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A & P 1 > Exam 2 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

What are the 7 functions of the skeletal system?

A
  1. protects
  2. supports
  3. movement/locomotion
  4. mineral storage (Ca, P)
  5. produces blood
  6. energy storage (fat stored in yellow marrow)
  7. hormone production (osteocalcin)
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2
Q

What are the 4 classifications of bones?

A
  1. long bones
  2. short bones
  3. flat bones
  4. irregular bones
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3
Q

dense outer layer of bone

A

compact bone

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4
Q

inner layer of bone; trabecular; consists of lattice of trabeculae

A

spongy bone

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5
Q

What kind of cartilage is in long bones?

A

articular

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6
Q

a bone longer than it is wide

A

long bone

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7
Q

Which type of bone has a diaphysis (shaft)?

A

long bones

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8
Q

In long bones, what does the diaphysis (shaft) contain?

A

medullary cavity

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9
Q

The medullary cavity in the diaphysis of long bones contains ____ bone marrow in infants and young children and _____ bone marrow in adults

A

red; yellow

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10
Q

ends of long bone

A

epiphysis

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11
Q

Epiphyses of long bones contain outer ____ bone and interior ___ bone

A

compact; spongy

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12
Q

The interior spongy bone in the epiphyses of long bones contains red marrow for ________, which is mainly in the head of the ________ and _______ for adults.

A

hematopoiesis; humerus and femur

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13
Q

blood cell formation

A

hematopoeisis

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14
Q

remnant of epiphyseal plate; hyaline cartilage that divides and allows the bone to grow during childhood

A

epiphyseal line

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15
Q

contains an outer fibrous layer (dense irregular CT) and an inner osteogenic layer (contains osteogenic cells that differentiate into bone cells); rich supply of nerve fibers and blood vessels pass through shaft to medullary cavity via nutrient foramina; provides attachment points for tendons and ligaments

A

periosteum

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16
Q

dense irregular CT; lines medullary cavity, central canal, Volkmann’s canal; covers trabeculae of spongy bone; contains osteogenic cells that differentiate into bone cells

A

endosteum

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17
Q

type of bone:

  1. spongy bone covered by compact bone
  2. has periosteum and endosteum
  3. no diaphysis or epiphyses
  4. diploe-spongy bone (contains red marrow - little in adult)
  5. ex. skull bones, sternum, scapula, and ribs
A

flat bones

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18
Q

type of bone:

  1. articular cartilage
  2. diaphysis, epiphyses
  3. periosteum, endosteum
A

long bones

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19
Q

type of bone:

  1. spongy bone covered by compact bone
  2. has periosteum and endosteum
  3. no diaphysis or epiphyses
  4. ex. carpals and tarsals
  5. sesamoid bones
A

short bones

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20
Q

bones that form within a tendon (ex. patella)

A

sesamoid bones

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21
Q

type of bone:

  1. spongy bone covered by compact bone
  2. has periosteum and endosteum
  3. no diaphysis or epiphyses
  4. ex. vertebrae and coxal (hip) bone
A

irregular bones

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22
Q

fundamental unit of bone

A

osteon (haversian system)

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23
Q

bone matrix ring

A

lamella

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24
Q

space containing the osteocyte

A

lacuna

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25
Q

transverse canals in bone

A

Volkmann’s canal

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26
Q

microscopic canals between lacunae

A

canaliculi

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27
Q

cell type of bone found in periosteum and endosteum; mitotically active; differentiate into osteoblasts

A

osteogenic (osteoprogentitor) cells

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28
Q

cell type of bone that is mitotically active; secrete bone matrix and enzymes for mineralization; mature into osteocytes

A

osteoblasts

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29
Q

(cell type of bone) mature osteoblasts; not mitotically active; do not secrete bone matrix but maintains it; communicate with and control activity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts; bone matrix breaks down if leave

A

osteocytes

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30
Q

cell type of bone that are multi-nucleated; differentiate from hematopoetic stem cells; bone re-absorption - break down bone

A

osteoclasts

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31
Q

What percent of bone tissue by mass is organic? Inorganic?

A

35%; 65%

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32
Q

What part of the bone composition includes cells (osteogenic, osteoblasts, osteocytes, osteoclasts) and the osteoid (ground substance - glycoprotein and fluid) and collagen fibers? It also gives bones flexibility and tensile strength (organic and collagen fibers)

A

organic

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33
Q

What part of the bone composition includes hydroxyapatite - calcium phosphate and contributes to the hardness of bone and bone’s ability to resist compression?

A

inorganic

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34
Q

found in and around collagen fibers in bone matrix

A

hydroxyapatite

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35
Q

The proper combination of organic and inorganic components allows bone to be ______ and _______

A

durable and strong without being brittle

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36
Q

How strong is bone in relation to steel in resisting compression? Tension?

A

1/2 as strong; just as strong

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37
Q

bone formation by becoming hard

A

intramembranous ossification

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38
Q

What is the starting material of intramembranous ossification?

A

mesenchyme

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39
Q

What is mesenchyme made up of?

A

embryonic connective tissue

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40
Q

Intramembranous ossification:

  1. Mesenchymal cells differentiate into _______ and cluster in the center of tissue and then differentiate into _____ (ossification center).
  2. Osteoblasts secrete _______ which becomes ______. They get trapped in matrix and mature into _______.
  3. Osteoid is laid down between blood vessels forming _____ (woven bone). _______ forms on outside of woven bone from _____.
  4. Just deep to periosteum, trabeculae _____. Woven bone is reshaped into _______ bone. Spongy bone remains internally and the vascular tissue becomes _______.
A
  1. osteogenic cells; osteoblasts
  2. osteoid; calcified; osteocytes
  3. trabeculae; periosteum; mesenchyme
  4. thickens; compact; red marrow
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41
Q

What is the starting material of endochondrial ossification?

