Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
The largest cells in the body belong to what tissue type?
A
nervous
2
Q
Which of these will never open onto a hair?
A
eccrine sweat gland
3
Q
The potential to make adjustments is:
A
adaptability
4
Q
When atoms share an electron what type of bond is it called?
A
covalent
5
Q
This is performed by microphages and macrophages to engulf bacteria and then destroy it.
A
phagocytosis
6
Q
A tissue that absorbs, filters, and protects would be called:
A
epithelial
7
Q
This is the most common place for an injection and the least specialised type of connective tissue:
A
areolar connective tissue
8
Q
When the endocrine system controls your body through hormones what is it called?
A
extrinsic regulation
9
Q
Catalysts that start reactions within the body are called:
A
enzymes
10
Q
The process of destroying organelles is called:
A
autolysis
11
Q
Which of these structures will have hyaluron, proteoglycans, and interstitial fluid?
A
ground substance
12
Q
Belts, buttons, and hemidesmosomes are a type of:
A
desmosomes
13
Q
What tissue type produces antiangiogenesis factor?
A
cartilage
14
Q
Physiology is only explainable in terms of the underlying:
A
anatomy
15
Q
This characteristic allows you to tell the top surface from the bottom surface in epithelial tissue:
A
polarity
16
Q
The splitting of a cell that begins in late anaphase and ends in telophase is called:
A
cytokinesis
17
Q
Which of these causes the sensation of pain or labour contractions?
A
eicosanoids
18
Q
Cells are:
A
Unit of heredity, functional unit of life, and where growth occurs
19
Q
Which of these is commonly exposed to the outside?
A
epithelial tissue
20
Q
The first step in tissue repair is:
A
organisation
21
Q
To put something into the body or mouth is called:
A
parthenogenesis
22
Q
Which of these is not found in adults?
A
Mucous connective tissue, brown fat, and mesenchyme
23
Q
Which of these cells are the largest?
A
Skeletal muscle, cardiac muscle, and smooth muscle: all are the same size
24
Q
What is the most abundant high energy compound for cellular functions?
A
ATP
25
The layer of the basal lamina that is closer to the epithelium is:
lamina lucida
26
Which process of interphase lasts the longest?
G1 phase
27
The absence of homeostasis will cause:
disease
28
What nourishes cartilage?
perichondrium
29
Which of these is a dry membrane?
cutaneous membrane
30
Which of these is the most abundant organic compound in the body?
protein
31
Cells in a hypertonic solution will:
shrink
32
A gland that collects its product till it bursts is called:
holocrine gland
33
Your nose is flexible because it is made out of this cartilage:
hyaline
34
Mesothelium is specialised:
simple squamous epithelium
35
Which of these is not a membranous organelle?
ribosome
36
True or false: All of the body's systems and organs operate at an optimal temperature of 98.6 F.
false
37
A nurse has to give you an injection into a vein. What field do you hope she is good in?
surface anatomy
38
Where will you find stratified columnar epithelium?
male urethra
39
Tissue repair that leads to scar tissue is called:
fibrosis
40
Tendons and ligaments are made of:
dense regular connective tissue
41
Which term does not belong?
stratified
42
You've cut yourself. What system will you rely on to stop the bleeding?
positive feedback loop
43
Which of these is not a requirement of life?
movement
44
Which of these membranes produces transudate?
serous membrane
45
If someone said hemocyte what can you tell them?
dormant blood cell
46
If the blood's pH is below 7 what can happen?
coma and acidosis
47
A message from the receptor toward the control center will travel along what pathway?
afferent pathway
48
Fibers that form a "net" around structures are called:
reticular
49
Building up process that results in storage of energy is called:
anabolism
50
Which of these structures has the best chance for regeneration?
areolar connective tissue
51
Which of these conditions can you visually identify in a bow-legged child?
osteomalacia
52
The most abundant epidermal cells are:
keratinocytes
53
When you begin to stand what curvature will appear?
lumbar
54
What connects lacunae to each other and to the osteon canal?
canaliculi
55
Bones that may form in the eyes are called:
ectopic bones
56
What structure nourishes hair?
papilla
57
This is responsible for bone growth in diameter:
periosteum
58
Which of these would not have a keratin component?
dermis
59
This consists of cancellous bone covered by compact bone:
epiphysis
60
How many cranial bone are there?
