Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Intro to Microbiology > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Bacterial capsules are associated with what property?

A

virulence

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What phase of the bacterial growth curve is best for biochemical testing?

A

log phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What type of environment is provided by the candle jar?

A

microaerophilic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the purpose of Albert’s stain?

A

simple stain to stain the metachromatic granules of Corynebacterium diptheriae; used to identify the cause of diphtheria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is an example of differential media?

A

MacConkey

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is an example of enriched media?

A

chocolate agar, blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What is an example of selective media?

A

MacConkey, Thayer Martin, and CNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the standard conditions for the autoclave?

A

121ºC at 15 psi for 15 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is the most abundant organism found in the human intestinal tract?

A

Bacteroides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is the most important single test that differentiates Staphylococcus aureus from non-pathogenic staphylococci?

A

coag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

α Streptococcus viridans are the most important cause of what serious illness?

A

subacute bacterial endocarditis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What is the ONLY significant pathogen in a throat culture?

A

Group A β Strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Enterococcus belongs to what Lancefield group?

A

Group D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Enterococcus results on BEA and 6.5% NaCl

A

+ +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Foul smelling pus from an abscess which yields gram positive cocci in chains on gram stain would be indicative of what organism?

A

Anaerobic strep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

How do you identify Neisseria gonorrhaeae?

A

Oxidase + Gram = diplococci growing on Thayer Martin agar, only dextrose +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What are the identifying characteristics of Neisseria meningitidis?

A

Gram = coffe bean shaped diplococci, dextrose +, maltose +, oxidase +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What three antibiotics are added to Thayer-Martin to make it a selective medium for pathogenic Neisseria?

A

Vancomycin, colistin, nystatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What are the general characteristics of the family Enterobacteriaceae?

A

all glucose fermenters, oxidase =, nitrate +, peritrichous if motile +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the appearance of a positive test for citrate?

A

growth and/or blue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the appearance of a positive test for indole?

A

red layer with addition of Kovac’s reagent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the appearance of a positive test for H2S?

A

black growth on medium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is the appearance of a positive test for phenylalanine?

A

green to blue color with addition of ferric chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What is the appearance of a positive test for VP?

A

red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What are the reagents used for the indole test?

A

Kovac’s reagent

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What are the reagents used for the nitrate test?

A

sulfanilic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What are the reagents used for the phenylalanine test?

A

ferric chloride

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What are the reagents used for the VP test?

A

alpha napthal/potassium hydroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What are the characteristics of E. coli?

A

Gram =, TSI A/A, Indole +, Citrate =, Lysine +, Ornithine +, Urea =, Motile +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the best means to differentiate the genus Enterobacter from the genus Klebsiella?

A

motility, Klebsiella is nonmotile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Which genera are urea positive?

A

Klebsiella, Proteus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

LDC differentiates what organism from non-pathogenic H2S producers such as Citrobacter and Proteus?

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the causative agent of hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome due to is production of Verotoxin?

A

E. coli 0157

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What is Verotoxin also known as?

A

Shiga-like toxin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What are the characteristics of Serratia marcesens?

A

chromogenic, resistant to antibiotics, associated with UTI, hospital-acquired infections, and wound infections in people who s pend a lot of time outdoors in the woods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

What test differentiates Proteus mirabilis from Proteus vulgaris?

A

Indole, mirabilis is indole =

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which genera are phenylalanine positive?

A

Proteus, Providencia, and Morganella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Which organisms causes an infection of the mesentery suggestive of acute appendicitis?

A

Yersinia pseudotuberculosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

K/A with gas and H2S in TSI is suggestive of what intestinal pathogen?

A

Salmonella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What non-pathogenic organism is biochemically so similar to Shigella that isolates that are biochemically identified as Shigella must be typed?

A

Alkalescens dispar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

What is the difference between a food poisoning and a food infection?

A

Food poisoning is rapid from an enterotoxin; food infection is from ingesting large amounts of viable organisms and takes 18-24 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What organism could be described as an oxidase positive, glucose-fermenting rod commonly found in water and soil?

A

Aeromonas hydrophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

A Gram negative coccobacillus isolated from a cat bite is most likely to be?

A

Pasteurella multocida

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

A salt-loving organism responsible for gastroenteritis due to contaminated sea food is most likely to be?

A

Vibrio parahemolyticus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What media is used to differentiate between oxidation and fermentation?