A

hyaline cartilage

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42
Q

ossification in which blood vessels enter perichondrium causing osteogenic cells to differentiate into osteoblasts; perichondrium is now called periosteum

A

endochondrial ossification

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43
Q

Endochondrial ossification:

  1. Osteoblasts secrete osteoid around _____ of hyaline cartilage encasing it in _____.
  2. At _________ (center of hyaline cartilage shaft) ________ signal surrounding cartilage to calcify. ________ die. Cartilage matrix deteriorates forming _______.
  3. The ________ (blood vessels, nerves, red marrow, and bone cells) invades the cavity and forms _____ bone.
  4. Osteoclasts in center break down newly formed spongy bone creating _______. Cartilage at ______ keeps going. Cartilage along shaft calcifies, erodes, and is replaced with _______ and _______.
  5. ________ form at epiphyses, cartilage _______, matrix deteriorates forming _____, periosteal bud invades and forms _____ bone.
  6. At the end of secondary ossification, only hyaline cartilage remaining is ____ cartilage and at ____.
A
  1. diaphysis; bone-bone collar
  2. primary ossification center; chondrocytes; chondrocytes; cavities
  3. periosteal bud; spongy
  4. medullary cavity; ends; osteoid; hydroxiapatite
  5. secondary ossification centers; calcifies; cavities; spongy
  6. articular; epiphyseal plates
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44
Q

What type of bone does not have an ossification center?

A

short bones

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45
Q

4 zones of cartilage cells within the epiphyseal plate contribute to what?

A

postnatal bone growth

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46
Q

What are the 5 zones of cartilage cells within the epiphyseal plate?

A
  1. resting zone
  2. proliferation zone
  3. hypertrophic zone
  4. calcification zone
  5. ossification zone
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47
Q

(zone of cartilage cells within epiphyseal plate) nothing happens here

A

resting zone

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48
Q

(zone of cartilage cells within epiphyseal plate) underneath resting zone, cartilage cells undergo mitosis

A

proliferation zone

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49
Q

(zone of cartilage cells within epiphyseal plate) older cartilage cells enlarge

A

hypertrophic zone

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50
Q

(zone of cartilage cells within epiphyseal plate) matrix calcifies, cartilage cells die, matrix begins deteriorating, blood vessels invade cavity

A

calcification zone

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51
Q

(zone of cartilage cells within epiphyseal plate) new bone forms

A

ossification zone

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52
Q

coupled process of bone reabsorption and formation

A

bone remodeling

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53
Q

Bone reabsorption is due to ________ and ________.

A

osteoclasts; osteoblasts

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54
Q

deep grooves in bone; secrete lysosomes ) and hydrochloric acid

A

osteoclasts

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55
Q

secrete osteoid

A

osteoblasts

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56
Q

enzymes break down protein component of bone

A

lysosomes

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57
Q

break down inorganic component of bone

A

hydrochloric acid

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58
Q

enzymes needed for mineralization

A

osteoid

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59
Q

deficiency of vitamin D or Ca resulting in bone demineralization; bones soften and weaken; seen in adults

A

osteomalacia

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60
Q

deficiency of vitamin D or Ca; bones remain soft; bowed legs; deformities of pelvis, skull, and rib cage; seen in children

A

rickets

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61
Q

more bone reabsorption than formation; results in reduced bone mass; bones weaken and susceptible to fracture; occurs most often in older age; caused by factors such as low estrogen production such as occurs after menopause, insufficient exercise, immobility, diet low in Ca, vitamin D, protein, diabetes mellitus

A

osteoporosis

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62
Q

haphazard deposition and reabsorption of bone; activity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts become irregular; pagetic bone - newly formed bone has abnormal amount of spongy bone and can form in marrow cavities; reduced mineralization; bone thickening in areas; mostly affects spine, pelvis, femur, skull; typically only affects people over 40

A

paget’s disease

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63
Q

What are the 5 parts of the axial skeleton?

A
  1. skull
  2. ear ossicles
  3. hyoid bone
  4. thoracic cage
  5. vertebrae
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64
Q

What are the 3 functions of the axial skeleton?

A
  1. forms the longitudinal axis of the body
  2. supports the head, neck, and trunk
  3. protects the brain, spinal cord, and organs of thoracic cavity
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65
Q

How many cranial bones are there? What are they?

A
  1. frontal
  2. parietal (2)
  3. occipital
  4. temporal (2)
  5. sphenoid
  6. ethmoid
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66
Q

The cranial bones are attachment points for muscles of the _____ and ______.

A

head and neck

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67
Q

What are the 4 main sutures in the skull?

A
  1. sagittal
  2. lambdoid
  3. squamous
  4. coronal
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68
Q

key stone of skull; articulates with all other cranial bones; houses pituitary gland

A

sphenoid bone

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69
Q

between nasal and sphenoid bones; bony area between nasal cavity and orbits; contains cribriform plate, crista galli, perpendicular plate, middle and upper nasal concha

A

ethmoid bone

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70
Q

part of ethmoid bone; roof of nasal cavity; openings where olfactory nerves pass

A

cribriform plate

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71
Q

part of ethmoid bone; point of attachment for dura mater; outermost covering of the brain

A

crista galli

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72
Q

part of ethmoid bone; forms superior part of nasal septum

A

perpendicular plate

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73
Q

part of ethmoid bone; shaped like conch shell; form walls of nasal cavity

A

upper and middle nasal concha

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74
Q

How many facial bones are there? What are they?