8
61
Which of these can be caused by syphilis?
bursitis
62
How do flat bones grow?
appositional growth
63
Skin cancer that rapidly metastasizes and is deadly is:
malignant melanoma
64
Calcium salts deposited into material is called:
calcification
65
Which is not an irregular bone?
sternum
66
The last part of the sternum to fuse is the:
xiphoid process
67
The integumentary system makes up an average ____ of the total body weight:
16%
68
Which of these is not a function of bone?
store carbohydrates
69
Where would you find a bifid notch?
cervical vertebrae
70
If you held your breath until you turned blue what would that be called?
cyanosis
71
What structure is formed first with endochondral ossification?
periosteum
72
When sodium urate crystals form in the soft tissues of the joints it is called?
gouty arthritis
73
The suture between the occipital and parietal bones would be the:
lambdoidal
74
What cells make acid phosphatase?
osteoclasts
75
Blood deficiency over a bony projection can lead to:
decubitus ulcer
76
What bone type has trabeculae?
cancellous
77
What increases calcium in body fluids like blood?
PTH
78
Which pairing is incorrect?
Thoracic -- 11
79
Whose job is it to keep hair from drying out?
sebaceous glands
80
Which does not belong?
Volkmann's canal
81
An exaggerated thoracic curvature is called:
kyphosis
82
The reticular layer is made of:
dense irregular connective tissue
83
Which of these is not a risk factor for osteoporosis?
vitamin C deficiency
84
What fontanel lasts until the age of 2?
anterior
85
Flat bones are also called:
dermal bones
86
Burns on the perineum represent what percentage of the body?
1%
87
Which of these will not be found in every person?
Wormian bones
88
Which of these has regional control?
merocrine sweat glands
89
Which of these is an autoimmune disease?
rheumatoid arthritis
90
The sphenoid would be found in the?
base
91
What layer of the epidermis do cells stop dividing and start dying?
stratum granulosum
92
What pair of ribs will attach directly to the body of the sternum?
6th pair
93
What do the bone building cells need for collagen synthesis?
vitamin C
94
Red hair is the result of a lot of what in the hair shaft?
iron
95
Process of turning fibrous membranes into bone is called:
intramembranous ossification
96
Which bone will serve as attachment in the neck for speech?
hyoid bone
97
Which of these would be the least painful?
3rd degree burns
98
What makes up the "roof" of the vertebral arch?
laminae
99
Which of these is not a part of the integument?
hypodermis
100
These detect touch in the papillary layer:
Meissner's corpuscles
101
The most flexible and weakest joint in the following group is the:
shoulder
102
When describing bones using terms such as heavier, larger, robust, deeper, and more prominent markings would allow a researcher to determine:
sex
103
Which of these is an autoimmune disease?
myasthenia gravis
104
Conversion of lactic acid into glucose takes place in the:
Cori cycle
105
Which of these will ossify when you start walking?
patella
106
What is the weakest part of the skeleton?
joints
107
What is released into the neuromuscular junction by the nerve?
acetylcholine
108
Whose job is it to guard entrances and exits internally?
smooth muscle
109
What is the most important stabilising factor for synovial joints?
muscle tone
110
A triad consists of a T tubule and:
sarcoplasmic reticulum
111
Which of these is a part of the brachium?
humerus
112
Synostoses start out as what type of joints?
synchondrosis
113
Electrolyte imbalances can cause:
spasm
114
Being able to function over a wide range of lengths is called:
plasticity
115
Hitching a ride you would use your:
pollex
116
Which of these is not a function of synovial fluid?
stabilise the joint
117
Which of these will use a lot of ATP and will tire easily?
skeletal muscle
118
A neuron plus all the muscle fibers is stimulates is called:
motor unit
119
You have bent your neck vertebrae in order to look at the clouds, what is this called?
hyperextension
120
Which of these could not be congenital?
carpal tunnel syndrome
121
Pouch like enfoldings in the membrane to hold calcium in smooth muscle are called:
caveoli
122
A person that plays tennis would require what type of energy production?
glycolysis
123
At the anatomical position all major joints except the ankles are at full:
extension
124
Which of these holds blood vessels, nerves, and small muscles?
lesser sciatic notch
125
Automaticity is a character of:
cardiac muscle
126
Incomplete relaxation after stimulation is:
contracture
127
To show someone your palms what motion would you do?
supination
128
What is the only part of the os coxae to articulate with the axial skeleton?
ilium
129
Whose job is it to subdivide the synovial cavity?
