Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

receives and transmits impulses to and from the CNS

A

PNS

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2
Q

specialized to respond to input (stimuli)

A

sensory receptors

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3
Q

responds to mechanical force

A

mechanoreceptors

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4
Q

responds to temperature changes

A

thermoreceptors

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5
Q

responds to light

A

photoreceptors

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6
Q

responds to chemicals in solution

A

chemoreceptors

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7
Q

responds to damaging stimuli

A

nociceptors

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8
Q

responds to external stimuli (on skin’s surface)

A

exteroceptors

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9
Q

responds to internal stimuli

A

interoceptors (visceroceptors)

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10
Q

responds to change in body position (due to stretch); in skeletal muscles, joints, tendons; a type of interoceptor

A

proprioceptors

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11
Q

abundant in epithelial and connective tissue; modified dendritic endings of sensory neurons

A

nonencapsulated (free) nerve endings

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12
Q

respond to temperature changes, chemical changes, pain, pressure

A

free nerve endings

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13
Q

found in deepest layer of epidermis (stratum basal); respond to light touch

A

tactile (Merkel) discs

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14
Q

respond to light touch; wound around a hair follicle

A

hair follicle receptors

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15
Q

almost all are mechanoreceptors; one or more axon terminal enclosed in a tissue capsule

A

encapsulated nerve endings

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16
Q

respond to light touch

A

Meissner’s (tactile) corpuscles

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17
Q

respond to deep pressure when first applied; in subcutaneous tissue

A

Pacinian (lamellar) corpuscles

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18
Q

respond to deep, continuous pressure

A

Ruffini endings (bulbous corpuscles)

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19
Q

respond to muscle stretch, length

A

muscle spindles

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20
Q

respond to tendon stretch; found in tendons close to insertion

A

tendon organs

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21
Q

respond to stretch of articular capsules; include free nerve endings, Pacinian corpuscles; tendon organs; Ruffini endings

A

joint kinesthetic receptors

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22
Q

How many pairs of cranial nerves are there?

A

12

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23
Q

cranial nerve that runs from the nose, through Ethmoid bone, to olfactory areas (sensory)

A

olfactory

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24
Q

cranial nerve - posterior to olfactory (sensory - to visual areas of brain - info from photoreceptors))

A

optic

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25
Q

cranial nerve that extends from midbrain to the eye and controls eyeball movement (motor)

A

oculomotor

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26
Q

cranial nerve - efferent to eye; eyeball movement (motor)

A

trochlear

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27
Q

largest cranial nerve; from pons to face; afferent - touch, pain, pressure, temperature (sensory and motor - motor muscles effected in chewing)

A

trigeminal

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28
Q

cranial nerve - pons to eye; motor efferent; eyeball movement

A

abducens

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29
Q

cranial nerve - pons to face; innervate glands to affect secretion (sensory - taste; motor - facial expression)

A

facial

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30
Q

cranial nerve - hearing and sense of equilibrium (sensory)

A

acoustic (vestibulocochlear)

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31
Q

cranial nerve - to pharynx (sensory - taste; motor - saliva secretion - innervate to afferent secretion)

A

glossopharyngeal

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32
Q

cranial nerve - extends from medulla to chest and abdomen; only one that extends beyond head and neck; innervates heart, abdomen, lungs (affects breathing, digestion, etc.) (sensory - taste; motor - main autonomic nerve)

A

vagus

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33
Q

cranial nerve - branches from vagus nerve; innervates muscles of neck to affect head and neck movement (motor)

A

spinal accessory

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34
Q

cranial nerve - extends from medulla to tongue (motor - efferent that affects tongue movement - swallowing, chewing, speech)

A

hypoglossal

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35
Q

How many pairs of spinal nerves are there?

A

31

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36
Q

spinal nerve anatomy: within vertebral column; attach along the length of spinal cord segment (merge into dorsal or ventral root)

A

rootlets

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37
Q

spinal nerve anatomy: within vertebral column
________ root - sensory (afferent fibers)
________ root - motor (efferent fibers)

A

dorsal

ventral

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38
Q

spinal nerve anatomy: outside of vertebral column
_______ - dorsal branch
_______ - ventral branch

A

dorsal ramus

ventral ramus

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39
Q

spinal nerve anatomy: outside of vertebral column

branch that reenters spinal cord into meninges

A

meningeal branch

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40
Q

spinal nerve anatomy: outside of vertebral column

autonomic nerve fibers that attach to ventral rami

A

rami communicates

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41
Q

spinal nerve anatomy: outside of vertebral column

interlacing nerve networks formed from ventral rami (along spinal cord except ventral rami coming from thoracic nerves

A

nerve plexuses

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42
Q
How many pairs are there?
cervical nerves
thoracic nerves
lumbar nerves
sacral nerves
coccygeal nerves
A
8
12
5
5
1
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43
Q

What are the 5 plexuses?