A
  1. mandible
  2. vomer
  3. maxilla (2)
  4. palatine (2)
  5. zygomatic (2)
  6. lacrimal (2)
  7. nasal (2)
  8. inferior nasal concha (2)
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75
Q

anchors teeth

A

mandible

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76
Q

2 fused bones; anchors teeth; forms anterior part of hard palate

A

maxilla

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77
Q

cheek bones

A

zygomatic bones

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78
Q

2 medially fused bones; bridge of nose; fuses with hyaline cartilage

A

nasal bone

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79
Q

medial portion of eye socket

A

lacrimal bones

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80
Q

interior nasal septum; ethmoid also helps form nasal septum

A

vomer

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81
Q

make up lateral walls of nasal cavity along with other nasal concha

A

inferior nasal concha

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82
Q

What are the 5 functions of the facial bones?

A
  1. framework of face
  2. cavities for special sense organs of sight, hearing, taste, and smell
  3. openings for air and passage of food
  4. secure teeth
  5. anchor the facial muscles of expression (important for behavior and communication)
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83
Q

Bones of the skull are not fully _______ at birth.

A

ossified

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84
Q

unossified remnants of fibrous membranes; allows baby’s head to compress during birth; most replaced by bone within one year

A

fontanelles

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85
Q

only bone in body that doesn’t articulate any other bones; ligaments connect to temporal bone; attachment for tongue and some neck muscles

A

hyoid bone

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86
Q

What are the 3 parts of the ear ossicles?

A
  1. malleus (hammer)
  2. incus (anvil)
  3. stapes (stirrup)
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87
Q

develop from first and second pharyngeal arches in embryo; transmit and amplify sound waves

A

ear ossicles

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88
Q

What are the 3 functions of the vertebral column?

A
  1. support body
  2. surround and protect spinal cord
  3. attachment point for ribs and back muscles
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89
Q

Vertebrae are held together by _______

A

ligaments

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90
Q

__________ are located between vertebrae

A

intervertebral discs

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91
Q

What are the 5 parts of the vertebral column?

A
  1. cervical (neck) vertebrae
  2. thoracic (chest) vertebrae
  3. lumbar (lower back) vertebrae
  4. sacrum (pelvic)
  5. coccyx (tailbone)
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92
Q

How many of each type of vertebrae are there?

A
  1. cervical = 7, C1-C7
  2. thoracic = 12, T1-T12
  3. lumbar = 5, L1-L5
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93
Q

How many fused vertebrae are in the sacrum? Coccyx?

A 
sacrum = 5
coccyx = 4 (bird's beak)
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94
Q

What type of bone is a vertebrae?

A

irregular

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95
Q

the centrum of a vertebra is also called the _____

A

body

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96
Q

projection of a vertebrae that points posteriorly

A

spinous process

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97
Q

lateral projection of a vertebrae

A

transverse process

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98
Q

large hole in the middle of a vertebrae for the spinal cord to pass through

A

vertebral foramen

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99
Q

facets on vertebrae that are covered by hyaline cartilage

A

superior and inferior articular processes

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100
Q

smallest, lightest vertebrae; have transverse foramen; spinous process bifid (except for last one)

A

cervical

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101
Q

holes in transverse processes of vertebrae

A

transverse foramina

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102
Q

C1; no body; no spinous process; superior articular faucets that articulate with occipital condyles (of occipital bone)

A

atlas

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103
Q

C2; odontoid process (dens); superior projection that allows the head to pivot; does not have transverse foramina

A

axis

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104
Q

vertebrae with a spinous process that is long and angled inferiorly; body is heart shaped; all have facets to articulate with head of ribs; aside from the last two, transverse processes have faucets that articulate with tubercles of ribs

A

thoracic

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105
Q

largest, bulkiest vertebrae; short spinous process; hatchet shaped

A

lumbar

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106
Q

The sacrum contains anterior and posterior _______

A

sacral foramina

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107
Q

tailbone; beak-shaped; gives some support for pelvic organs

A

coccyx

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108
Q

The spine of infants is ________ posteriorly (_____ curvature)

A

concave; primary

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109
Q

Cervical and lumbar vertebrae are ____ posteriorly (_______ curvature)

A

concave; secondary

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110
Q

Cervical curvature becomes prominent when infants can ______. Lumbar curvature starts when infant can ______.

A

lift head; walk

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111
Q

abnormal lateral curve of any portion of the spine - usually thoracic; treatment depends on the angle of curvature and the age or developmental status and can include wearing a back brace, or in severe cases, surgery

A

scoliosis

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112
Q

hump back; posteriorly exaggerated curvature - usually thoracic

A

kyphosis

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113
Q

exaggerated lumbar curvature; sway back

A

lordosis

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114
Q

The sternum is created by the fusion of what 3 bones?

A
  1. manubrium
  2. body
  3. xiphoid process
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115
Q

part of the sternum that articulates with the clavicles and ribs 1-2

A

manubrium

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116
Q

part of the sternum that articulates with ribs 2-7

A

body

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117
Q

part of the sternum that serves as an attachment point for some abdominal muscles; ossified at age 40; usually cartilage in children

A

xiphoid process

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118
Q

How many pairs of ribs do we have? True ribs? False? Floating?

A

12
1-7
8-12
11-12

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119
Q

ribs that are directly attached to the sternum by individual costal cartilages (hyaline)

A

true ribs

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120
Q

ribs that attach to the sternum indirectly by shard costal cartilages (first 3)

A

false ribs

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121
Q

ribs that have no anterior attachment

A

floating ribs

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122
Q

What is the function of the appendicular skeleton?

