Exam 2 Flashcards
1
Q
What are the 7 functions of the skeletal system?
A
- protects
- supports
- movement/locomotion
- mineral storage (Ca, P)
- produces blood
- energy storage (fat stored in yellow marrow)
- hormone production (osteocalcin)
2
Q
What are the 4 classifications of bones?
A
- long bones
- short bones
- flat bones
- irregular bones
3
Q
dense outer layer of bone
A
compact bone
4
Q
inner layer of bone; trabecular; consists of lattice of trabeculae
A
spongy bone
5
Q
What kind of cartilage is in long bones?
A
articular
6
Q
a bone longer than it is wide
A
long bone
7
Q
Which type of bone has a diaphysis (shaft)?
A
long bones
8
Q
In long bones, what does the diaphysis (shaft) contain?
A
medullary cavity
9
Q
The medullary cavity in the diaphysis of long bones contains ____ bone marrow in infants and young children and _____ bone marrow in adults
A
red; yellow
10
Q
ends of long bone
A
epiphysis
11
Q
Epiphyses of long bones contain outer ____ bone and interior ___ bone
A
compact; spongy
12
Q
The interior spongy bone in the epiphyses of long bones contains red marrow for ________, which is mainly in the head of the ________ and _______ for adults.
A
hematopoiesis; humerus and femur
13
Q
blood cell formation
A
hematopoeisis
14
Q
remnant of epiphyseal plate; hyaline cartilage that divides and allows the bone to grow during childhood
A
epiphyseal line
15
Q
contains an outer fibrous layer (dense irregular CT) and an inner osteogenic layer (contains osteogenic cells that differentiate into bone cells); rich supply of nerve fibers and blood vessels pass through shaft to medullary cavity via nutrient foramina; provides attachment points for tendons and ligaments
A
periosteum
16
Q
dense irregular CT; lines medullary cavity, central canal, Volkmann’s canal; covers trabeculae of spongy bone; contains osteogenic cells that differentiate into bone cells
A
endosteum
17
Q
type of bone:
- spongy bone covered by compact bone
- has periosteum and endosteum
- no diaphysis or epiphyses
- diploe-spongy bone (contains red marrow - little in adult)
- ex. skull bones, sternum, scapula, and ribs
A
flat bones
18
Q
type of bone:
- articular cartilage
- diaphysis, epiphyses
- periosteum, endosteum
A
long bones
19
Q
type of bone:
- spongy bone covered by compact bone
- has periosteum and endosteum
- no diaphysis or epiphyses
- ex. carpals and tarsals
- sesamoid bones
A
short bones
20
Q
bones that form within a tendon (ex. patella)
A
sesamoid bones
21
Q
type of bone:
- spongy bone covered by compact bone
- has periosteum and endosteum
- no diaphysis or epiphyses
- ex. vertebrae and coxal (hip) bone
A
irregular bones
22
Q
fundamental unit of bone
A
osteon (haversian system)
23
Q
bone matrix ring
A
lamella
24
Q
space containing the osteocyte
A
lacuna
25
transverse canals in bone
Volkmann's canal
26
microscopic canals between lacunae
canaliculi
27
cell type of bone found in periosteum and endosteum; mitotically active; differentiate into osteoblasts
osteogenic (osteoprogentitor) cells
28
cell type of bone that is mitotically active; secrete bone matrix and enzymes for mineralization; mature into osteocytes
osteoblasts
29
(cell type of bone) mature osteoblasts; not mitotically active; do not secrete bone matrix but maintains it; communicate with and control activity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts; bone matrix breaks down if leave
osteocytes
30
cell type of bone that are multi-nucleated; differentiate from hematopoetic stem cells; bone re-absorption - break down bone
osteoclasts
31
What percent of bone tissue by mass is organic? Inorganic?
35%; 65%
32
What part of the bone composition includes cells (osteogenic, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts) and the osteoid (ground substance - glycoprotein and fluid) and collagen fibers? It also gives bones flexibility and tensile strength (organic and collagen fibers)
organic
33
What part of the bone composition includes hydroxyapatite - calcium phosphate and contributes to the hardness of bone and bone's ability to resist compression?
inorganic
34
found in and around collagen fibers in bone matrix
hydroxyapatite
35
The proper combination of organic and inorganic components allows bone to be ______ and _______
durable and strong without being brittle
36
How strong is bone in relation to steel in resisting compression? Tension?
1/2 as strong; just as strong
37
bone formation by becoming hard
intramembranous ossification
38
What is the starting material of intramembranous ossification?
mesenchyme
39
What is mesenchyme made up of?
embryonic connective tissue
40
Intramembranous ossification:
1. Mesenchymal cells differentiate into _______ and cluster in the center of tissue and then differentiate into _____ (ossification center).
2. Osteoblasts secrete _______ which becomes ______. They get trapped in matrix and mature into _______.
3. Osteoid is laid down between blood vessels forming _____ (woven bone). _______ forms on outside of woven bone from _____.
