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A&P I > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

The largest cells in the body belong to what tissue type?

A

nervous

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2
Q

Which of these will never open onto a hair?

A

eccrine sweat gland

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3
Q

The potential to make adjustments is:

A

adaptability

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4
Q

When atoms share an electron what type of bond is it called?

A

covalent

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5
Q

This is performed by microphages and macrophages to engulf bacteria and then destroy it.

A

phagocytosis

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6
Q

A tissue that absorbs, filters, and protects would be called:

A

epithelial

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7
Q

This is the most common place for an injection and the least specialised type of connective tissue:

A

areolar connective tissue

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8
Q

When the endocrine system controls your body through hormones what is it called?

A

extrinsic regulation

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9
Q

Catalysts that start reactions within the body are called:

A

enzymes

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10
Q

The process of destroying organelles is called:

A

autolysis

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11
Q

Which of these structures will have hyaluron, proteoglycans, and interstitial fluid?

A

ground substance

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12
Q

Belts, buttons, and hemidesmosomes are a type of:

A

desmosomes

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13
Q

What tissue type produces antiangiogenesis factor?

A

cartilage

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14
Q

Physiology is only explainable in terms of the underlying:

A

anatomy

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15
Q

This characteristic allows you to tell the top surface from the bottom surface in epithelial tissue:

A

polarity

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16
Q

The splitting of a cell that begins in late anaphase and ends in telophase is called:

A

cytokinesis

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17
Q

Which of these causes the sensation of pain or labour contractions?

A

eicosanoids

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18
Q

Cells are:

A

Unit of heredity, functional unit of life, and where growth occurs

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19
Q

Which of these is commonly exposed to the outside?

A

epithelial tissue

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20
Q

The first step in tissue repair is:

A

organisation

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21
Q

To put something into the body or mouth is called:

A

parthenogenesis

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22
Q

Which of these is not found in adults?

A

Mucous connective tissue, brown fat, and mesenchyme

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23
Q

Which of these cells are the largest?

A

Skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle: all are the same size

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24
Q

What is the most abundant high energy compound for cellular functions?

A

ATP

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25
Q

The layer of the basal lamina that is closer to the epithelium is:

A

lamina lucida

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26
Q

Which process of interphase lasts the longest?

A

G1 phase

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27
Q

The absence of homeostasis will cause:

A

disease

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28
Q

What nourishes cartilage?

A

perichondrium

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29
Q

Which of these is a dry membrane?

A

cutaneous membrane

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30
Q

Which of these is the most abundant organic compound in the body?

A

protein

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31
Q

Cells in a hypertonic solution will:

A

shrink

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32
Q

A gland that collects its product till it bursts is called:

A

holocrine gland

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33
Q

Your nose is flexible because it is made out of this cartilage:

A

hyaline

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34
Q

Mesothelium is specialised:

A

simple squamous epithelium

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35
Q

Which of these is not a membranous organelle?

A

ribosome

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36
Q

True or false: All of the body’s systems and organs operate at an optimal temperature of 98.6 F.

A

false

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37
Q

A nurse has to give you an injection into a vein. What field do you hope she is good in?

A

surface anatomy

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38
Q

Where will you find stratified columnar epithelium?

A

male urethra

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39
Q

Tissue repair that leads to scar tissue is called:

A

fibrosis

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40
Q

Tendons and ligaments are made of:

A

dense regular connective tissue

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41
Q

Which term does not belong?

A

stratified

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42
Q

You’ve cut yourself. What system will you rely on to stop the bleeding?

A

positive feedback loop

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43
Q

Which of these is not a requirement of life?

A

movement

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44
Q

Which of these membranes produces transudate?

A

serous membrane

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45
Q

If someone said hemocyte what can you tell them?

A

dormant blood cell

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46
Q

If the blood’s pH is below 7 what can happen?

A

coma and acidosis

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47
Q

A message from the receptor toward the control center will travel along what pathway?

A

afferent pathway

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48
Q

Fibers that form a “net” around structures are called:

A

reticular

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49
Q

Building up process that results in storage of energy is called:

A

anabolism

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50
Q

Which of these structures has the best chance for regeneration?