A

carry out movements

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123
Q

shoulder girdle; attaches left and right arms to axial skeleton; consists of scapula and clavicle

A

pectoral girdle

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124
Q

What are the 6 bones of the arm and hand?

A
  1. humerus
  2. radius
  3. ulna
  4. carpals
  5. metacarpals
  6. phalanges
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125
Q

How many carpal bones are there and what do they make up?

A

8; wrist

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126
Q

long bones that makes up the palms; how many are there?

A

metacarpals; 5

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127
Q

how many phalange bones are there? how many are in each finger?

A

14; 3 except thumb which has 2

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128
Q

wrist is concave anteriorly due to arrangement of carpals; transverse carpal ligament covers the carpals making a tunnel; many nerves and tendons; treatment includes a splint, stretches and exercises, or surgery; overuse or inflammation cause the tendons to swell and pinch nerves

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

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129
Q

hip girdle; attaches left and right legs to axial skeleton; consists of sacrum and pair of coxal bones (3 fused bones)

A

pelvic girdle

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130
Q

What are the 3 bones of the coxal bones? Where are they fused?

A
  1. ilium
  2. ischium
  3. pubis
    fused at acetabulum
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131
Q

What is the function of the pelvic girdle?

A

supports all of our weight and protects internal organs

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132
Q

What is the difference between a male and female pelvis?

A 
male:
1. long and narrow
2. pubic arch less than 80 degrees
3. obturator foramen is round in shape
female:
1. short and wide
2. pubic arch 80-90 degrees
3. obturator foramen is oval
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133
Q

single bone of the thigh; largest, longest, strongest bone in the body

A

femur

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134
Q

What are the 6 main bones of the leg/foot?

A
  1. femur
  2. patella
  3. tibia
  4. fibula
  5. tarsals
  6. metatarsals
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135
Q

second largest and strongest bone in the body

A

tibia

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136
Q

site where 2 or more bones meet; the weakest part of the skeleton

A

joints

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137
Q

study of joints

A

arthrology

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138
Q

branch of medicine that deals with prevention/correction of injuries/disorders of bones, muscles associated with the skeleton, and ligaments and joints

A

orthopedics

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139
Q

What are the 2 functions of joints?

A
  1. mobility

2. cohesion

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140
Q

classification of joints that refers to the material binding the bones together as well as the presence/absence of a joint cavity

A

structural classification

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141
Q

What are the 3 structural classifications of joints?

A
  1. fibrous
  2. cartilaginous
  3. synovial
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142
Q

(structural classification of joints) dense (fibrous) CT; no joint cavity; immovable; synarthroses

A

fibrous

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143
Q

(structural classification of joints) hyaline cartilage or fibrocartilage; no joint cavity; slightly or freely moveable; amphiarthroses and diarthroses

A

cartilaginous

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144
Q

(structural classification of joints) fluid filled joint cavity; freely moveable; most of the joints in the body; diarthroses

A

synovial

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145
Q

classification of joints that refers to the amount of movement allowed

A

functional

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146
Q

What are the 3 functional classifications of joints?

A
  1. synarthroses
  2. amphiarthroses
  3. diarthroses
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147
Q

(functional classification of joints) immovable

A

synarthroses

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148
Q

(functional classification of joints) slightly moveable

A

amphiarthroses

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149
Q

(functional classification of joints) freely moveable

A

diarthroses

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150
Q

What 3 types of joints are structurally classified as fibrous?

A
  1. sutures
  2. gomphoses
  3. syndesmoses
151
Q

(fibrous joints) synarthrotic; ex. bones of skull

A

sutures

152
Q

(fibrous joints) peg in socket; synarthrotic; ex. teeth in sockets; periodontal ligament

A

gomphoses

153
Q

What does the periodontal ligament do?

A

makes up gomphoses

154
Q

(fibrous joints) bones connected by ligaments; length of ligament determines mobility of joint; ex. distal articulation of tibia and fibula (synarthrotic)

A

syndesmoses

155
Q

What 2 types of joints are structurally classified as cartilaginous?

A
  1. synchondroses

2. symphyses

156
Q

(cartilaginous joints) hyaline cartilage; synarthrotic; ex. epiphyseal plates, 1st rib and manubrium

A

synchondroses

157
Q

(cartilaginous joints) fibrocartilage sandwiched between hyaline cartilage; strong and flexible; amphiarthrotic; ex. pubic symphysis, intervertebral joints

A

symphyses

158
Q

Synovial joints all have what 6 things?

A
  1. articular cartilage
  2. joint (synovial) cavity
  3. articular capsule
  4. synovial fluid
  5. reinforcing ligaments
  6. nerves and blood vessels
159
Q

composed of hyaline cartilage lining surface of bones; prevents bone from rubbing together when compressed

A

articular cartilage

160
Q

contains synovial fluid

A

joint (synovial) cavity

161
Q

structure of synovial joints that has outer fibrous later (dense irregular CT) and an inner synovial membrane with 2 layers (areolar loose and adipose)

A

articular capsule

162
Q

keeps joint cavity clean (phagocytic cells); blood filtrate/hyaluronic acid (fibroblasts); reduces friction (lubricant); nourishment (cartilage is avascular)

A

synovial fluid

163
Q

What are the 3 parts of reinforcing ligaments?