A

Hugh and Leifson green semisolid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A Gram negative coccobacillus isolated from a patient with endocarditis that is oxidase +, catalase -, indole +, non-motile and weakly fermentative would most likely be?

A

Cardiobacterium hominus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the three most commonly isolated non-fermentative bacteria?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Acinetobacter, Stenotrophomonas maltophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A non-fermenter with a blue-green pigment and a grape-like odor is what?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A non-fermentor that is a strong maltose oxidizer and a weak glucose oxidizer is?

A

Stenotrophomonas (Xanthomonas) maltophilia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What is the causative agent of glanders?

A

Burholederia mallei (Pseudomonas)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

A Gram negative, oxidase negative coccobacillus is?

A

Acinetobacter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What genus of bacteria can be confused with Neisseria because they are oxidase + and sometimes grow on Thayer-Martin and can be differentiated by gram stain since those organisms are Gram negative rods rather than cocci?

A

Morexella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

A yellow pigmented, oxidase +, Gram negative rod which can cause meningitis (especially in infants) would be?

A

Flavobacterium meningisepticum

54
Q

When is it the best time to try to isolate Brucella from the bloodstream?

A

Within the first three weeks after infection

55
Q

Listeria and Corynebacterium are best differentiated by what test?

56
Q

What organism is described as a Gram +, aerobic partially acid-fast rod which usually appears on gram stain as delicate, branching rods?

A

Nocardia sp.

57
Q

Why are routine sterile swabs (clutters) NOT acceptable for anaerobic cultures?

A

because they are not kept from oxygen

58
Q

The causative agent of pseudomembranous colitis (PMC) associated with over-treatment with antibiotics is?

A

Clostridium dificile

59
Q

What anaerobic organism usually produces a black colony on lake blood agar?

A

Prevotella melaninogenica

60
Q

Gram negative pleomorphic rods which are non-spore forming, strict anaerobes could be?

A

Fusobacterium

61
Q

Normal inhabitants of the mouth and isolated from infections of the nasopharynx and sinuses are?

A

Fusobacterium

62
Q

A Gram positive, branching rod isolated from “sulfur granules” obtained from a patient’s jaw is?

A

Actinomyces

63
Q

Lactobacillus is most frequently isolated from?

A

urine from adult females

64
Q

What anaerobic organism is a normal inhabitant of the skin most frequently isolated from 5-7 day old blood cultures where it is a contaminant?

A

Propionibacterium acnes

65
Q

Acid-fast bacilli are usually catalase?

A

catalase positve

66
Q

What substance is the most commonly used agent for concentrating sputum for AFB culture because it decontaminates the sputum, is a mucolytic agent, and it does not damage the AFB?

A

N-acetyl-L-cysteine (NALC)

67
Q

Characteristics of nonphotochromogens Runyon groups

A

unpigmented except for slight yellow color which is not intensified by light

68
Q

Characteristics of photochromogens Runyon groups

A

unpigmented in the dark, but pigmented in the light

69
Q

Characteristics of rapid growers Runyon groups

A

colonies appear in 3-5 days

70
Q

Characteristics of scotochromogens Runyon groups

A

pigmented even in the dark

71
Q

An acid-fast bacillus (AFB) producing a buff colored, dry heaped up colony that is niacin and nitrate positive is most likely to be?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

72
Q

Which species of organism causes a form of rat bite fever known as Haverhill fever and characteristically produces L-forms?

A

Streptobacillus moniliformis

73
Q

In a sputum culture which reveals large numbers of WBCs on gram stain but NO organisms, what would be suspected?

A

Legionella pneumophilia

74
Q

What respiratory pathogen is associated with primary atypical pneumonia, increased cold agglutinin titer, and Streptococcus MG?

A

Mycoplasma pneumoniae

75
Q

What is the other name of the atypical pneumonia that Mycoplasma pneumoniae causes?

A

Eaton’s agent pneumonia

76
Q

The results of Kirby-Bauer susceptibility tests are reported as?

A

Sensitivity (susceptible), intermediate, or resistant

77
Q

What is the smallest concentration of a drug that completely inhibits growth?

A

minimum inhibitory concentration

78
Q

For which diseases are blood cultures the best means of identification?

A

sepsis, subacute bacterial endocarditis, typhoid fever

79
Q

What is often added to blood culture media because it acts as an anticoagulant, inactivates the ahminoglycosides, and will neutralize the bactericidal effect of human serum?

A

Sodium polyanethol sulfonate

80
Q

Which serological type of Hemophilus influenza is the most pathogenic?