4. Just deep to periosteum, trabeculae _____. Woven bone is reshaped into _______ bone. Spongy bone remains internally and the vascular tissue becomes _______.
1. osteogenic cells; osteoblasts
2. osteoid; calcified; osteocytes
3. trabeculae; periosteum; mesenchyme
4. thickens; compact; red marrow
41
What is the starting material of endochondrial ossification?
hyaline cartilage
42
ossification in which blood vessels enter perichondrium causing osteogenic cells to differentiate into osteoblasts; perichondrium is now called periosteum
endochondrial ossification
43
Endochondrial ossification:
1. Osteoblasts secrete osteoid around _____ of hyaline cartilage encasing it in _____.
2. At _________ (center of hyaline cartilage shaft) ________ signal surrounding cartilage to calcify. ________ die. Cartilage matrix deteriorates forming _______.
3. The ________ (blood vessels, nerves, red marrow, and bone cells) invades the cavity and forms _____ bone.
4. Osteoclasts in center break down newly formed spongy bone creating _______. Cartilage at ______ keeps going. Cartilage along shaft calcifies, erodes, and is replaced with _______ and _______.
5. ________ form at epiphyses, cartilage _______, matrix deteriorates forming _____, periosteal bud invades and forms _____ bone.
6. At the end of secondary ossification, only hyaline cartilage remaining is ____ cartilage and at ____.
1. diaphysis; bone-bone collar
2. primary ossification center; chondrocytes; chondrocytes; cavities
3. periosteal bud; spongy
4. medullary cavity; ends; osteoid; hydroxiapatite
5. secondary ossification centers; calcifies; cavities; spongy
6. articular; epiphyseal plates
44
What type of bone does not have an ossification center?
short bones
45
4 zones of cartilage cells within the epiphyseal plate contribute to what?
postnatal bone growth
46
What are the 5 zones of cartilage cells within the epiphyseal plate?
1. resting zone
2. proliferation zone
3. hypertrophic zone
4. calcification zone
5. ossification zone
47
(zone of cartilage cells within epiphyseal plate) nothing happens here
resting zone
48
(zone of cartilage cells within epiphyseal plate) underneath resting zone, cartilage cells undergo mitosis
proliferation zone
49
(zone of cartilage cells within epiphyseal plate) older cartilage cells enlarge
hypertrophic zone
50
(zone of cartilage cells within epiphyseal plate) matrix calcifies, cartilage cells die, matrix begins deteriorating, blood vessels invade cavity
calcification zone
51
(zone of cartilage cells within epiphyseal plate) new bone forms
ossification zone
52
coupled process of bone reabsorption and formation
bone remodeling
53
Bone reabsorption is due to ________ and ________.
osteoclasts; osteoblasts
54
deep grooves in bone; secrete lysosomes ) and hydrochloric acid
osteoclasts
55
secrete osteoid
osteoblasts
56
enzymes break down protein component of bone
lysosomes
57
break down inorganic component of bone
hydrochloric acid
58
enzymes needed for mineralization
osteoid
59
deficiency of vitamin D or Ca resulting in bone demineralization; bones soften and weaken; seen in adults
osteomalacia
60
deficiency of vitamin D or Ca; bones remain soft; bowed legs; deformities of pelvis, skull, and rib cage; seen in children
rickets
61
more bone reabsorption than formation; results in reduced bone mass; bones weaken and susceptible to fracture; occurs most often in older age; caused by factors such as low estrogen production such as occurs after menopause, insufficient exercise, immobility, diet low in Ca, vitamin D, protein, diabetes mellitus
osteoporosis
62
haphazard deposition and reabsorption of bone; activity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts become irregular; pagetic bone - newly formed bone has abnormal amount of spongy bone and can form in marrow cavities; reduced mineralization; bone thickening in areas; mostly affects spine, pelvis, femur, skull; typically only affects people over 40
paget's disease
63
What are the 5 parts of the axial skeleton?
1. skull
2. ear ossicles
3. hyoid bone
4. thoracic cage
5. vertebrae
64
What are the 3 functions of the axial skeleton?
1. forms the longitudinal axis of the body
2. supports the head, neck, and trunk
3. protects the brain, spinal cord, and organs of thoracic cavity
65
How many cranial bones are there? What are they?
1. frontal
2. parietal (2)
3. occipital
4. temporal (2)
5. sphenoid
6. ethmoid
66
The cranial bones are attachment points for muscles of the _____ and ______.
head and neck
67
What are the 4 main sutures in the skull?
1. sagittal
2. lambdoid
3. squamous
4. coronal
68
key stone of skull; articulates with all other cranial bones; houses pituitary gland
sphenoid bone
69
between nasal and sphenoid bones; bony area between nasal cavity and orbits; contains cribriform plate, crista galli, perpendicular plate, middle and upper nasal concha
ethmoid bone
70
part of ethmoid bone; roof of nasal cavity; openings where olfactory nerves pass
cribriform plate
71
part of ethmoid bone; point of attachment for dura mater; outermost covering of the brain
crista galli
72
part of ethmoid bone; forms superior part of nasal septum
perpendicular plate
73
part of ethmoid bone; shaped like conch shell; form walls of nasal cavity
upper and middle nasal concha
74
How many facial bones are there? What are they?