A
  1. cervical
  2. brachial
  3. lumbar
  4. sacral
  5. thoracic nerves (not a plexus)
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44
Q

plexus:
C1-C4; sensory info from skin, neck, head, and shoulders; most of the branches are cutaneous nerves (neck, ear, back of head and shoulder); phrenic nerve

A

cervical plexus

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45
Q

innervates the diaphragm (breathing); C1-C5; sensory and motor neurons that are in the diaphragm to regulate breathing

A

phrenic nerve

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46
Q

plexus:

C5-C8 and T1; innervates upper limbs

A

brachial plexus

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47
Q

do not form a plexus; intercostal nerves

A

thoracic nerves

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48
Q

innervate intercostal muscles, skin and muscles of abdominal wall

A

intercostal nerves

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49
Q

plexus:

L1-L4; femoral nerve; obturator nerve

A

lumbar plexus

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50
Q

innervates thigh muscles, skin of legs; motor (efferent) branches that innervate quad muscles; branches also innervate skin, thigh, and legs

A

femoral nerve

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51
Q

enters the medial thigh via the obturator foramen; innervates the adductor muscles of the inner thigh

A

obturator nerve

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52
Q

plexus:

L4-S4; innervates buttocks, lower limbs, and pelvic structures; sciatic nerve

A

sacral plexus

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53
Q

innervates lower limbs

A

sciatic nerve

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54
Q

pressure or injury to sciatic nerve, causes tingling

A

sciatica

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55
Q

Autonomic nervous system: Characteristics

  1. What are the 3 effectors?
  2. What are the 2 neurons in the chain that makes up the efferent pathway?
A
  1. cardiac muscles, smooth muscle, glands
  2. preganglionic neuron (first)
  3. postganglionic neuron (second)
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56
Q

rest and digest; keep energy low and allow digestion and waste production to occur; decreases heart rate, regulate secretion from gland; controls pupils; craniosacral nerves; long preganglionic axons and short postganglionic axons; most ganglia located in the effector

A

parasympathetic nervous system

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57
Q

arise from cranium; contain both sacral and cranial nerves

A

craniosacral nerves

58
Q

fight or flight; increase heart rate, dilate pupils, reduce nonessential activities; constricts blood vessels - sends blood to organs that need it; deepens breathing rate; effectors are innervated by both sympathetic and parasympathetic NS; thoracolumbar nerves; short preganglionic axons, long postganglionic axons; ganglia close to spinal cord

A

sympathetic NS

59
Q

arise from thoracic and lumbar nerves

A

throacolumbar nerves

60
Q

neurotransmitter that includes:
parasympathetic preganglionic neurons
parasympathetic postganglionic neurons
sympathetic preganglionic neurons

A

acetylcholine (Ach)

61
Q

release Ach and norepinephrine and epinephrine

A

parasympathetic preganglionic neurons

62
Q

innervates adrenal medulla (on top of kidneys)

A

sympathetic preganglionic neurons

63
Q

Preganglionic neurons always release _____.

A

Ach

64
Q

neurotransmitter that includes sympathetic postganglionic neurons

A

norepinephrine

65
Q

What is the effector of the somatic nervous system?

A

skeletal muscle

66
Q

Which neurotransmitter is in the somatic NS?

A

acetylcholine

67
Q

Which neurotransmitters are in the autonomic nervous system?

A

Ach & norepinephrine (NE)

68
Q

What are the efferent pathways of the somatic NS?

A

cell bodies of motor neurons in CNS, axons extend to skeletal muscles

69
Q

innervates smooth muscles in the eyes

A

oculomotor nerve

70
Q

innervate glands in the head (ex. nasal lacrimal salivary)

A

facial nerve

71
Q

innervate salivary glands

A

glossopharyngeal nerve

72
Q

fibers to neck and nerve plexuses, innervates many organs in thoracic and abdominal cavities

A

vagus nerve

73
Q

innervates heart

A

cardiac plexus

74
Q

innervates lungs and bronchi

A

pulmonary plexus

75
Q

innervates esophagus

A

esophageal plexus

76
Q

innervates many organs in abdominal cavity

A

abdominal aorta plexus

77
Q

innervates part of large intestine, urinary bladder, ureters, reproductive organs

A

pelvic splanchnic nerves

78
Q

sympathetic fibers in thoracolumbar nerves:

Preganglionic fibers exit the spinal cord via the _____

A

ventral root

79
Q

sympathetic fibers in thoracolumbar nerves:

Pass through ___________. ___________ (chain ganglia) on either side of vertebral column.