A
  1. capsular (intrinsic)
  2. extracapsular
  3. intracapsular
164
Q

part of reinforcing ligament in synovial joints that is formed by a thickening of the parallel fibers in the fibrous layer; part of articular capsule itself

A

capsular (intrinsic)

165
Q

part of reinforcing ligament in synovial joints that is located outside the articular capsule

A

extracapsular

166
Q

part of reinforcing ligament in synovial joints that is outside the articular capsule and deep to it

A

intracapsular

167
Q

part of synovial joints that provide synovial fluid and nutrients

A

nerves and blood vessels

168
Q

What are the 5 accessory structures of some synovial joints?

A
  1. fatty pads
  2. articular discs (meniscus)
  3. bursae
  4. tendon sheaths
  5. double-jointedness
169
Q

(accessory structure of synovial joints) in between fibrous layer and synovial membrane; found in hip and knee joints

A

fatty pads

170
Q

(accessory structure of synovial joints) fibrocartilage that separates articular surfaces of bones and minimizes wear and tear; extends into joint cavity; separates joint cavity into two parts

A

articular discs (meniscus)

171
Q

(accessory structure of synovial joints) fibrous sacs lined with synovial membrane and containing some synovial fluid

A

bursae

172
Q

inflammation of bursae

A

bursitis

173
Q

(accessory structure of synovial joints) elongated bursa that wraps around a tendon

A

tendon sheaths

174
Q

(accessory structure of synovial joints) reinforcing ligaments and joint capsules that are more stretchy and loose

A

double-jointedness

175
Q

What are the 6 types of synovial joints?

A
  1. plane
  2. hinge
  3. pivot
  4. condyloid
  5. saddle
  6. ball and socket
176
Q

joint between carpals and tarsals (non-axial)

A

plane

177
Q

joint between the atlas and dens of axis, as well as the proximal radius and ulna (uni-axial); ligaments hold it together

A

pivot

178
Q

elbow joint; cylindrical and trough paired joints; uni-axial; trochlea and trochlear notch of ulna

A

hinge

179
Q

joint moves across one plane

A

uni-axial

180
Q

joint between metacarpals and phalanges (bi-axial); bones fit together

A

condyloid

181
Q

joint between carpals and metacarpal of thumb; both have saddle shaped bones; bi-axial (2 planes)

A

saddle

182
Q

hip and shoulder joint; multi-axial (freely moveable)

A

ball and socket

183
Q

What are the 4 types of movement for synovial joints?

A
  1. gliding movements
  2. angular movements
  3. rotation
  4. special movements
184
Q

(movements of synovial joints) flat surfaces of 2 bones glide slide over each other; ex. tarsals, carpals, and flat articular processes of vertebrae

A

gliding movements

185
Q

(movement of synovial joints) flexion/extension/hyperextension, abduction/adduction, circumduction; increase or decrease angle between 2 bones

A

angular movements

186
Q

moving thigh laterally/bringing thigh to midline

A

abduction/adduction

187
Q

decreases the angle between the bones/increases/overextension beyond anatomical position; bend head to chest/bring head upright/head back

A

flexion/extension/hyperextension

188
Q

proximal end stays put and distal end moves in a circle; ex. fingers, wrists, shoulder

A

circumduction

189
Q

(movement of synovial joints) movement around longitudinal axis; ex. thigh, C1 and C2, head

A

rotation

190
Q

(movement of synovial joints) supination, pronation, dorsiflexion, plantar flexion, inversion, eversion, protraction, retraction, elevation, depression, opposition

A

special movements

191
Q

lift body part superiorly/move body part inferiorly; mandible (close mouth/open mouth); shoulder (shrugging/slumping)

A

elevation/depression

192
Q

anterior/posterior movement along transverse plane; mandible (stick chin out/pull chin back)

A

protraction/retraction

193
Q

special movements of food; ankle (sole of foot turns medially/sole of foot faces laterally)

A

inversion/eversion

194
Q

movements of radius around ulna; rotate forearm medially, palm down/rotate forearm laterally, palm up

A

pronation/supination

195
Q

up and down movements of foot at ankle; lift

A

dorsiflextion/plantar flexion

196
Q

touch thumb to tip of fingers to same hand

A

opposition

197
Q

Which 3 structures secrete components of synovial fluid?

A
  1. tendon sheath
  2. bursae
  3. synovial membrane
198
Q

What type of tissue forms a gomphosis?

A

dense connective

199
Q

What is the functional classification of a synchondrosis?

A

synarthrotic

200
Q

What synovial movement does not involve movement about an axis?

A

gliding

201
Q

What is tip toe point (type of movement)?

A

plantar flexion

202
Q

How many ligaments and tendons are in the shoulder joint?

A

4 ligaments and 5 tendons

203
Q

rim of fibrocartilage around glenoid cavity

A

glenoid labrum

204
Q

What are the names of the ligaments in the shoulder joint?

A
  1. coracohumeral ligament

2. glenohumeral ligaments (3)

205
Q

(ligament in shoulder joint) superior ligament; strong and provides support for upper limb; extends from coracoid process to get greater tubercle

A

coracohumeral ligament

206
Q

(ligament in shoulder joint) strength to anterior part of articular capsule

A

glenohumeral ligaments

207
Q

What are the names of the tendons in the shoulder joint?

A
  1. tendon of biceps brachii

2. rotator cuff tendons/muscles (4)

208
Q

ball and socket; synovial joint; less moveable than shoulder joint because it is more stable

A

hip joint

209
Q

the rim of fibrocartilage that surrounds the acetabulum

A

acetabular labrum

210
Q

About how many ligaments and tendons corkscrew the femur to the coxal bone?

A

about 20

211
Q

largest and most complex joint in the body; made up of 3 joints that combine to share a single joint cavity; articular capsule is only on 3 sides of joint cavity; many bursar; most common place for sports injuries

A

knee joint

212
Q

Joint in the knee that is between the tibiofemoral joints and between the distal part of the femur and patella

A

Femoropatellar joint

212
Q

What are the 3 joints that make up the knee joint?