A

areolar connective tissue

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51
Q

Which of these conditions can you visually identify in a bow-legged child?

A

osteomalacia

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52
Q

The most abundant epidermal cells are:

A

keratinocytes

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53
Q

When you begin to stand what curvature will appear?

A

lumbar

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54
Q

What connects lacunae to each other and to the osteon canal?

A

canaliculi

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55
Q

Bones that may form in the eyes are called:

A

ectopic bones

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56
Q

What structure nourishes hair?

A

papilla

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57
Q

This is responsible for bone growth in diameter:

A

periosteum

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58
Q

Which of these would not have a keratin component?

A

dermis

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59
Q

This consists of cancellous bone covered by compact bone:

A

epiphysis

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60
Q

How many cranial bone are there?

A

8

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61
Q

Which of these can be caused by syphilis?

A

bursitis

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62
Q

How do flat bones grow?

A

appositional growth

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63
Q

Skin cancer that rapidly metastasizes and is deadly is:

A

malignant melanoma

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64
Q

Calcium salts deposited into material is called:

A

calcification

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65
Q

Which is not an irregular bone?

A

sternum

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66
Q

The last part of the sternum to fuse is the:

A

xiphoid process

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67
Q

The integumentary system makes up an average ____ of the total body weight:

A

16%

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68
Q

Which of these is not a function of bone?

A

store carbohydrates

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69
Q

Where would you find a bifid notch?

A

cervical vertebrae

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70
Q

If you held your breath until you turned blue what would that be called?

A

cyanosis

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71
Q

What structure is formed first with endochondral ossification?

A

periosteum

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72
Q

When sodium urate crystals form in the soft tissues of the joints it is called?

A

gouty arthritis

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73
Q

The suture between the occipital and parietal bones would be the:

A

lambdoidal

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74
Q

What cells make acid phosphatase?

A

osteoclasts

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75
Q

Blood deficiency over a bony projection can lead to:

A

decubitus ulcer

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76
Q

What bone type has trabeculae?

A

cancellous

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77
Q

What increases calcium in body fluids like blood?

A

PTH

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78
Q

Which pairing is incorrect?

A

Thoracic – 11

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79
Q

Whose job is it to keep hair from drying out?

A

sebaceous glands

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80
Q

Which does not belong?

A

Volkmann’s canal

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81
Q

An exaggerated thoracic curvature is called:

A

kyphosis

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82
Q

The reticular layer is made of:

A

dense irregular connective tissue

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83
Q

Which of these is not a risk factor for osteoporosis?

A

vitamin C deficiency

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84
Q

What fontanel lasts until the age of 2?

A

anterior

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85
Q

Flat bones are also called:

A

dermal bones

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86
Q

Burns on the perineum represent what percentage of the body?

A

1%

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87
Q

Which of these will not be found in every person?

A

Wormian bones

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88
Q

Which of these has regional control?

A

merocrine sweat glands

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89
Q

Which of these is an autoimmune disease?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

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90
Q

The sphenoid would be found in the?

A

base

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91
Q

What layer of the epidermis do cells stop dividing and start dying?

A

stratum granulosum

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92
Q

What pair of ribs will attach directly to the body of the sternum?

A

6th pair

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93
Q

What do the bone building cells need for collagen synthesis?

A

vitamin C

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94
Q

Red hair is the result of a lot of what in the hair shaft?

A

iron

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95
Q

Process of turning fibrous membranes into bone is called:

A

intramembranous ossification

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96
Q

Which bone will serve as attachment in the neck for speech?

A

hyoid bone

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97
Q

Which of these would be the least painful?

A

3rd degree burns

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98
Q

What makes up the “roof” of the vertebral arch?

A

laminae

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99
Q

Which of these is not a part of the integument?

A

hypodermis

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100
Q

These detect touch in the papillary layer:

A

Meissner’s corpuscles

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101
Q

The most flexible and weakest joint in the following group is the:

A

shoulder

102
Q

When describing bones using terms such as heavier, larger, robust, deeper, and more prominent markings would allow a researcher to determine:

A

sex

103
Q

Which of these is an autoimmune disease?