A

rami communicates

sympathetic trunk

80
Q

3 potential pathways from sympathetic trunk:

  1. Axon synapses with ________ neuron in same trunk ganglion.
  2. Axon ______ or ______ within trunk and synapses with postganglionic neuron in another trunk ganglion.
  3. Axon passes through ________ without synapsing with postganglionic neuron there.
A
  1. postganglionic
  2. ascends/descends
  3. trunk ganglion
81
Q

Parasympathetic and sympathetic NS have opposite effects on ________.
Example: Heart = parasympathetic ________ heart rate, sympathetic _________ heart rate; gastrointestinal organs = parasympathetic _____ digestion, sympathetic _______ digestion

A
target tissue
decrease
increase
stimulate
inhibit
82
Q

Parasympathetic and sympathetic NS work ________. Ex. external genitalia = parasympathetic induces _________, sympathetic causes ________.

A

together
erection of penis
ejaculation

83
Q

Some effectors only are innervated by the _______NS, ex. adrenal gland, sweat glands, arrector pili muscles of skin, most blood vessels

A

sympathetic

84
Q

classification of neurotransmitters (depends on where they are binding/type of receptor):
hyperpolarization of membrane

A

inhibiting

85
Q

classification of neurotransmitter (depends on where they are binding/type of receptor):
depolarization of membrane

A

stimulatory

86
Q

When Ach binds to receptors in the somatic NS, it always _______.

A

stimulates

87
Q

receptor types:

  1. binds Ach
  2. binds norephinephrine and epinephrine; effectors innervated by sympathetic neurons
A
  1. cholinergic

2. adrenergic

88
Q

receptor:

all postganglionic neurons (in parasympathetic and sympathetic NS); adrenal medulla; always stimulatory

A

nicotinic (N) receptor

89
Q

receptor: effectors innervated by parasympathetic neurons; stimulatory or inhibitory

A

muscarinic (M) receptor

90
Q

What are the 2 types of cholinergic receptors?

A
  1. nicotinic receptor

2. muscarinic receptor

91
Q

What are the two subtypes of adrenergic receptors?

A
  1. alpha
  2. beta
    (stimulatory or inhibitory based on subtype and whether alpha or beta)
92
Q

drug that blocks receptors in autonomic NS:
binds to nicotinic receptors (sympathetic effectors); stimulates sympathetic effects; can lead to cardiac disease because it increases BP and leading to hypertension

A

nicotine

93
Q

drug that blocks receptors in autonomic NS:
blocks muscarinic receptors; leads to blocking parasympathetic reactions - sympathetic results take over; used in eyedrops to dilate pupil

A

atropine

94
Q

drug that blocks receptors in autonomic NS:
blocks beta receptors; in sympathetic NS; decrease heart rate and BP; treat/prevent migraines; control abnormal heart rhythms

A

beta-blockers

95
Q

drug that blocks receptors in autonomic NS:
inhibits acetylcholinesterase; prevents breakdown of acetylcholine in synapse; Ach can remain bound to N and M receptors; patients that have Masythenia Gravis (keeps Ach bound to existing receptors to help compensate for lack of receptors)

A

neostigmine

96
Q

drugs that block receptors in autonomic NS:

sympathomimetic; sympathetic neurotransmitters; restricts and causes mucus reduction (decongestion)

A

phenylephrine; pseudoephedrine

97
Q

drug that blocks receptors in autonomic NS:

parasympathomimetic (M receptors); mimics in parasympathetic NS

A

pilocarpine

98
Q

outermost layer of eye; white part of eye; shape, protect; dense CT; place for eye muscles to attach

A

sclera

99
Q

anterior, modified part of sclera; clear, allows light to enter the eye

A

cornea

100
Q

middle layer of the eye; contains melanin; absorbs light; rich in blood vessels - provide nutrients

A

choroid

101
Q

smooth muscles controlling lens shape; anterior part of choroid layer; light focus on the retina

A

ciliary body

102
Q

colored part of eye; only contains melanin (brown-black pigment); two layers of smooth muscle that can change shape of pupil to control about of light coming into the eye

A

iris

103
Q

allows light to enter the eye; hole

A

pupil

104
Q

innermost layer of the eye; contains pigmented epithelial cells, photoreceptors, bipolar cells, and ganglion cells