1. mandible
2. vomer
3. maxilla (2)
4. palatine (2)
5. zygomatic (2)
6. lacrimal (2)
7. nasal (2)
8. inferior nasal concha (2)
75
anchors teeth
mandible
76
2 fused bones; anchors teeth; forms anterior part of hard palate
maxilla
77
cheek bones
zygomatic bones
78
2 medially fused bones; bridge of nose; fuses with hyaline cartilage
nasal bone
79
medial portion of eye socket
lacrimal bones
80
interior nasal septum; ethmoid also helps form nasal septum
vomer
81
make up lateral walls of nasal cavity along with other nasal concha
inferior nasal concha
82
What are the 5 functions of the facial bones?
1. framework of face
2. cavities for special sense organs of sight, hearing, taste, and smell
3. openings for air and passage of food
4. secure teeth
5. anchor the facial muscles of expression (important for behavior and communication)
83
Bones of the skull are not fully _______ at birth.
ossified
84
unossified remnants of fibrous membranes; allows baby's head to compress during birth; most replaced by bone within one year
fontanelles
85
only bone in body that doesn't articulate any other bones; ligaments connect to temporal bone; attachment for tongue and some neck muscles
hyoid bone
86
What are the 3 parts of the ear ossicles?
1. malleus (hammer)
2. incus (anvil)
3. stapes (stirrup)
87
develop from first and second pharyngeal arches in embryo; transmit and amplify sound waves
ear ossicles
88
What are the 3 functions of the vertebral column?
1. support body
2. surround and protect spinal cord
3. attachment point for ribs and back muscles
89
Vertebrae are held together by _______
ligaments
90
__________ are located between vertebrae
intervertebral discs
91
What are the 5 parts of the vertebral column?
1. cervical (neck) vertebrae
2. thoracic (chest) vertebrae
3. lumbar (lower back) vertebrae
4. sacrum (pelvic)
5. coccyx (tailbone)
92
How many of each type of vertebrae are there?
1. cervical = 7, C1-C7
2. thoracic = 12, T1-T12
3. lumbar = 5, L1-L5
93
How many fused vertebrae are in the sacrum? Coccyx?
```
sacrum = 5
coccyx = 4 (bird's beak)
```
94
What type of bone is a vertebrae?
irregular
95
the centrum of a vertebra is also called the _____
body
96
projection of a vertebrae that points posteriorly
spinous process
97
lateral projection of a vertebrae
transverse process
98
large hole in the middle of a vertebrae for the spinal cord to pass through
vertebral foramen
99
facets on vertebrae that are covered by hyaline cartilage
superior and inferior articular processes
100
smallest, lightest vertebrae; have transverse foramen; spinous process bifid (except for last one)
cervical
101
holes in transverse processes of vertebrae
transverse foramina
102
C1; no body; no spinous process; superior articular faucets that articulate with occipital condyles (of occipital bone)
atlas
103
C2; odontoid process (dens); superior projection that allows the head to pivot; does not have transverse foramina
axis
104
vertebrae with a spinous process that is long and angled inferiorly; body is heart shaped; all have facets to articulate with head of ribs; aside from the last two, transverse processes have faucets that articulate with tubercles of ribs
thoracic
105
largest, bulkiest vertebrae; short spinous process; hatchet shaped
lumbar
106
The sacrum contains anterior and posterior _______
sacral foramina
107
tailbone; beak-shaped; gives some support for pelvic organs
coccyx
108
The spine of infants is ________ posteriorly (_____ curvature)
concave; primary
109
Cervical and lumbar vertebrae are ____ posteriorly (_______ curvature)
concave; secondary
110
Cervical curvature becomes prominent when infants can ______. Lumbar curvature starts when infant can ______.
lift head; walk
111
abnormal lateral curve of any portion of the spine - usually thoracic; treatment depends on the angle of curvature and the age or developmental status and can include wearing a back brace, or in severe cases, surgery
scoliosis
112
hump back; posteriorly exaggerated curvature - usually thoracic
kyphosis
113
exaggerated lumbar curvature; sway back
lordosis
114
The sternum is created by the fusion of what 3 bones?
1. manubrium
2. body
3. xiphoid process
115
part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles and ribs 1-2
manubrium
116
part of the sternum that articulates with ribs 2-7
body
117
part of the sternum that serves as an attachment point for some abdominal muscles; ossified at age 40; usually cartilage in children
xiphoid process
118
How many pairs of ribs do we have? True ribs? False? Floating?