A
  1. femoropatellar

2. Lateral and medial tibiofemoral joints (2)

213
Q

Knee joints that are between the lateral and medial condyles; menisci in knee

A

Lateral and medial tibiofemoral joints

214
Q

The anterior capsule of the knee is only on _____ sides of the joint cavity. It is not found ________. It encloses the ________ and _________ parts of the joint cavity.

A

3; anteriorly; lateral; posterior

215
Q

Dislocation of a joint; common in jaw, shoulder, fingers, thumb; bones need to be reduced (put back in place)

A

Luxation

216
Q

Cartilage destroying enzymes break down cartilage faster than it can be replaced; often joints between cervical and lumbar vertebrae, fingers and knees; 85% of Americans will develop; most common especially elderly

A

Osteoarthritis

217
Q

Inflammatory disorder; autoimmune disease where the immune system causes inflammation in the joints; scar tissue can become ossified which leads to disfigurement

A

Rheumatoid arthritis

218
Q

Excess unix acid in blood; urate crystals form in soft tissues of joints causing inflammation; if untreated can result in immobilization of joints

A

Gouty arthritis (gout)

219
Q

Occurs most often when compression and shear stress (twisting) occur simultaneously; most frequent cartilaginous tear; cartilage is avascular so it heals very slowly; removal of torn part (surgery) is often the standard

A

Torn meniscus

220
Q

What are the 4 characteristics of muscle tissue?

A
  1. Excitability (responsiveness)
  2. Contractility
  3. Extensibility
  4. Elasticy
221
Q

Can receive and respond to stimuli

A

Excitability (responsiveness)

222
Q

Can shorten when stimulated

A

Contractility

223
Q

Can stretch beyond normal resting length

A

Extensibility

224
Q

Can return to original shape

A

Elasticity

225
Q

What are the 4 functions of muscle tissue?

A
  1. Movement
  2. Maintain posture
  3. Heat production (shivering)
  4. Stabilize joints
226
Q

What are the 3 types of movement in muscle tissue?

A
  1. Voluntary
  2. Cardiac
  3. Smooth
227
Q

Type of movement in muscle tissue that maintains blood pressure and in hollow organs to move food

A

Smooth

228
Q

What are the 3 types of skeletal muscle tissue?

A
  1. Skeletal (voluntary and striated)
  2. Cardiac (involuntary and striated)
  3. Smooth (involuntary and unstriated)
229
Q

Nerves and blood vessels enter the muscle together and then _________. Each has a nerve _______. Every skeletal muscle fiber is innervated by a _________. They are highly ________ for nutrients, oxygen, energy, and waste removal.

A

Branch; ending; nerve ending; vascularized

230
Q

Dense irregular CT that surrounds the whole muscle

A

Epimysium

231
Q

Dense regular CT that surrounds each fasicle (bundle of muscle fibers)

A

Perimysium

232
Q

Areole loose CT that surrounds each muscle fiber

A

Endomysium

233
Q

What are the 3 CT wrappings of muscle tissue?

A
  1. Epimysium
  2. Perimysium
  3. Endomysium
234
Q

What are the 5 functions of CT wrappings?

A
  1. Support muscle fibers
  2. Hold muscle together
  3. Keeps muscles from overstretching
  4. Contribute to elasticity of muscle
  5. Carries blood vessels and nerves to individual muscle fibers
235
Q

Point of attachment to immovable (or less moveable) bone; typically proximal to insertion

A

Origin

236
Q

Point of attachment to moveable bone; typically distal to origin

A

Insertion

237
Q

Origins/insertions in which the epimysium is fused to periosteum or perichondrium

A

Direct attachments

238
Q

Origins/insertions in which tendons or aponeuroses (CT of muscle attaches to periosteum or fascia of other muscles)

A

Indirect attachments

239
Q

More ________ and __________ make a meat tough. Younger animals have less because _______. ____________ use enzymes that break down the proteins in DCT and muscle. Cooking food longer can make it ________. You can also ________ the meat.

A

Collagen fibers and DCT; their muscles are still developing; meat tenderizers; softer; pound

240
Q

Muscle fibers

A

Muscle cells

241
Q

Are muscle fibers made up of large or small cells? Are they uni-nucleated or multi-nucleated?

A

Large (10 to 100 um in diameter and up to 30 cm long); multi-nucleated

242
Q

Plasma membrane of muscle fibers

A

Sarcolemma

243
Q

Cytoplasm of muscle fibers

A

Sarcoplasma

244
Q

Granules of stored glycogen in sarcoplasm of muscle fibers

A

Glycosomes

245
Q

Red pigment found in sarcoplasm of muscle fibers that carries oxygen

A

Myoglobin

246
Q

Smooth ER around myofibrils that store, regulate, and release calcium

A

Sarcoplasmic reticulum

247
Q

There are many ________ within a single muscle fiber.

A

Myofibrils

248
Q

Thick myofilaments

A

Myosin

249
Q

Thin myofilaments

A

Actin

250
Q

Anchor for actin

A

Z-line (disc)

251
Q

Anchor for myosin

A

M line

252
Q

Dark area of myofibril; extends length of myosin

A

A band

253
Q

Light area of myofibril; myosin only (Z disc is center)

A

I band

254
Q

Myosin only; M line is center

A

H zone

255
Q

Functional unit of skeletal muscle

A

Sarcomere

256
Q

Makes up thick myofilaments; rodlike tail and 2 globular heads; heads contain binding sites for actin

A

Myosin

257
Q

Makes up thin myofilaments; made of G-actin (polypeptide subunits); contain active sites for myosin heads; G-actin strung together; 2 twisting strands made up thin myofilaments

A

Actin

258
Q

In actin; rod-shaped protein that runs along actin; blocks myosin binding sites on actin when muscle is relaxed

A

Tropomyosin

259
Q

In actin; 3 polypeptide subunit complex (one bound to actin, tropomyosin, calcium)

A

Troponin

260
Q

There are about ______ skeletal muscles in the human body. At age 30, muscles start being replaced by _____.