A

myasthenia gravis

104
Q

Conversion of lactic acid into glucose takes place in the:

A

Cori cycle

105
Q

Which of these will ossify when you start walking?

A

patella

106
Q

What is the weakest part of the skeleton?

A

joints

107
Q

What is released into the neuromuscular junction by the nerve?

A

acetylcholine

108
Q

Whose job is it to guard entrances and exits internally?

A

smooth muscle

109
Q

What is the most important stabilising factor for synovial joints?

A

muscle tone

110
Q

A triad consists of a T tubule and:

A

sarcoplasmic reticulum

111
Q

Which of these is a part of the brachium?

A

humerus

112
Q

Synostoses start out as what type of joints?

A

synchondrosis

113
Q

Electrolyte imbalances can cause:

A

spasm

114
Q

Being able to function over a wide range of lengths is called:

A

plasticity

115
Q

Hitching a ride you would use your:

A

pollex

116
Q

Which of these is not a function of synovial fluid?

A

stabilise the joint

117
Q

Which of these will use a lot of ATP and will tire easily?

A

skeletal muscle

118
Q

A neuron plus all the muscle fibers is stimulates is called:

A

motor unit

119
Q

You have bent your neck vertebrae in order to look at the clouds, what is this called?

A

hyperextension

120
Q

Which of these could not be congenital?

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

121
Q

Pouch like enfoldings in the membrane to hold calcium in smooth muscle are called:

A

caveoli

122
Q

A person that plays tennis would require what type of energy production?

A

glycolysis

123
Q

At the anatomical position all major joints except the ankles are at full:

A

extension

124
Q

Which of these holds blood vessels, nerves, and small muscles?

A

lesser sciatic notch

125
Q

Automaticity is a character of:

A

cardiac muscle

126
Q

Incomplete relaxation after stimulation is:

A

contracture

127
Q

To show someone your palms what motion would you do?

A

supination

128
Q

What is the only part of the os coxae to articulate with the axial skeleton?

A

ilium

129
Q

Whose job is it to subdivide the synovial cavity?

A

meniscus

130
Q

What covers a fascicle?

A

perimysium

131
Q

A muscle that decreases in size is said to:

A

atrophy

132
Q

The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the:

A

acromion

133
Q

The gelatinous core of intervertebral discs is called the:

A

nucleus pulposus

134
Q

Which of these can be affected by drugs or hormones?

A

visceral smooth muscle

135
Q

You find a skeleton with the following characteristics: vertical forehead, coccyx that points posteriorly, smooth pelvis, unfused hyoid bone, and fusion of styloid process with the temporal bone. Give the age and sex.

A

young, female

136
Q

In skeletal muscle contraction what will move tropomyosin from the binding site?

A

troponin

137
Q

Which of these would not produce a strong contraction?

A

short muscle fibers

138
Q

The joints between your fingers and wrist are:

A

condyloid

139
Q

Muscle fibers with large glycogen reserves and few mitochondria describe:

A

Type II-A fibers

140
Q

Which of these structures will only have myosin present?

A

H zone

141
Q

Smooth muscles have ___ as their regulatory protein.

A

calmodulin

142
Q

Which of these is not a functional classification?

A

synovial

143
Q

What is the best form in which a muscle stores energy?

A

creatine phosphate

144
Q

When a muscle shortens but its tension remains the same it is called:

A

isotonic contraction

145
Q

The bump distal to the knee is the:

A

tibial tuberosity

146
Q

The ability to be stretched is called:

A

extensibility

147
Q

The most common type of bursitis is:

A

bunion

148
Q

Anchor points for thin myofilaments in smooth muscle are:

A

dense bodies

149
Q

Which area would you not find Type I fibers?

A

eye

150
Q

Syndesmoses are a fibrous type of:

A

amphiarthroses

151
Q

The restoration of resting membrane potential is called:

A

repolarisation

152
Q

This is caused by retrograde flow bringing a virus that destroys the nerve cell bodies:

A

rabies

153
Q

Which plexus area will you find no dorsal rami?