A

retina

105
Q

where optic nerve exits eye (blind spot)

A

optic disc

106
Q

spot in the eye where there are no photoreceptors

A

blind spot

107
Q

oval region in posterior of eye

A

macula lutea

108
Q

center of macula lute; lots of cones; no retina around it; light can go directly to photoreceptors

A

fovea centralis

109
Q

segment of eye filled with vitreous humor; helps support the eye and pressure in the eye

A

posterior segment

110
Q

segment of the eye filled with aqueous humor; contributes to pressure and provides nutrients to eye and lens

A

anterior segment

111
Q

flexible, transparent, biconvex disc in eye; changes where light is focused on retina

A

lens

112
Q

photoreceptor for dim light and peripheral vision; rhodopsin (opsins + retinal) - purple pigment of rods; not good for sharpness or color; more of these that other type of photoreceptor

A

rods

113
Q

photoreceptor for bright light and high acuity color vision; blue, red, and green; all contain opsin + retinal (light absorbing molecule - derived from vitamin A)

A

cones

114
Q

Vision:
Light stimulates _________ and changes shape of ______. Signals spread to _________ (no action potential yet, just change in MP). Signals spread to ganglion cells (still change in MP). Ganglion cells generate ________, which is conducted along the optic nerve to the __________ of the occipital lobe.

A
photoreceptors
opsins
bipolar cells
action potential
primary visual cortex
115
Q

What are the 3 major ear regions?

A
  1. external ear
  2. middle ear
  3. internal ear
116
Q

funnels sound into the ear (elastic cartilage)

A

pinna

117
Q

ear wax is found here

A

external acoustic meatus

118
Q

_______ glands produce ear wax.

A

ceruminous

119
Q

separates external ear from middle ear (ear drum)

A

tympanic membrane

120
Q

What are the 3 ear ossicles located in the middle ear?

A
  1. malleus
  2. stapes
  3. incus
121
Q

connects middle ear to nasopharynx (when open, it allows pressure in the middle lear to be equal to the external environment

A

pharyngotympanic (Eustachian) tube

122
Q

openings to inner ear

A

oval and round windows

123
Q

channels in temporal bone, contains perilymph

A

bony labyrinth

124
Q

fluid similar to CSF that conducts sound vibrations

A

perilymph

125
Q

equilibrium receptors (pull of gravity and detecting our head’s position)

A

vestibule

126
Q

inferior to vestibule, channel that contains hearing receptors

A

cochlea

127
Q

posteriolateral to cochlea, contain equilibrium receptors that detect head’s position

A

semicircular canals

128
Q

sacs and ducts within bony labyrinth, contains endolymph

A

membranous labyrinth

129
Q

structurally similar to intracellular fluid and conducts sound vibrations for hearing

A

endolymph

130
Q

Hearing:
Sounds create ________, go through _______. These cause the ________ to vibrate. Frequency of vibration is directly linked to ________ of sound. Ear ossicles transmit and amplify the vibrations to the __________. Vibrations displace fluid in ______ creating waves, which stimulates _________ receptors (cochlea hair cells). Nerves transmit electrical impulse to ________ of temporal lobe.

A
pressure waves
external acoustic meatus
tympanic membrane
intensity
oval window
cochlea
hearing
primary auditory cortex
131
Q

Trace the pathway of light through the eye.

A

light enters eye —> cornea —> aqueous humor —> lens ——->vitreous humor —> neutral layer of retina

132
Q

normal, focal point on retina

A

emmetropic eye

133
Q

eyeball too long; causes myopia (nearsightedness)

A

myopic eye

134
Q

eyeball too short; causes hyperopia (farsightedness)

A

hyperopic eye

135
Q

unequal curvatures of different parts of cornea or lens

A

astigmatism

136
Q

clouding of the lens

A

cataracts

137
Q

compression of retina and optic nerve due to inadequate draining of aqueous humor

A

glaucoma

138
Q

lack of one or more cone pigments

A

colorblindness

139
Q

due to deficit or lack of red or green cone pigments

A

red-green colorblindness

140
Q

middle ear infection; causes: virus, bacteria, allergies; treatment: antibiotics

A

otitis media

141
Q

ringing or clicking sound in absence of noise; causes: inflammation, side effect of medicine (aspirin, certain antibiotics), nerve damage, damage to cochlear hair cells, exposure to loud noise, earwax buildup; treatment: treat underlying condition

A

tinnitus

142
Q

sensation of movement or rocking when standing still; causes: inflammation of inner ear (common); treatment: repositioning treatments

A

vertigo