meniscus
130
What covers a fascicle?
perimysium
131
A muscle that decreases in size is said to:
atrophy
132
The clavicle articulates with the scapula at the:
acromion
133
The gelatinous core of intervertebral discs is called the:
nucleus pulposus
134
Which of these can be affected by drugs or hormones?
visceral smooth muscle
135
You find a skeleton with the following characteristics: vertical forehead, coccyx that points posteriorly, smooth pelvis, unfused hyoid bone, and fusion of styloid process with the temporal bone. Give the age and sex.
young, female
136
In skeletal muscle contraction what will move tropomyosin from the binding site?
troponin
137
Which of these would not produce a strong contraction?
short muscle fibers
138
The joints between your fingers and wrist are:
condyloid
139
Muscle fibers with large glycogen reserves and few mitochondria describe:
Type II-A fibers
140
Which of these structures will only have myosin present?
H zone
141
Smooth muscles have ___ as their regulatory protein.
calmodulin
142
Which of these is not a functional classification?
synovial
143
What is the best form in which a muscle stores energy?
creatine phosphate
144
When a muscle shortens but its tension remains the same it is called:
isotonic contraction
145
The bump distal to the knee is the:
tibial tuberosity
146
The ability to be stretched is called:
extensibility
147
The most common type of bursitis is:
bunion
148
Anchor points for thin myofilaments in smooth muscle are:
dense bodies
149
Which area would you not find Type I fibers?
eye
150
Syndesmoses are a fibrous type of:
amphiarthroses
151
The restoration of resting membrane potential is called:
repolarisation
152
This is caused by retrograde flow bringing a virus that destroys the nerve cell bodies:
rabies
153
Which plexus area will you find no dorsal rami?
cervical
154
The most common levers in the body are:
third class
155
What structure will have side branches called collaterals?
axons
156
What is found directly below the lumbar enlargement?
conus medullaris
157
Which of these neurons would be faster?
myelinated, four microns in diameter
158
An amplifying circuit would be an example of:
divergence
159
All muscle fibers within a fascicle are:
parallel
160
Proprioceptors are examples of:
afferent neurons
161
Which of these tracts carries voluntary control of skeletal muscles?
corticospinal tracts
162
If you need a G protein to link messengers it is called:
indirect effect
163
The first step in neural repair is:
Wallerian degeneration
164
A protrusion of the stomach into the thoracic cavity is called:
hiatus hernia
165
When the axon and dendrite are continuous and the cell body is to one side what type of neurons is that?
unipolar
166
Simultaneous stimuli at multiple synapses causes:
spatial summation
167
Which of these is not a function of spinal fluid?
conduct neural transmissions
168
The patellar reflex is a:
stretch reflex
169
Which of these will take less energy?
saltatory propagation
170
Action potentials are generated by:
axons
171
"Extrinsic" in a muscle name would tell you:
position
172
When the presynaptic neuron synapses on a postsynaptic neuron that junction is called:
synaptic knob
173
What cells direct neuron development in the embryonic brain?
astrocytes
174
The femoral nerve belongs to the:
lumbar plexus
175
A muscle that immobilises a bone of muscle origin is called:
fixator
176
Which does not belong?
Nissl body
177
Abdominal reflex is a:
superficial reflex
178
Which of these is incapable of saltatory propagation?
Type C fibers
179
Tearing of the muscle with bleeding into the tissue is:
Charley horse
180
At rest there is more ___ on the outside of a nerve cell resulting in a ___ charge and more ____ in the inside resulting in a ____ charge.
Sodium, positive, potassium, negative
181
Functional group of neurons that integrate incoming information, process, and send it onward are called:
neuronal pools
182
Which of these are speed levers?
mechanical disadvantage
183
Which of these is an inhibitory neurotransmitter only?
gammaaminobutyric acid
184
The ventral rami of T2-T12 join to form:
they do not join to form a plexus
185
Which statement is incorrect?
You lose 20%-60% of the muscle's performance by age 65
186
The sympathetic nervous system is part of the:
autonomic nervous system
187
Which of these is filled with cerebrospinal fluid?
subarachnoid space
188
Which of these is the type of control reflexes that control the same side affected?
ipsilateral
189
Region of the skin served by a single pair of spinal nerves is called:
dermatomes
190
Which of these will not be found in a parallel muscle?
raphe
191
What is made of mostly neuron cell bodies and dendrites?
gray matter
192
Which of these parts of a reflex arc will be found in the CNS?
center
193
When the sodium gates close and potassium gates open it is called?
relative refractory period
194
Where will you find somatic motor nuclei?
anterior gray horn
195
What body part acts as the fulcrum for movement?
joints
196
Which of these conditions affects the arachnoid and pia mater?
leptomeningitis
197
What key part of a neuron has to remain intact for nerve repair to happen?
nerve cell body
198
What spinal nerve pairing is incorrect?
cervical -- 7
199
What makes the myelin sheath in the central nervous system?
oligodendrocytes
200
This is the passive force caused by a concentration gradient:
chemical gradient
201
What absorbs the CSF from the subarachnoid space?
arachnoid villi
202
When you are using your imagination what hemisphere are you using?
right hemisphere
203
Which of these do not cross over?
posterior spinocerebellar tract
204
Which of these would not be a cholinergic synapse?
most sympathetic ganglionic neurons
205
Cerebellar folds are called:
folia
206
What part of the thalamus produces the outward expression of rage and fear?
lateral group
207
You are playing a musical instrument by reading a new score and you realise you are out of time. What part of the brain is not involved?
occipital association area
208
Which of these is phasic?
lamellated corpuscle
209
What drug will prevent you from drooling during surgery?
anticholinergics
210
Which of these is not involved with the movement of the eyeball?
trigeminal nerve-5
211
The telencephalon becomes:
cerebrum
212
What part of thebrain helps you to duck if a ball is coming at your head?
Mesencephalon
213
What part of the somatic nervous system is not located in the CNS?
upper motor neuron
214
What brain part will not affect the ANS?
cerebellum
215
You are planning a study session for the final. Where in your brain will this take place?
prefrontal area
216
What allows communication between different parts of the same hemisphere?
association fibers
217
Awareness of a stimuli is called:
sensation
218
Which of these would not be the result of stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system?
increased gastric motility
219
As you watch TV you see and recognise your favourite actor. What part of the brain are you using?
occipital association area
220
What type of sensory pathway part is in the thalamus?
third order neuron
221
What helps explain referred pain?
visceral reflexes
222
What is the second most common disorder?
epilepsy
223
What type of receptors cause thermogenesis in infants?
Beta 3
224
What structure tells your arms to stop swinging when you stop walking?
basal nuclei
225
Tracts leaving the basal nuclei usually have a(n) ____ effect on upper motor neurons.
inhibitory
226
Which collateral ganglion goes to the kidneys?
inferior mesenteric ganglion
227
What structure is responsible for your ability to lick an ice cream cone?
mammillary bodies
228
Where will you find the nerve cell bodies of the preganglionic neurons?
cranial nerve
229
Conversion of short term memory into long term memory is called:
memory consolidation
230
Which of these could not indicate a problem with the hypothalamus?
Chronic binge eating or drinking
231
Sympathetic division is also known as the:
thoracolumbar division
232
Damage to the primary visual area will result in:
blindness
233
Pain is picked up by:
nociceptors
234
The reticular activating system is used to maintain:
arousal
235
Which does not belong?
interventricular foramen
236
Which of these areas is separated by a circular sulcus?
Island of Reil
237
When conscious awareness of a stimulus disappears it is called:
central adaptation
238
Which statement is false?
somatic motor division have ganglion
239
You are watching a sad movie and your friend is crying. What part of the brain is overriding the logic that it is only a movie?
Limbic system
240
What separates the hemispheres of the cerebellum from those of the cerebrum?
falx cerebelli
241
The most important nerve of the parasympathetic division is the:
Vagus nerve-10
242
Which tract starts at the superior and inferior colliculi?
tectospinal tract
243
You have to verbally respond to someone's speech. What two parts will you use?
parietal association area and Broca's speech area
244
Which of these is always stimulatory?
nicotinic receptor
245
What type of receptor does not adapt?
proprioceptor
246
In a recent movie an actress was unable to store new memories but could remember everything before her accident. What problem did she have?
anterograde amnesia
247
Which of these is prevented from entering the brain because of the blood-brain barrier?
urea
248
What type of synapse will be inactivated by monoamine oxidase?
adrenergic synapse
249
Which statement is not true about the medulla oblongata?
It contains the pneumotaxic and apneustic areas.
250
What brain disorder can be caused by an over-the-counter medicine?
Reye's syndrome