A

600; fat

261
Q

Muscle that has primary responsibility for causing a specific movement; ex. Biceps brachii (forearm flexion) a d triceps brachii (forearm extension)

A

Prime movers (agonists)

262
Q

Opposes, reverses, or steadies a movement; located on opposite side of the joint as prime mover; ex. Triceps brachii (forearm extension)

A

Antagonists

263
Q

Assist prime movers by adding extra force to same movement or preventing unwanted movements; ex. Wrist extensors prevent wrist bending when finger flexors contract

A

Synergists

264
Q

Synergists that immobilize bone or muscle’s origin; ex muscles that maintain upright posture

A

Fixators

265
Q

Region that muscle is associated with; ex. Intercostals between ribs

A

Location (bone/body)

266
Q

Naming skeletal muscles: ex. Deltoid (triangle), trapezius (trapezoid)

A

Shape

267
Q

Naming skeletal muscles: ex. Maximus (large-gluteus Maximus), minimus (small-gluteus minimus)

A

Size

268
Q

Naming skeletal muscles: ex. Transversus (fibers run at right angle-transversus abdominus), rectus (straight-rectus femoris)

A

Direction

269
Q

Naming skeletal muscles: ex. Biceps (2 origins-biceps brachii), triceps (3 origins-triceps brachii)

A

Number of origins

270
Q

Naming skeletal muscles: ex. Sternocleidomastoid (origin-sternum and clavicle; insertion-mastoid process of temporal bone)

A

Location of attachments (origin named first)

271
Q

Naming skeletal muscles: Movement muscle produces; ex. Adductor-adduction (adductor longus)

A

Action

272
Q

Fasicles arranged in concentric rings; ex. Orbicularis oris

A

Circular

273
Q

Fasicles converge toward a single tendon; ex. Pectoralis major

A

Convergent

274
Q

Long axes of fasicles run parallel to long axis of muscle; ex. sartorius

A

Parallel

275
Q

Spindle shaped fasicles; ex. Biceps brachii

A

Fusiform

276
Q

Fasicles attach to central tendon at angle

A

Pennate

277
Q

All fasicles attach to one side of a tendon (ex. Extensor digitorum longus)

A

Unipennate

278
Q

Fasicles attach to opposite ends of a tendon (ex. Rectus femoris)

A

Bipennate

279
Q

All fasicles connect at different points (e. deltoid)

A

Multipennate

280
Q

Rigid bar (bones) that moves about a fixed point

A

Lever

281
Q

Fixed points (joints)

A

Fulcrum

282
Q

Force applied by a muscle on the insertion point

A

Effort

283
Q

Resistance (bone itself + associated tissue)

A

Load

284
Q

Power levers; load is closer to fulcrum than effort applied, small effort can move large load; doesn’t take as much effort to move large loads; effort x length of effort arm = load x length of load arm

A

Mechanical advantage

285
Q

Strong lever systems; slow; stable

A

Power levers

286
Q

Speed levers; load is farther from fulcrum than effort applied, effort must be greater than load to move it; effort to move a load is dependent on where the insertion is relative to the joint

A

Mechanical disadvantage

287
Q

Effort applied at one end of lever; load at other end of lever; fulcrum in between effort and load; ex. Scissors, axis and atlas; operate at mechanical advantage or disadvantage

A

First class levers

288
Q

Effort applied at one end of the lever; fulcrum at other end of lever; load in between effort and fulcrum; ex. Advantage-wheelbarrow, tiptoes; always at mechanical advantage

A

Second class levers

289
Q

Load at one end of lever; fulcrum at other end of lever; effort in between load and fulcrum; ex. Tweezers and biceps curls; always at mechanical disadvantage

A

Third class levers

290
Q

Raises eyebrows

A

Epicranius

291
Q

Elevates/retracts mandible

A

Temporalis

292
Q

Closes eyes

A

Orbicularis oculi

293
Q

Closes lips

A

Orbicularis oris

294
Q

Elevates mandible

A

Masseter

295
Q

Protrude lower lip (pout)

A

Mentalis

296
Q

Compress cheek (whistle, suck)

A

Buccinator

297
Q

Move corners of lip laterally

A

Risorius

298
Q

Tenses skin of neck (anterior)

A

Platysma

299
Q

Flexes/laterally rotates head (anterior)

A

Sternocleidomastoid

300
Q

Elevates/depresses/retracts/rotates/stabilizes scapula (posterior)

A

Trapezius

301
Q

Extends/hyperextends head, antagonist to sternocleidomastoid

A

Splenius

302
Q

Prime mover arm flexion, abduct arm, medically rotate arm

A

Pectoralis major

303
Q

Depress/protract scapula

A

Pectoralis minor

304
Q

Prime mover scapula protraction, rotates scapula

A

Serratus

305
Q

Depress rib cage (expiration)

A

Internal intercostals

306
Q

Elevate rib cage (inspiration)

A

External intercostals

307
Q

Prime mover inspiration

A

Diaphragm

308
Q

Flex, rotate lumbar region

A

Rectus abdominis

309
Q

Compress abdomen

A

Transversus abdominis

310
Q

Compress abdomen, flex vertebral column, rotate trunk, lateral flexion of trunk

A

External obliques

311
Q

Elevate/depress/rotate scapula

A

Trapezius

312
Q

Prime mover arm extension, arm adduction, medial rotation of arm

A

Latissimus dorsi

313
Q

Prime mover back extension

A

Iliocostalis/longissimus/spinalis

314
Q

Elevates/adducts scapula

A

Levator scapulae

315
Q

Initiates abduction of arm

A

Supraspinatus

316
Q

Rotates humerus laterally

A

Teres major

317
Q

Adducts humerus, medically rotates humerus

A

Teres major

318
Q

Stabilizes scapula

A

Rhomboid major

319
Q

What 3 muscles are in the pectoral girdle?