A

Hemophilus influenzae Type B

81
Q

What organism is enhanced by cold temperatures?

82
Q

The toxicity test for Corynebacterium diptheriae is called?

83
Q

What is the test used to identify the alpha toxin of Clostridium?

A

Nagler test

84
Q

What agar is used in Kirby-Bauer sensitivity testing?

A

Mueller Hinton agar

85
Q

Name one medium that can be used for the isolation of AFB

A

L-J or Middlebrook

86
Q

Name one medium that can be used for the isolation of anaerobes

A

KV or anaerobic sheep blood

87
Q

Name one medium that can be used for the isolation of Legionella

A

CYE (charcoal yeast extract)

88
Q

What is a Castaneda bottle?

A

Blood culture bottle with a slant for isolation of Brucella

89
Q

The bacterial infection that is characterized by Donovan bodies is caused by what organisms?

A

Calymmatobacterium granulomatis

90
Q

What is an important pathogen of Runyon group 1?

A

Mycobacterium marinum and Kansasii

91
Q

What is an important pathogen of Runyon group 2?

92
Q

What is an important pathogen of Runyon group 3?

A

Mycobacterium tuberculosis

93
Q

What is an important pathogen of Runyon group 4?

94
Q

What is the mode of action of penicillin?

A

interferes with the cell wall synthesis, affects mainly Gram + organisms, and may produce allergies

95
Q

What is the mode of action of sulfonamides?

A

compete with folic acid, are broad spectrum, and can be toxic to the kidney

96
Q

CAMP+, Gram+, Beta hemolytic

A

Group B Beta Strep

97
Q

Gram+, lancet shaped, alpha hemolytic, optichin sensitive

A

Streptococcus pneumoniae

98
Q

Slightly curved rod, Gram=, Oxidase+, naladixic acid sensitive

A

Campylobacter fetus s.s.jejni

99
Q

Gram= rod, oxidase+, pyocyanin pigment, grows at 42F

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

100
Q

Pleomorphic rods, requires hemotin (X) and NAD (V)

A

Hemophilus influenzae

101
Q

Bismuth-sulfite agar used to isolate

A

Salmonella typhi

102
Q

potato-blood-glycerol agar used to isolate

A

Bordetella pertussis

103
Q

Potassium (K) tellurite agar used to isolate

A

Clostridium diphtheria

104
Q

cystine-blood-glucose agar used to isolate

A

Franciscella

105
Q

thiosulfate-citrate-bile salt-sucrose (TCBS) agar used to isolate

106
Q

Causative agent of pink eye

A

Hemophilus aegypticus

107
Q

Causative agent of whooping cough

A

Bordetella pertussis

108
Q

Causative agent of undulant fever

109
Q

Causative agent of meningitis

A

Hemophilus influenzae

110
Q

Causative agent of chancroid

A

Hemophilus ducreyi

111
Q

Causative agent of Woolsorter’s disease?

A

Bacillus anthracis

112
Q

Causative agent of lock jaw?

A

Clostridium tetani

113
Q

Causative agent of gangrene?

A

Clostridium perfringens

114
Q

Causative agent of pseudomembrane?

A

Corynebacterium diptheriae

115
Q

Causative agent of still birth?

116
Q

Causative agent of relapsing fever

A

Borrelia recurrentis

117
Q

Causative agent of hemorrhagic jaundice

A

Leptospira

118
Q

Causative agent of pinta

A

Treponema carateum

119
Q

Causative agent of syphilis

A

Treponema palladum

120
Q

Causative agent of yaws

A

Treponema partenue

121
Q

Common name for Klebsiella pneumoniae

A

Friedlander’s bacillus

122
Q

Common name for Hemophilus aegypticus

A

Koch’s week’s bacillus

123
Q

Common name for Hemophilus influenzae

A

Pheiffer’s bacillus

124
Q

Common name for Mycobacterium leprae

A

Hanson’s bacillus

125
Q

Causative agent of food poisoning

A

Staphylococcus aureus

126
Q

Causative agent of lobar pneumonia

A

Streptococus pneumoniae

127
Q

Causative agent of neonatal meningitis

A

Group B Beta Strep

128
Q

Causative agent of rheumatic or scarlet fever

A

Group A Beta Strep

129
Q

Causative agent of UTIs and wound infections

130
Q

Common name for Corynebacterium diptheriae

A

Klebs-Loeffler bacillus

Intro to Microbiology (4 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions