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Clinical Lecture > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the transmissible diseases of concern for DHCP?

A

Candidiasis
Pneumococcal pneumonia
Tuberculosis

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2
Q

What are some standard precautions?

A

-PPE
-Control plan
-Prevent cross-contamination
-Updated protocols

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3
Q

What conditions are important to clinicians?

A

HBV
HCV
HIV

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4
Q

What conditions don’t have vaccines?

A

HCV
HIV

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5
Q

What is the influenza vaccine used for?

A

Flu

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6
Q

What can untreated strep throat turn into?

A

Cardiac condition

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7
Q

How can TB be transmitted?

A

Coughing
Droplets

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8
Q

What organ does hepatitis affect?

A

Liver

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9
Q

What conditions are traditionally not transmitted to others?

A

HAV
HEV

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10
Q

What can HPV cause?

A

Oropharyngeal cancers

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11
Q

What is the primary infection of herpes simplex 1?

A

Herpetic gingivostomatitis

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12
Q

What is the primary infection of herpes simplex 2?

A

Genital herpes

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13
Q

What is the primary infection of HHV-3 Varicella-zoster?

A

Varicella - chicken pox

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14
Q

What is the primary infection of HHV-4 Epstein-Barr?

A

Infectious mononucleosis

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15
Q

What is the primary infection of HHV-5 Human cytomegalovirus?

A

Mononucleosis, fever, hepatitis

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16
Q

What is the primary infection of HHV-6A Herpes lymphotropic?

A

Asymptomatic infection after HHV-6B

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17
Q

What is the primary infection of HHV-6B Herpes lymphotropic?

A

Roseola infantum

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18
Q

What is the primary infection of HHV-8 Kaposi’s sarcoma-related virus?

A

Asympotomatic in immunocompetent lymphadenopathy

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19
Q

What are the immunizations for clinician’s?

A

o Hepatitis B
o MMR (measles, mumps, rubella)
o Varicella-zoster
o Influenza
o Tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis
o Meningococcal

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20
Q

What masks should clinican’s wear?

A

Level 3

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21
Q

When are antiseptic hand rubs not appropriate to use in the clinical setting?

A

When hands are visibly soiled

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22
Q

What are symptoms of type 1 hypersensitivity?

A

Rash, shortness of breath, swelling of lips & throat

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23
Q

How is sterilization tested?

A

Biological monitoring - Spore testing

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24
Q

What are the indications for spore testing?

A

o Once per week
o Training new personnel
o New packaging
o Initial use of new sterilizer
o After repair
o Improper loading

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25
Q

What cannot be tested for sterilization?

A

Chemical liquid sterilization

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26
Q

What are the properties of a disinfectant?

A

-Broad spectrum
-Fast acting
-Unaffected by physical factors
-Nontoxic
-Surface compatibility
-Residual effect on treated surfaces
-Easy to use
-Odorless
-Economical

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27
Q

What does a patient on blood thinners INR have to be in order to be treated?

A

Less than 3

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28
Q

What type of conditions do patients take blood thinners for?

A

Stroke
Heart attack
History of blood clots

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29
Q

What patients need to take premedication before treatment?

A

Cardiac condition patients

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30
Q

What do they want to add to vital signs?

A

Smoking

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31
Q

What is the first process of biofilm development?

A

Acquired pellicle

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32
Q

What can unremoved biofilm turn into?

A

Gingivitis

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33
Q

What source of minerals do we get from saliva?

A

Calcium

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34
Q

What can the color of calculus come from?

A

Blood pigments

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35
Q

What bacteria’s are associated with acquired pellicle formation?

A

-Streptococcus mutans
-Streptococcus sanguinis
-Actinomyces viscosis

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36
Q

What step is this in dental biofilm?
-Pellicle formation

A

Step 1

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37
Q

What step is this in dental biofilm?
-Initial adhesion

A

Step 2

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38
Q

What step is this in dental biofilm?
-Maturation

A

Step 3

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39
Q

What step is this in dental biofilm?
-Detachment & dispersion

A

Step 4

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40
Q

Primarily gram-positive aerobic bacteria

A

Supragingival biofilm

41
Q

Primarily gram-negative anaerobic and motile organisms

A

Subgingival biofilm

42
Q

A shift of healthy species to periodontitis-associated species

A

Dysbiosis

43
Q

Stain within body of tooth
-Always intrinsic

A

Endogenous

44
Q

Stain originating outside of tooth

A

Exogenous

45
Q

What stain is from chromogenic bacteria?

A

Green stain

46
Q

Why don’t we scale green stain?

A

Enamel may be demineralized

47
Q

What is the first sign of a carious lesion?

A

White spot lesion

48
Q

What helps with white spot lesions?

A

Fluoride

49
Q

What causes caries?

A

pH
Xerostomia
Exposure

50
Q

Exaggerated response to stimulation

A

Pulpitis

51
Q

What fluoride is used off label?

A

Fluoride Varnish

52
Q

What has the highest fluoride concentration that can be used in a dental office?

A

Fluoride varnish

53
Q

What fluoride can stain if in contact with tissue?

A

Silver diamine

54
Q

Contains 9,050 ppm fluoride ion
Recommended for esthetic restorations
Neutral Ph 7.0
4-minute application
Foam or gel
Limited evidence of foam

A

Neutral sodium fluoride
2.0% NaF

55
Q

-Ortho-phosphoric acid 3.5 pH
-12,300 ppm fluoride ion
-Thixotropic agent
-May etch porcelain and composite restorations and sealants
-4-minute tray application is recommended

A

Acidulated phosphate fluoride
1.23 APF

56
Q

-High concentration of Fluoride 22,600 ppm
-Lesser amount of Fl used is required
-Remains on the teeth for several hours releasing Fl to pits and fissures and proximal surfaces.
-Reduces demineralization of white spot lesions

A

5% fluoride varnish

57
Q

What are contraindications of 38% silver diamine fluoride?

A

-Allergy to silver
-Pregnant/breastfeeding
-Painful sores/raw gingiva
-Pulpal involvement

58
Q

What is the lethal dose of sodium fluoride for adults?

A

5-10g

59
Q

What is the safe dose of sodium fluoride for adults?

A

1.25-2.5g

60
Q
  • Removes biofilm from adjacent to and directly beneath the gingival margin
    -Cervical/proximal areas, open embrasures
    -Exposed root surfaces
    -Abutment teeth of fixed partial denture & orthodontic appliances
A

The bass method

61
Q

-Designed for cleaning the sulcus, cervical areas and massaging the gingiva
-Press to flex and angle filaments at a 45 degree angle to the long axis of the tooth

A

The stillman method

62
Q

-Removes biofilm etc. from teeth without emphasis on the gingival margin
-Direct filaments apically
-Place side of the brush on attached gingiva
-Recommended for children

A

Rolling stroke method

63
Q

-Removes biofilm from proximal surfaces
-Massage marginal & interdental gingiva
-Adapts to cervical areas below the height of contour
-To clean under the margins of a fixed partial denture
-Direct filaments at a 45-degree angle toward the occlusal/ incisal plane

A

Charter method

64
Q

-Toothbrush placed at a 90 -degree angle to the long axis of the teeth
-Circular motion in each area

A

Fones/Circular method

65
Q

-Place toothbrush at 90° to the long axis of the teeth, buccal and lingual, and press bristles gently against the teeth
-The teeth are edge to edge
-May work well with small children

A

Leonard’s/Vertical method

66
Q

What embrasure type is no gingival recession? What is used?

A

Type 1
Dental floss

67
Q

What type of embrasure space has moderate papillary recession? What is used?

A

Type II
Interdental brush

68
Q

What type of embrasure space has complete loss of papillae or extensive recession? What is used?

A

Type III
Unitufted brush

69
Q

What is used on a healthy sulcus, good dexterity, ability to slide through contacts?

A

Floss

70
Q

What is used for a healthy sulcus, dexterity problems, ability to slide through contacts?

A

Floss holder

71
Q

What is used on gingivitis, implants, orthodontics, deeper pockets?

A

Water flosser/irrigation

72
Q

What is used on embrasure spaces II & III, perio patient, exposed root surfaces?

A

Interdental brush
Wood sticks

73
Q

-Proximal surfaces of widely spaced teeth
-Tooth surfaces next to an edentulous area

A

Gauze strips

74
Q

-Single tuft or group of small tufts
-Open interproximal areas
-Fixed prostheses, orthodontics, implant abutments
-Difficult to reach areas

A

Single tuft brush

75
Q

1996 - Infection control recommendations through
its Councils on Scientific Affairs and Dental
Practice

A

ADA - American dental association

76
Q

Infection Control recommendations concur with CDC & ADS

A

ADHA - American dental hygienists’ association

77
Q

Regulates the disposal of medical waste

Effectiveness and safety of disinfectants

A

EPA - Environmental protection agency

78
Q

-United States Department of Labor
-1992 Bloodborne Pathogens Standard
-The Needlestick Safety and Prevention Act 2001

A

OSHA - Occupational safety and health administration

79
Q

inactivates spores and all forms of bacteria, fungi, and viruses

A

High level disinfectants

80
Q

all forms of microorganisms but not spores

A

Intermediate level disinfectants

81
Q

inactivates vegetative bacteria, and certain lipid-type viruses but does not destroy spores, tubercle bacilli, or non-lipid viruses

A

Low level disinfectants

82
Q

What cardiac conditions require antibiotic prophylaxis before invasive dental treatment?

A

-Prosthetic heart valve
-History of infective endocarditis
-Congenital heart disease
-Heart transplant with heart valves

83
Q

A bacterial infection that enters the bloodstream and settles into the heart lining, heart valve, or a blood vessel

A

Infective endocarditis

84
Q

What are the ways of getting patient history?

A

Interview
Questionnaire

85
Q

What is the normal body temp range?

A

97-99 degrees F

86
Q

Greater than 104 degrees F

A

Hyperthermia

87
Q

Below 96 degrees F

A

Hypothermia

88
Q

What is the adult range for pulse?

A

60-100 bpm

89
Q

What is the adult range of respiration?

A

12-20 per minute

90
Q

What is the BP for hypotension?

A

<90
<60

91
Q

What is the normal BP?

A

<120
<80

92
Q

What is a elevated BP?

A

120-129
<80

93
Q

What is a stage 1 hypertension BP?

A

130-139
80-89

94
Q

What is a stage 2 hypertension BP?

A

Greater/equal to 140
Greater/equal to 90

95
Q

What is a hypertensive BP?

A

> 180
120

96
Q

What agent in mouthrinses reduces biofilm, bactericidal, and bacteriostatic?

A

Chlorhexidine 12%

97
Q

What are the adverse effects of chlorhexidine in mouthrinse?

A

-Stain
-Increase in calculus
-Alter taste production
-Desquamation

98
Q

What ruptures bacteria cell wall and decreases the ability of bacteria to attach to the pellicle

A

Quaternary Ammonium Compounds

99
Q

-A five carbon sugar alcohol
-Found naturally in trees, fruits, vegetables
-Approved by the FDA as a dietary food additive in 1963

A

Xylitol

Clinical Lecture (5 decks)

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