A
  1. Levator scapulae
  2. Trapezius
  3. Serratus
320
Q

Elevate scapula

A

Trapezius with elevator scapulae

321
Q

Depress scapula

A

Trapezius with pectoralis minor

322
Q

Retract scapula

A

Trapezius with rhomboids

323
Q

The only function of the pectoral girdle that trapezius muscles do not participate in

A

Protraction

324
Q

Protract scapula

A

Serratus with pectoralis minor

325
Q

Weak arm abductor

A

Supraspinatus

326
Q

Laterally rotate arm

A

Infraspinatus

327
Q

Medially rotate arm

A

Subscapularis

328
Q

Prime mover of arm flexion, medically rotate arm, arm adduction

A

Pectoralis major

329
Q

Prime mover of arm abduction

A

Deltoid

330
Q

Forearm flexion

A

Biceps brachii

331
Q

Forearm extension

A

Triceps brachii

332
Q

Synergistic to triceps in extension

A

Anconeus

333
Q

Forearm pronation

A

Pronator teres

334
Q

Prime mover forearm pronation

A

Pronator quadratus

335
Q

Forearm supination

A

Supinator

336
Q

Prime mover of thigh flexion

A

Iliopsoas

337
Q

Thigh extension

A

Gluteus Maximus

338
Q

Abduct, medically rotate thigh

A

Gluteus medius/minimus

339
Q

What are the 3 compartments of the leg?

A
  1. Posterior
  2. Medial
  3. Anterior
340
Q

Adduct, medially rotate, flex thigh

A

Adductor Magnus

341
Q

Adduct thigh, medially rotate, flex leg (crosses 2 joints - hip and knee)

A

Gracilis

342
Q

Thigh extension, knee flexion

A

Semimembranosus

343
Q

Abducts thigh

A

Tensor fascial latae

344
Q

Knee extension, flex thigh

A

Rectus femoris

345
Q

Knee extension

A

Vastus lateralis

346
Q

Flexes, abducts, laterally rotates thigh

A

Sartorius

347
Q

The sternocleidomastoid is antagonistic to __________.

A

Splenius

348
Q

The infraspinatus/teres minor is antagonistic to _____.

A

Subscapularis

349
Q

Biceps brachii/brachialis is antagonistic to __________.

A

Triceps brachii

350
Q

The tensor fasciae latae is antagonistic to _____.

A

Adductor longus, adductor Magnus, adductor brevis, pectineus

351
Q

The hamstrings are antagonistic to __________.

A

Quadriceps

352
Q

Chronic rotation/tilting of head to one side

A

Torticollis (wryneck)

353
Q

Group of muscle destroying diseases

A

Muscular dystrophy

354
Q

Most common and serious form of muscular dystrophy; six-linked trait; symptoms develop in early childhood (skeletal muscles weaken, lose muscle mass; progresses from extremities to head, chest, cardiac muscles

A

Duchenne muscular dystrophy

355
Q

Variants of testosterone; increases muscle mass; other effects include acne, hair loss, small testes, infertility, liver damage, roid rage; females: smaller breasts, excess body hair, thinning scalp hair

A

Anabolic steroids

356
Q

Site of hematopoiesis (blood cell formation); in newborns found in medullary cavity of diaphysis, in all areas of spongy bone; in adults found mainly in epiphysis of humerus and femur, in diploe and in some irregular bones (hip bones)

A

Red bone marrow

357
Q

Stores fat; in adults found in medullary cavity of diaphysis

A

Yellow bone marrow

358
Q

What is different about spongy bone than compact bone?

A

Irregularly arranged lamella; lacks central/volkmann’s canal and osteons

359
Q

Inteamembranous ossification mainly forms _____ bones.

A

Flat

360
Q

What kind of ossification forms most of the bones?

A

Endochondrial ossification

361
Q

Postnatal bone growth continues into ________.

A

Adolescence

362
Q

How many bones are in the skull?

A

22 (8 cranial, 14 facial)

363
Q

Hole where brain meets spinal cords

A

Foramen magnum

364
Q

Articulate with first cervical vertebra

A

Occipital condyles

365
Q

Where parietal bones meet

A

Sagittal suture

366
Q

Where parietal bones meet occipital bone

A

Lambdoid suture

367
Q

Where parietal bones meet frontal bone

A

Coronal suture

368
Q

Where parietal meets temporal

A

Squamous suture

369
Q

Where pituitary gland sits

A

Sella turcica

370
Q

The maxilla and palatine bones form the _________

A

Hard palate

371
Q

Holes for passage of blood vessels and nerves in sacrum

A

Sacral foraminifera

372
Q

Curvature of thoracic and sacral vertebrae

A

Convex posteriorly

373
Q

Curvature of cervical and lumbar vertebrae

A

Concave posteriorly

A & P 1 (6 decks)

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