12
1-7
8-12
11-12
119
ribs that are directly attached to the sternum by individual costal cartilages (hyaline)
true ribs
120
ribs that attach to the sternum indirectly by shard costal cartilages (first 3)
false ribs
121
ribs that have no anterior attachment
floating ribs
122
What is the function of the appendicular skeleton?
carry out movements
123
shoulder girdle; attaches left and right arms to axial skeleton; consists of scapula and clavicle
pectoral girdle
124
What are the 6 bones of the arm and hand?
1. humerus
2. radius
3. ulna
4. carpals
5. metacarpals
6. phalanges
125
How many carpal bones are there and what do they make up?
8; wrist
126
long bones that makes up the palms; how many are there?
metacarpals; 5
127
how many phalange bones are there? how many are in each finger?
14; 3 except thumb which has 2
128
wrist is concave anteriorly due to arrangement of carpals; transverse carpal ligament covers the carpals making a tunnel; many nerves and tendons; treatment includes a splint, stretches and exercises, or surgery; overuse or inflammation cause the tendons to swell and pinch nerves
carpal tunnel syndrome
129
hip girdle; attaches left and right legs to axial skeleton; consists of sacrum and pair of coxal bones (3 fused bones)
pelvic girdle
130
What are the 3 bones of the coxal bones? Where are they fused?
1. ilium
2. ischium
3. pubis
fused at acetabulum
131
What is the function of the pelvic girdle?
supports all of our weight and protects internal organs
132
What is the difference between a male and female pelvis?
```
male:
1. long and narrow
2. pubic arch less than 80 degrees
3. obturator foramen is round in shape
female:
1. short and wide
2. pubic arch 80-90 degrees
3. obturator foramen is oval
```
133
single bone of the thigh; largest, longest, strongest bone in the body
femur
134
What are the 6 main bones of the leg/foot?
1. femur
2. patella
3. tibia
4. fibula
5. tarsals
6. metatarsals
135
second largest and strongest bone in the body
tibia
136
site where 2 or more bones meet; the weakest part of the skeleton
joints
137
study of joints
arthrology
138
branch of medicine that deals with prevention/correction of injuries/disorders of bones, muscles associated with the skeleton, and ligaments and joints
orthopedics
139
What are the 2 functions of joints?
1. mobility
| 2. cohesion
140
classification of joints that refers to the material binding the bones together as well as the presence/absence of a joint cavity
structural classification
141
What are the 3 structural classifications of joints?
1. fibrous
2. cartilaginous
3. synovial
142
(structural classification of joints) dense (fibrous) CT; no joint cavity; immovable; synarthroses
fibrous
143
(structural classification of joints) hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage; no joint cavity; slightly or freely moveable; amphiarthroses and diarthroses
cartilaginous
144
(structural classification of joints) fluid filled joint cavity; freely moveable; most of the joints in the body; diarthroses
synovial
145
classification of joints that refers to the amount of movement allowed
functional
146
What are the 3 functional classifications of joints?
1. synarthroses
2. amphiarthroses
3. diarthroses
147
(functional classification of joints) immovable
synarthroses
148
(functional classification of joints) slightly moveable
amphiarthroses
149
(functional classification of joints) freely moveable
diarthroses
150
What 3 types of joints are structurally classified as fibrous?
1. sutures
2. gomphoses
3. syndesmoses
151
(fibrous joints) synarthrotic; ex. bones of skull
sutures
152
(fibrous joints) peg in socket; synarthrotic; ex. teeth in sockets; periodontal ligament
gomphoses
153
What does the periodontal ligament do?
makes up gomphoses
154
(fibrous joints) bones connected by ligaments; length of ligament determines mobility of joint; ex. distal articulation of tibia and fibula (synarthrotic)
syndesmoses
155
What 2 types of joints are structurally classified as cartilaginous?
1. synchondroses
| 2. symphyses
156
(cartilaginous joints) hyaline cartilage; synarthrotic; ex. epiphyseal plates, 1st rib and manubrium
synchondroses
157
(cartilaginous joints) fibrocartilage sandwiched between hyaline cartilage; strong and flexible; amphiarthrotic; ex. pubic symphysis, intervertebral joints
symphyses
158
Synovial joints all have what 6 things?
1. articular cartilage
2. joint (synovial) cavity
3. articular capsule
4. synovial fluid
5. reinforcing ligaments
6. nerves and blood vessels
159
composed of hyaline cartilage lining surface of bones; prevents bone from rubbing together when compressed
articular cartilage
160
contains synovial fluid
joint (synovial) cavity
161
structure of synovial joints that has outer fibrous later (dense irregular CT) and an inner synovial membrane with 2 layers (areolar loose and adipose)
articular capsule
162
keeps joint cavity clean (phagocytic cells); blood filtrate/hyaluronic acid (fibroblasts); reduces friction (lubricant); nourishment (cartilage is avascular)
synovial fluid
163
What are the 3 parts of reinforcing ligaments?