A

cervical

154
Q

The most common levers in the body are:

A

third class

155
Q

What structure will have side branches called collaterals?

A

axons

156
Q

What is found directly below the lumbar enlargement?

A

conus medullaris

157
Q

Which of these neurons would be faster?

A

myelinated, four microns in diameter

158
Q

An amplifying circuit would be an example of:

A

divergence

159
Q

All muscle fibers within a fascicle are:

A

parallel

160
Q

Proprioceptors are examples of:

A

afferent neurons

161
Q

Which of these tracts carries voluntary control of skeletal muscles?

A

corticospinal tracts

162
Q

If you need a G protein to link messengers it is called:

A

indirect effect

163
Q

The first step in neural repair is:

A

Wallerian degeneration

164
Q

A protrusion of the stomach into the thoracic cavity is called:

A

hiatus hernia

165
Q

When the axon and dendrite are continuous and the cell body is to one side what type of neurons is that?

A

unipolar

166
Q

Simultaneous stimuli at multiple synapses causes:

A

spatial summation

167
Q

Which of these is not a function of spinal fluid?

A

conduct neural transmissions

168
Q

The patellar reflex is a:

A

stretch reflex

169
Q

Which of these will take less energy?

A

saltatory propagation

170
Q

Action potentials are generated by:

A

axons

171
Q

“Extrinsic” in a muscle name would tell you:

A

position

172
Q

When the presynaptic neuron synapses on a postsynaptic neuron that junction is called:

A

synaptic knob

173
Q

What cells direct neuron development in the embryonic brain?

A

astrocytes

174
Q

The femoral nerve belongs to the:

A

lumbar plexus

175
Q

A muscle that immobilises a bone of muscle origin is called:

A

fixator

176
Q

Which does not belong?

A

Nissl body

177
Q

Abdominal reflex is a:

A

superficial reflex

178
Q

Which of these is incapable of saltatory propagation?

A

Type C fibers

179
Q

Tearing of the muscle with bleeding into the tissue is:

A

Charley horse

180
Q

At rest there is more ___ on the outside of a nerve cell resulting in a ___ charge and more ____ in the inside resulting in a ____ charge.

A

Sodium, positive, potassium, negative

181
Q

Functional group of neurons that integrate incoming information, process, and send it onward are called:

A

neuronal pools

182
Q

Which of these are speed levers?

A

mechanical disadvantage

183
Q

Which of these is an inhibitory neurotransmitter only?

A

gammaaminobutyric acid

184
Q

The ventral rami of T2-T12 join to form:

A

they do not join to form a plexus

185
Q

Which statement is incorrect?

A

You lose 20%-60% of the muscle’s performance by age 65

186
Q

The sympathetic nervous system is part of the:

A

autonomic nervous system

187
Q

Which of these is filled with cerebrospinal fluid?

A

subarachnoid space

188
Q

Which of these is the type of control reflexes that control the same side affected?

A

ipsilateral

189
Q

Region of the skin served by a single pair of spinal nerves is called:

A

dermatomes

190
Q

Which of these will not be found in a parallel muscle?

A

raphe

191
Q

What is made of mostly neuron cell bodies and dendrites?

A

gray matter

192
Q

Which of these parts of a reflex arc will be found in the CNS?

A

center

193
Q

When the sodium gates close and potassium gates open it is called?

A

relative refractory period

194
Q

Where will you find somatic motor nuclei?

A

anterior gray horn

195
Q

What body part acts as the fulcrum for movement?

A

joints

196
Q

Which of these conditions affects the arachnoid and pia mater?

A

leptomeningitis

197
Q

What key part of a neuron has to remain intact for nerve repair to happen?

A

nerve cell body

198
Q

What spinal nerve pairing is incorrect?

A

cervical – 7

199
Q

What makes the myelin sheath in the central nervous system?

A

oligodendrocytes

200
Q

This is the passive force caused by a concentration gradient:

A

chemical gradient

201
Q

What absorbs the CSF from the subarachnoid space?

A

arachnoid villi

202
Q

When you are using your imagination what hemisphere are you using?

A

right hemisphere

203
Q

Which of these do not cross over?

