirenberg and Gobind Korana were able to figure out
A. the structure of DNA
B. the structure of RNA
C. which amino acids were associated with which specific codons
D. how DNA is transcribed into RNA
E. how RNA is transcribed into DNA in HIV

A

C

55
Q
18.  If a DNA sequence is altered from TAGCTGA to TAGTGA, what kind of mutation has occurred?
A.  Point mutation
B.  Frameshift mutation
C.  Insertion mutation
D.  Missense mutation
E.  A & B
A

E

56
Q
Each codon shown below specifies an amino acid. For which one is it possible that a change in a single base could create a stop codon?
A.  CAC
B.  ACC
C.  AAA
D.  ACA
E.  UUU
A

C

57
Q

. In the Steven Pinker article “My Genome, My Self”, the 2013 Supreme Court ruling on genetic testing did what?
A. Ruled most kinds of genetic testing unconstitutional
B. Made testing for breast cancer genes less available and more expensive
C. Invalidated patents held by Myriad Genetics on hereditary breast cancer testing
D. Validated Myriad Genetics’ claim to ownership of hereditary breast cancer testing
E. None of the above

A

C

58
Q

According to the article “My Genome, My Self” by Steven Pinker, why have the states of California and New York taken action against direct-to-consumer companies providing genetic analysis?
A. the states argue that the genome sequences obtained are too prone to error
B. the states argue that this is against the inter-commerce clause in the amendments to the US constitution
C. the states argue that this type of information needs to be given out freely, without any cost involved.
D. the states argue that the companies are providing medical tests and thus can be ordered only by a doctor.

A

D

59
Q

According to the article “My Genome, My Self” by Steven Pinker, what is the genetic version of the “Twinkie Defense”?
A. the argument is that if you eat twinkies, an individual cannot be held account for any actions that follow afterwards
B. the argument that people cannot be held responsible because their behavior is already specified by the genes they carry.
C. the argument that genes are like the filling on the inside of a twinky – kind of mushy and modifiable.
D. the argument that an individual is liable for their actions except under extraordinary circumstances
E. the argument that people are the equivalent of twinkies – soft on the inside, harder on the outside.

A

B

60
Q

. In the article “My Genome, My Self”, in Steven Pinker’s view, is genetic determinism ever correct?
A. He argues that it is never correct and never can be so
B. He argues that genetic determinism is always correct and must be so.
C. He argues that it is correct sometimes, such as in an individual who has a genetic deficit for Huntington’s disease and who will inevitably get it.
D. He argues that it can be modified by using gene modifications to “alter” what would have been deterministic states.
E. He argues that the concept is meaningless

A

C

61
Q

According to the article “My Genome, My Self” by Steven Pinker, what is an exome?
A. the total amount of DNA present in a human cell
B. the total amount of DNA and protein present in a human cell
C. the total amount of DNA and RNA present in a human cell
D. the amount of DNA that is constantly remodeled in a human cell
E. the 1-3 % of our genome that is translated into strings of amino acids

A

E

62
Q

According to the article “My Genome, My Self” by Steven Pinker, what disease gene does Pinker carry?
A. hemophilia
B. sickle cell anemia
C. familial dysautonomia, an incurable disorder of the autonomic nervous system
D. Huntington’s disease
E. he does not have any such gene in his genome

A

C

63
Q
27.  According to the article “My Genome, My Self” by Steven Pinker,  how much of the variation in being tall (or not) do genetic analyses currently explain?
A.  none
B.  2%
C.  25%
D.  55%
E.  95%
A

B

64
Q
According to the article “My Genome, My Self” by Steven Pinker, what is the largest amount of impact that a single gene has been seen to have on intelligence?
A.  none
B.  ¼ IQ point
C.  5 IQ points
D.  20 IQ points
E.  50 IQ points
A

B

65
Q
In the article “Finding risks, not answers, in gene tests” by Denise Grady and Andrew Pollack, what genetic mutation did Jennifer discover in her genome?
A.  breast cancer
B.  stomach cancer
C.  Hodgkin’s disease
D.  brain cancer
E.  skin cancer
A

B

66
Q

In the article “Finding risks, not answers, in gene tests” by Denise Grady and Andrew Pollack, why was finding a gene that caused stomach cancer especially worrisome?
A. it always leads to a cancer in everyone
B. in individuals with a family history of the disease, they are strongly at risk and are advised to have their stomachs removed
C. it spreads quickly into brain cancer
D. the disease had already spread to the liver
E. it spreads quickly to breast cancer

A

B

67
Q

In the article “Finding risks, not answers, in gene tests” by Denise Grady and Andrew Pollack, what does Mary-Claire King, who helped discover the BRCA-1 gene, suggest about sequence variants of unknown significance?
A. they should be used to counsel patients about the risks of particular disease
B. they should be collected and matched with other patients to look for risky outcomes
C. they should be used to compare sequences between parents and children
D. they should not even be reported by laboratories to doctors and patients
E. they should be considered open use for research on the cause of different diseases

A

D

68
Q

In the article “Finding risks, not answers, in gene tests” by Denise Grady and Andrew Pollack, what advice was given to Jennifer regarding the finding of a gene that can cause stomach cancer?
A. she should have her stomach removed
B. there is no cause for worry and no cause for any action at this time
C. she should have the gene sequence redone
D. she should have an endoscopy done twice a year, likely for the rest of her life
E. she should have stomach cells frozen so that when her stomach has to be removed, a new one can be created

A

D

69
Q

According to the article “The Second Coming of RNAi”, what is the status of using RNAi against prostate cancer?
A. It simply cannot be done at the present time
B. It is being tested in rats; monkeys will be the next step.
C. It can be done in cultured cells, but has not moved to animals yet.
D. It has been done in rats, mice and monkeys but has not been tried in humans yet.
E. It has been tried in a Phase I clinical trial with human patients, and none of the patients showed any tumor progression when examined 8 to 12 weeks after a single injection of siRNA.

A

E

70
Q

According to the article “The Second Coming of RNAi”, what happens to unmodified siRNAs injected directly into the blood stream?
A. They are engulfed by virtually every cell in the body
B. They are engulfed by all cells except brain cells
C. They are engulfed primarily by cells of the bone marrow
D. They are degraded by enzymes and are unable to cross cell membranes
E. They are incorporated into the DNA od many cells

A

D

71
Q

According to the article “The Second Coming of RNAi”, what did the pharmaceutical company Roche do after a $500 million investment in RNAi in 2010?
A. It bought several other large RNAi companies worth over $1 billion
B. It announced a cure for hepatitis C using RNAi
C. It was awarded a Nobel Prize for contributing substantially to basic science research on RNAi
D. It shut down the RNAi division

A

D

72
Q
.  According to the article “The Second Coming of RNAi”, approximately when was RNAi first discovered?
A. 1900
B. 1950
C. 1975
D. 1998
E.  2013
A

D

73
Q

According to the article “Is most of our DNA garbage”, what happens in mice if the stretch of non-coding RNA dubbed “hotair” is abolished?
A. Nothing – the mice are normal
B. All the mice die in-utero
C. The mice develop a constellation of deformities
D. The production of glucose is down-regula ted
E. The lac operon no longer functions.

A

C

74
Q
An experimenter wishes to determine the length of the S phase of liver cells.  Which of the following compounds might be useful in determining this property?
A.  thymidine
B.  adenosine
C.  uracil
D.  cytosine
E.  guanosine
A

A

75
Q

Skeletal muscle cells often have several nuclei per cell. How could such multinucleated cells be explained?
A. The cell had multiple S phases before it entered mitosis.
B. The cell underwent repeated cytokinesis but no mitosis.
C. The cell underwent repeated mitosis with simultaneous cytokinesis.
D. The cell underwent repeated mitosis, but cytokinesis did not occur.
E. The cell was stuck in the G0 portion of the cell cycle

A

D

76
Q

The advantage of having exons and introns is that
A. expression of proteins can be significantly enhanced
B. it is easy to degrade mRNA signals
C. a very large number of variant proteins can be made from a single gene
D. enhancers and silencers can be used to regulate gene transcription
E. translation can be halted quickly

A

C

77
Q

Imagine you’ve isolated a yeast mutant that contains a constitutively (constantly) active histone acetylase. What phenotype do you predict for this mutant?
A. The mutant will show low levels of gene expression.
B. The mutant will grow slowly
C. The mutant will show high levels of gene expression.
D. The mutant will require galactose for growth.
E. The mutant will never express any gene products

A

C