1. capsular (intrinsic)
2. extracapsular
3. intracapsular
164
part of reinforcing ligament in synovial joints that is formed by a thickening of the parallel fibers in the fibrous layer; part of articular capsule itself
capsular (intrinsic)
165
part of reinforcing ligament in synovial joints that is located outside the articular capsule
extracapsular
166
part of reinforcing ligament in synovial joints that is outside the articular capsule and deep to it
intracapsular
167
part of synovial joints that provide synovial fluid and nutrients
nerves and blood vessels
168
What are the 5 accessory structures of some synovial joints?
1. fatty pads
2. articular discs (meniscus)
3. bursae
4. tendon sheaths
5. double-jointedness
169
(accessory structure of synovial joints) in between fibrous layer and synovial membrane; found in hip and knee joints
fatty pads
170
(accessory structure of synovial joints) fibrocartilage that separates articular surfaces of bones and minimizes wear and tear; extends into joint cavity; separates joint cavity into two parts
articular discs (meniscus)
171
(accessory structure of synovial joints) fibrous sacs lined with synovial membrane and containing some synovial fluid
bursae
172
inflammation of bursae
bursitis
173
(accessory structure of synovial joints) elongated bursa that wraps around a tendon
tendon sheaths
174
(accessory structure of synovial joints) reinforcing ligaments and joint capsules that are more stretchy and loose
double-jointedness
175
What are the 6 types of synovial joints?
1. plane
2. hinge
3. pivot
4. condyloid
5. saddle
6. ball and socket
176
joint between carpals and tarsals (non-axial)
plane
177
joint between the atlas and dens of axis, as well as the proximal radius and ulna (uni-axial); ligaments hold it together
pivot
178
elbow joint; cylindrical and trough paired joints; uni-axial; trochlea and trochlear notch of ulna
hinge
179
joint moves across one plane
uni-axial
180
joint between metacarpals and phalanges (bi-axial); bones fit together
condyloid
181
joint between carpals and metacarpal of thumb; both have saddle shaped bones; bi-axial (2 planes)
saddle
182
hip and shoulder joint; multi-axial (freely moveable)
ball and socket
183
What are the 4 types of movement for synovial joints?
1. gliding movements
2. angular movements
3. rotation
4. special movements
184
(movements of synovial joints) flat surfaces of 2 bones glide slide over each other; ex. tarsals, carpals, and flat articular processes of vertebrae
gliding movements
185
(movement of synovial joints) flexion/extension/hyperextension, abduction/adduction, circumduction; increase or decrease angle between 2 bones
angular movements
186
moving thigh laterally/bringing thigh to midline
abduction/adduction
187
decreases the angle between the bones/increases/overextension beyond anatomical position; bend head to chest/bring head upright/head back
flexion/extension/hyperextension
188
proximal end stays put and distal end moves in a circle; ex. fingers, wrists, shoulder
circumduction
189
(movement of synovial joints) movement around longitudinal axis; ex. thigh, C1 and C2, head
rotation
190
(movement of synovial joints) supination, pronation, dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, inversion, eversion, protraction, retraction, elevation, depression, opposition
special movements
191
lift body part superiorly/move body part inferiorly; mandible (close mouth/open mouth); shoulder (shrugging/slumping)
elevation/depression
192
anterior/posterior movement along transverse plane; mandible (stick chin out/pull chin back)
protraction/retraction
193
special movements of food; ankle (sole of foot turns medially/sole of foot faces laterally)
inversion/eversion
194
movements of radius around ulna; rotate forearm medially, palm down/rotate forearm laterally, palm up
pronation/supination
195
up and down movements of foot at ankle; lift
dorsiflextion/plantar flexion
196
touch thumb to tip of fingers to same hand
opposition
197
Which 3 structures secrete components of synovial fluid?
1. tendon sheath
2. bursae
3. synovial membrane
198
What type of tissue forms a gomphosis?
dense connective
199
What is the functional classification of a synchondrosis?
synarthrotic
200
What synovial movement does not involve movement about an axis?
gliding
201
What is tip toe point (type of movement)?
plantar flexion
202
How many ligaments and tendons are in the shoulder joint?
4 ligaments and 5 tendons
203
rim of fibrocartilage around glenoid cavity
glenoid labrum
204
What are the names of the ligaments in the shoulder joint?
1. coracohumeral ligament
| 2. glenohumeral ligaments (3)
205
(ligament in shoulder joint) superior ligament; strong and provides support for upper limb; extends from coracoid process to get greater tubercle
coracohumeral ligament
206
(ligament in shoulder joint) strength to anterior part of articular capsule
glenohumeral ligaments
207
What are the names of the tendons in the shoulder joint?
1. tendon of biceps brachii
| 2. rotator cuff tendons/muscles (4)
208
ball and socket; synovial joint; less moveable than shoulder joint because it is more stable
hip joint
209
the rim of fibrocartilage that surrounds the acetabulum
acetabular labrum
210
About how many ligaments and tendons corkscrew the femur to the coxal bone?
about 20
211
largest and most complex joint in the body; made up of 3 joints that combine to share a single joint cavity; articular capsule is only on 3 sides of joint cavity; many bursar; most common place for sports injuries
knee joint
212
Joint in the knee that is between the tibiofemoral joints and between the distal part of the femur and patella
Femoropatellar joint
212
What are the 3 joints that make up the knee joint?