A

posterior spinocerebellar tract

204
Q

Which of these would not be a cholinergic synapse?

A

most sympathetic ganglionic neurons

205
Q

Cerebellar folds are called:

A

folia

206
Q

What part of the thalamus produces the outward expression of rage and fear?

A

lateral group

207
Q

You are playing a musical instrument by reading a new score and you realise you are out of time. What part of the brain is not involved?

A

occipital association area

208
Q

Which of these is phasic?

A

lamellated corpuscle

209
Q

What drug will prevent you from drooling during surgery?

A

anticholinergics

210
Q

Which of these is not involved with the movement of the eyeball?

A

trigeminal nerve-5

211
Q

The telencephalon becomes:

A

cerebrum

212
Q

What part of thebrain helps you to duck if a ball is coming at your head?

A

Mesencephalon

213
Q

What part of the somatic nervous system is not located in the CNS?

A

upper motor neuron

214
Q

What brain part will not affect the ANS?

A

cerebellum

215
Q

You are planning a study session for the final. Where in your brain will this take place?

A

prefrontal area

216
Q

What allows communication between different parts of the same hemisphere?

A

association fibers

217
Q

Awareness of a stimuli is called:

A

sensation

218
Q

Which of these would not be the result of stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system?

A

increased gastric motility

219
Q

As you watch TV you see and recognise your favourite actor. What part of the brain are you using?

A

occipital association area

220
Q

What type of sensory pathway part is in the thalamus?

A

third order neuron

221
Q

What helps explain referred pain?

A

visceral reflexes

222
Q

What is the second most common disorder?

A

epilepsy

223
Q

What type of receptors cause thermogenesis in infants?

A

Beta 3

224
Q

What structure tells your arms to stop swinging when you stop walking?

A

basal nuclei

225
Q

Tracts leaving the basal nuclei usually have a(n) ____ effect on upper motor neurons.

A

inhibitory

226
Q

Which collateral ganglion goes to the kidneys?

A

inferior mesenteric ganglion

227
Q

What structure is responsible for your ability to lick an ice cream cone?

A

mammillary bodies

228
Q

Where will you find the nerve cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons?

A

cranial nerve

229
Q

Conversion of short term memory into long term memory is called:

A

memory consolidation

230
Q

Which of these could not indicate a problem with the hypothalamus?

A

Chronic binge eating or drinking

231
Q

Sympathetic division is also known as the:

A

thoracolumbar division

232
Q

Damage to the primary visual area will result in:

A

blindness

233
Q

Pain is picked up by:

A

nociceptors

234
Q

The reticular activating system is used to maintain:

A

arousal

235
Q

Which does not belong?

A

interventricular foramen

236
Q

Which of these areas is separated by a circular sulcus?

A

Island of Reil

237
Q

When conscious awareness of a stimulus disappears it is called:

A

central adaptation

238
Q

Which statement is false?

A

somatic motor division have ganglion

239
Q

You are watching a sad movie and your friend is crying. What part of the brain is overriding the logic that it is only a movie?

A

Limbic system

240
Q

What separates the hemispheres of the cerebellum from those of the cerebrum?

A

falx cerebelli

241
Q

The most important nerve of the parasympathetic division is the:

A

Vagus nerve-10

242
Q

Which tract starts at the superior and inferior colliculi?

A

tectospinal tract

243
Q

You have to verbally respond to someone’s speech. What two parts will you use?

A

parietal association area and Broca’s speech area

244
Q

Which of these is always stimulatory?

A

nicotinic receptor

245
Q

What type of receptor does not adapt?

A

proprioceptor

246
Q

In a recent movie an actress was unable to store new memories but could remember everything before her accident. What problem did she have?

A

anterograde amnesia

247
Q

Which of these is prevented from entering the brain because of the blood-brain barrier?

A

urea

248
Q

What type of synapse will be inactivated by monoamine oxidase?

A

adrenergic synapse

249
Q

Which statement is not true about the medulla oblongata?

A

It contains the pneumotaxic and apneustic areas.

250
Q

What brain disorder can be caused by an over-the-counter medicine?

A

Reye’s syndrome

A&P I (6 decks)

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