1. femoropatellar
| 2. Lateral and medial tibiofemoral joints (2)
213
Knee joints that are between the lateral and medial condyles; menisci in knee
Lateral and medial tibiofemoral joints
214
The anterior capsule of the knee is only on _____ sides of the joint cavity. It is not found ________. It encloses the ________ and _________ parts of the joint cavity.
3; anteriorly; lateral; posterior
215
Dislocation of a joint; common in jaw, shoulder, fingers, thumb; bones need to be reduced (put back in place)
Luxation
216
Cartilage destroying enzymes break down cartilage faster than it can be replaced; often joints between cervical and lumbar vertebrae, fingers and knees; 85% of Americans will develop; most common especially elderly
Osteoarthritis
217
Inflammatory disorder; autoimmune disease where the immune system causes inflammation in the joints; scar tissue can become ossified which leads to disfigurement
Rheumatoid arthritis
218
Excess unix acid in blood; urate crystals form in soft tissues of joints causing inflammation; if untreated can result in immobilization of joints
Gouty arthritis (gout)
219
Occurs most often when compression and shear stress (twisting) occur simultaneously; most frequent cartilaginous tear; cartilage is avascular so it heals very slowly; removal of torn part (surgery) is often the standard
Torn meniscus
220
What are the 4 characteristics of muscle tissue?
1. Excitability (responsiveness)
2. Contractility
3. Extensibility
4. Elasticy
221
Can receive and respond to stimuli
Excitability (responsiveness)
222
Can shorten when stimulated
Contractility
223
Can stretch beyond normal resting length
Extensibility
224
Can return to original shape
Elasticity
225
What are the 4 functions of muscle tissue?
1. Movement
2. Maintain posture
3. Heat production (shivering)
4. Stabilize joints
226
What are the 3 types of movement in muscle tissue?
1. Voluntary
2. Cardiac
3. Smooth
227
Type of movement in muscle tissue that maintains blood pressure and in hollow organs to move food
Smooth
228
What are the 3 types of skeletal muscle tissue?
1. Skeletal (voluntary and striated)
2. Cardiac (involuntary and striated)
3. Smooth (involuntary and unstriated)
229
Nerves and blood vessels enter the muscle together and then _________. Each has a nerve _______. Every skeletal muscle fiber is innervated by a _________. They are highly ________ for nutrients, oxygen, energy, and waste removal.
Branch; ending; nerve ending; vascularized
230
Dense irregular CT that surrounds the whole muscle
Epimysium
231
Dense regular CT that surrounds each fasicle (bundle of muscle fibers)
Perimysium
232
Areole loose CT that surrounds each muscle fiber
Endomysium
233
What are the 3 CT wrappings of muscle tissue?
1. Epimysium
2. Perimysium
3. Endomysium
234
What are the 5 functions of CT wrappings?
1. Support muscle fibers
2. Hold muscle together
3. Keeps muscles from overstretching
4. Contribute to elasticity of muscle
5. Carries blood vessels and nerves to individual muscle fibers
235
Point of attachment to immovable (or less moveable) bone; typically proximal to insertion
Origin
236
Point of attachment to moveable bone; typically distal to origin
Insertion
237
Origins/insertions in which the epimysium is fused to periosteum or perichondrium
Direct attachments
238
Origins/insertions in which tendons or aponeuroses (CT of muscle attaches to periosteum or fascia of other muscles)
Indirect attachments
239
More ________ and __________ make a meat tough. Younger animals have less because _______. ____________ use enzymes that break down the proteins in DCT and muscle. Cooking food longer can make it ________. You can also ________ the meat.
Collagen fibers and DCT; their muscles are still developing; meat tenderizers; softer; pound
240
Muscle fibers
Muscle cells
241
Are muscle fibers made up of large or small cells? Are they uni-nucleated or multi-nucleated?
Large (10 to 100 um in diameter and up to 30 cm long); multi-nucleated
242
Plasma membrane of muscle fibers
Sarcolemma
243
Cytoplasm of muscle fibers
Sarcoplasma
244
Granules of stored glycogen in sarcoplasm of muscle fibers
Glycosomes
245
Red pigment found in sarcoplasm of muscle fibers that carries oxygen
Myoglobin
246
Smooth ER around myofibrils that store, regulate, and release calcium
Sarcoplasmic reticulum
247
There are many ________ within a single muscle fiber.
Myofibrils
248
Thick myofilaments
Myosin
249
Thin myofilaments
Actin
250
Anchor for actin
Z-line (disc)
251
Anchor for myosin
M line
252
Dark area of myofibril; extends length of myosin
A band
253
Light area of myofibril; myosin only (Z disc is center)
I band
254
Myosin only; M line is center
H zone
255
Functional unit of skeletal muscle
Sarcomere
256
Makes up thick myofilaments; rodlike tail and 2 globular heads; heads contain binding sites for actin
Myosin
257
Makes up thin myofilaments; made of G-actin (polypeptide subunits); contain active sites for myosin heads; G-actin strung together; 2 twisting strands made up thin myofilaments
Actin
258
In actin; rod-shaped protein that runs along actin; blocks myosin binding sites on actin when muscle is relaxed
Tropomyosin
259
In actin; 3 polypeptide subunit complex (one bound to actin, tropomyosin, calcium)
Troponin
260
There are about ______ skeletal muscles in the human body. At age 30, muscles start being replaced by _____.
600; fat
261
Muscle that has primary responsibility for causing a specific movement; ex. Biceps brachii (forearm flexion) a d triceps brachii (forearm extension)
Prime movers (agonists)
262
Opposes, reverses, or steadies a movement; located on opposite side of the joint as prime mover; ex. Triceps brachii (forearm extension)
Antagonists
263
Assist prime movers by adding extra force to same movement or preventing unwanted movements; ex. Wrist extensors prevent wrist bending when finger flexors contract
Synergists
264
Synergists that immobilize bone or muscle's origin; ex muscles that maintain upright posture
Fixators
265
Region that muscle is associated with; ex. Intercostals between ribs
Location (bone/body)
266
Naming skeletal muscles: ex. Deltoid (triangle), trapezius (trapezoid)
Shape
267
Naming skeletal muscles: ex. Maximus (large-gluteus Maximus), minimus (small-gluteus minimus)
Size
268
Naming skeletal muscles: ex. Transversus (fibers run at right angle-transversus abdominus), rectus (straight-rectus femoris)
Direction
269
Naming skeletal muscles: ex. Biceps (2 origins-biceps brachii), triceps (3 origins-triceps brachii)
Number of origins
270
Naming skeletal muscles: ex. Sternocleidomastoid (origin-sternum and clavicle; insertion-mastoid process of temporal bone)
Location of attachments (origin named first)
271
Naming skeletal muscles: Movement muscle produces; ex. Adductor-adduction (adductor longus)
Action
272
Fasicles arranged in concentric rings; ex. Orbicularis oris
Circular
273
Fasicles converge toward a single tendon; ex. Pectoralis major
Convergent
274
Long axes of fasicles run parallel to long axis of muscle; ex. sartorius
Parallel
275
Spindle shaped fasicles; ex. Biceps brachii
Fusiform
276
Fasicles attach to central tendon at angle
Pennate
277
All fasicles attach to one side of a tendon (ex. Extensor digitorum longus)
Unipennate
278
Fasicles attach to opposite ends of a tendon (ex. Rectus femoris)
Bipennate
279
All fasicles connect at different points (e. deltoid)
Multipennate
280
Rigid bar (bones) that moves about a fixed point
Lever
281
Fixed points (joints)
Fulcrum
282
Force applied by a muscle on the insertion point
Effort
283
Resistance (bone itself + associated tissue)
Load
284
Power levers; load is closer to fulcrum than effort applied, small effort can move large load; doesn't take as much effort to move large loads; effort x length of effort arm = load x length of load arm
Mechanical advantage
285
Strong lever systems; slow; stable
Power levers
286
Speed levers; load is farther from fulcrum than effort applied, effort must be greater than load to move it; effort to move a load is dependent on where the insertion is relative to the joint
Mechanical disadvantage
287
Effort applied at one end of lever; load at other end of lever; fulcrum in between effort and load; ex. Scissors, axis and atlas; operate at mechanical advantage or disadvantage
First class levers
288
Effort applied at one end of the lever; fulcrum at other end of lever; load in between effort and fulcrum; ex. Advantage-wheelbarrow, tiptoes; always at mechanical advantage
Second class levers
289
Load at one end of lever; fulcrum at other end of lever; effort in between load and fulcrum; ex. Tweezers and biceps curls; always at mechanical disadvantage
Third class levers
290
Raises eyebrows
Epicranius
291
Elevates/retracts mandible
Temporalis
292
Closes eyes
Orbicularis oculi
293
Closes lips
Orbicularis oris
294
Elevates mandible
Masseter
295
Protrude lower lip (pout)
Mentalis
296
Compress cheek (whistle, suck)
Buccinator
297
Move corners of lip laterally
Risorius
298
Tenses skin of neck (anterior)
Platysma
299
Flexes/laterally rotates head (anterior)
Sternocleidomastoid
300
Elevates/depresses/retracts/rotates/stabilizes scapula (posterior)
Trapezius
301
Extends/hyperextends head, antagonist to sternocleidomastoid
Splenius
302
Prime mover arm flexion, abduct arm, medically rotate arm
Pectoralis major
303
Depress/protract scapula
Pectoralis minor
304
Prime mover scapula protraction, rotates scapula
Serratus
305
Depress rib cage (expiration)
Internal intercostals
306
Elevate rib cage (inspiration)
External intercostals
307
Prime mover inspiration
Diaphragm
308
Flex, rotate lumbar region
Rectus abdominis
309
Compress abdomen
Transversus abdominis
310
Compress abdomen, flex vertebral column, rotate trunk, lateral flexion of trunk
External obliques
311
Elevate/depress/rotate scapula
Trapezius
312
Prime mover arm extension, arm adduction, medial rotation of arm
Latissimus dorsi
313
Prime mover back extension
Iliocostalis/longissimus/spinalis
314
Elevates/adducts scapula
Levator scapulae
315
Initiates abduction of arm
Supraspinatus
316
Rotates humerus laterally
Teres major
317
Adducts humerus, medically rotates humerus
Teres major
318
Stabilizes scapula
Rhomboid major
319
What 3 muscles are in the pectoral girdle?
1. Levator scapulae
2. Trapezius
3. Serratus
320
Elevate scapula
Trapezius with elevator scapulae
321
Depress scapula
Trapezius with pectoralis minor
322
Retract scapula
Trapezius with rhomboids
323
The only function of the pectoral girdle that trapezius muscles do not participate in
Protraction
324
Protract scapula
Serratus with pectoralis minor
325
Weak arm abductor
Supraspinatus
326
Laterally rotate arm
Infraspinatus
327
Medially rotate arm
Subscapularis
328
Prime mover of arm flexion, medically rotate arm, arm adduction
Pectoralis major
329
Prime mover of arm abduction
Deltoid
330
Forearm flexion
Biceps brachii
331
Forearm extension
Triceps brachii
332
Synergistic to triceps in extension
Anconeus
333
Forearm pronation
Pronator teres
334
Prime mover forearm pronation
Pronator quadratus
335
Forearm supination
Supinator
336
Prime mover of thigh flexion
Iliopsoas
337
Thigh extension
Gluteus Maximus
338
Abduct, medically rotate thigh
Gluteus medius/minimus
339
What are the 3 compartments of the leg?
1. Posterior
2. Medial
3. Anterior
340
Adduct, medially rotate, flex thigh
Adductor Magnus
341
Adduct thigh, medially rotate, flex leg (crosses 2 joints - hip and knee)
Gracilis
342
Thigh extension, knee flexion
Semimembranosus
343
Abducts thigh
Tensor fascial latae
344
Knee extension, flex thigh
Rectus femoris
345
Knee extension
Vastus lateralis
346
Flexes, abducts, laterally rotates thigh
Sartorius
347
The sternocleidomastoid is antagonistic to __________.
Splenius
348
The infraspinatus/teres minor is antagonistic to _____.
Subscapularis
349
Biceps brachii/brachialis is antagonistic to __________.
Triceps brachii
350
The tensor fasciae latae is antagonistic to _____.
Adductor longus, adductor Magnus, adductor brevis, pectineus
351
The hamstrings are antagonistic to __________.
Quadriceps
352
Chronic rotation/tilting of head to one side
Torticollis (wryneck)
353
Group of muscle destroying diseases
Muscular dystrophy
354
Most common and serious form of muscular dystrophy; six-linked trait; symptoms develop in early childhood (skeletal muscles weaken, lose muscle mass; progresses from extremities to head, chest, cardiac muscles
Duchenne muscular dystrophy
355
Variants of testosterone; increases muscle mass; other effects include acne, hair loss, small testes, infertility, liver damage, roid rage; females: smaller breasts, excess body hair, thinning scalp hair
Anabolic steroids
356
Site of hematopoiesis (blood cell formation); in newborns found in medullary cavity of diaphysis, in all areas of spongy bone; in adults found mainly in epiphysis of humerus and femur, in diploe and in some irregular bones (hip bones)
Red bone marrow
357
Stores fat; in adults found in medullary cavity of diaphysis
Yellow bone marrow
358
What is different about spongy bone than compact bone?
Irregularly arranged lamella; lacks central/volkmann's canal and osteons
359
Inteamembranous ossification mainly forms _____ bones.
Flat
360
What kind of ossification forms most of the bones?
Endochondrial ossification
361
Postnatal bone growth continues into ________.
Adolescence
362
How many bones are in the skull?
22 (8 cranial, 14 facial)
363
Hole where brain meets spinal cords
Foramen magnum
364
Articulate with first cervical vertebra
Occipital condyles
365
Where parietal bones meet
Sagittal suture
366
Where parietal bones meet occipital bone
Lambdoid suture
367
Where parietal bones meet frontal bone
Coronal suture
368
Where parietal meets temporal
Squamous suture
369
Where pituitary gland sits
Sella turcica
370
The maxilla and palatine bones form the _________
Hard palate
371
Holes for passage of blood vessels and nerves in sacrum
Sacral foraminifera
372
Curvature of thoracic and sacral vertebrae
Convex posteriorly
373
Curvature of cervical and lumbar vertebrae
Concave posteriorly
