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final exam Flashcards

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1
Q

sepsis

A

decay, putrid
bacterial contamination

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2
Q

asepsis

A

absence of significant contamination

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3
Q

aseptic surgery

A

prevent microbial contamination of wounds

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4
Q

sterilization

A

destroying all microbial life

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5
Q

disinfection

A

destroys harmful microorganisms on surfaces and environments

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5
Q

commerical sterilization

A

kills clostridium botulism endospores in canned goods
(not completely sterilized to keep the flavor but also reduces endospores)

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6
Q

sanitization

A

lowering microbial counts on eating utensils

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6
Q

antisepsis

A

destoys harmful microorganisms from living tissue

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6
Q

degerming

A

mechanical removal from limited area (injection)

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7
Q

biocide (germicide)

A

treatments that kill microbes

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8
Q

bacteriostasis

A

stop, inhibit but not kill microbes

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9
Q

disinfectant must be

A

-fast acting in presense of organic materials (blood, feces, vomit)
-effective against all microorganisms without destroying tissue or acting as a toxin if ingested
-no discoloration or damage
-stable in environment
-inexpensive

No such thing as a perfect disinfectant

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10
Q

microbial exponential death rate

A

0 min: 1million survivors (x90%)
6 min 1 survivor

*each minute the treatment is applied, 90% of the pop (remaining) is killed

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11
Q

effectiveness of treatment depends on

A

of microbes
environment
time of exposure
microbial characteristics (endospore, cell wall)

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12
Q

when the rate of killing is the same it takes

A

longer to kill all members in a larger population than smaller

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13
Q

damage to plasma membrane

A

cellular content leakage
interfered cell growth

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14
Q

actions of microbial control agents

A

damage to protiens and nucleic acids

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15
Q

heat

A

inhibit protein growth so it denatures enzymes

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16
Q

thermal death point (TDP)

A

lowest temp at which cells are killed in 10 min

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17
Q

thermal death time (TDT)

A

minimal time for all bacteria to be killed at particular temp

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18
Q

decimal reduction time (DRT)

A

minutes to kill 90% of specific pop of bacteria at given temp

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19
Q

moist heat sterilization

A

moist heat coagulates/ denatures protiens
boiling
free-flowing steam

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20
Q

autoclave

A

steam under pressure
121 c at 15 psi for 15 min
kills alls organisms (except prions) and endospores

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21
Q

autoclave works by

A

steam rushes inside, air moves out until old air moves out so steam can build
-steam is passed through inlet

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22
Q

container sizes on autoclave sterilization times for liquid solutions

A

smaller containers take less time/ quicker

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23
Q

sterilization indicators

A

indicator lines wrapped in aluminum foil was not sterilized bc steam couldnt penetrate the foil

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24
Q

pasteurization

A

reduces spoilage organisms and pathogens
-M bovis cattle

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25
Q

High temperature short time (HTST)

A

72 c for 15 sec

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26
Q

Thermoduric organisms

A

survive but unlikely to cause disease or to spoil refrigerated milk

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27
Q

heat

A

ultra high temp treatments
will sterilize and can be stored without refrigeration ex. milk, creamer, juice
shelf life of many months
rapid heated to 140C for 4 sec followed by rapid cooling

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28
Q

dry heat sterilization

A

kills by oxidation
-flaming loop
-incineration: paper cups, bags, dressings
-hot air sterilization

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29
Q

filitration

A

used for heat sensitive stuff
-membrane filters remove microbes >22 mM
-small pore sizes filter out viruses and large protiens

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30
Q

low temperature has bacteriostatic effect (psychotropic)

A

refrigeration
deep freezing
lyophilization: freeze drying

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31
Q

high pressure

A

-denatures protiens
-alters carb structure

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32
Q

dessication

A

absense of water prevents metabolism

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33
Q

osmotic pressure uses high conc of salt and sugars to

A

create hypertonic environment, causes plasmolysis

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34
Q

ionizing radiation (x rays, gamma rays, electron beams)

A

-ionizes water to create reactive hydroxyl radicals
-damages DNA -> lethal mutations

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35
Q

gamma ray

A

penetrate deep but takes a long time to sterilize (hours)

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36
Q

high energy electron beams

A

less penetration, but fast (seconds)

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37
Q

non-ionizing radiation (UV, 260 nm)

A

damages DNA by creating thyme dimers
UVC “germicidal” lamps
must avoid contact with eyes or skin
effective but doesn’t penetrate

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38
Q

visible blue light (470 nm)

A

kills wide range of bacteria due to formation of single oxygen

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39
Q

microwaves

A

kill by heat, not antimicrobial

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40
Q

sonication

A

high frequency ultrasound waves to disrupt cell structures
*rapid changes in pressure

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41
Q

selective toxicity

A

selectively destroying pathogens without damaging host
-bacteria -> targets cell wall

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42
Q

chemotherapy

A

use of chemicals to treat a disease

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43
Q

antibiotic

A

substance produced by microbe that inhibits the other

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44
Q

antimicrobial drugs

A

synthetic substance that interferes with growth of microbes

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45
Q

history of chemotherapy

A

-fleming discovered penicillin produced by penicillium
-prontosil red dye (type of sulfanilamide) used for strep infections

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46
Q

narrow spectrum of microbial activity

A

drugs that affect a narrow range of microbial types

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47
Q

broad spectrum antibiotics

A

affect broad range of gram positive and negative bacteria

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48
Q

superinfection

A

overgrowth of normal microbiota that is resistant to antibiotics
-candida albicans
-c. dificile

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49
Q

development of superinfections

A

-normal microbiota keeps opportunistic pathogens in check
-broad spectrum antibiotics kill nonresistant cells
-drug resistant pathogens proliferate and can cause a superinfection

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50
Q

dosage

A

amount of meds given during a certain time interval
-children: based on mass
-adult: standard dosage not based of mass

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51
Q

half life of antibiotic

A

rate at which 50% of drug is eliminated from the plasma

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52
Q

intravenous administration of a drug

A

peaks very quickly

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53
Q

orally or intramuscularly administered drugs

A

take longer for concentration to reach its peak

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54
Q

bactericidal

A

kills microbes directly

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55
Q

bacteriostatic

A

prevent microbes from growing

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56
Q

major action modes of antibacterial drugs

A

inhibition of cell wall synthesis
inhibition of protien synthesis
inhibition of nucleic acid replication and transcription

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57
Q

penecillins

A

prevent the synthesis of peptidoglycan
-inhibit cell wall synthesis
-against growing cells from mold

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58
Q

inhibiting protien synthesis

A

target bacterial 70S ribosomes
-chloramphenicol: binds to 50S portion and inhibits formation of peptide bond
-streptomycin: changes shape of 30S, causing code on mRNA to be read incorrectly

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59
Q

polypeptide antibiotics

A

change membrane permeability

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60
Q

antifungal drugs

A

combine w membrane sterols

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61
Q

ionophores

A

antibiotics that allow uncontrolled movt of cations
-cattle feeds (digestive and growth)

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62
Q

polymyxin

A

changes permeability

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63
Q

inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis

A

blocks topoisomerase (interferes with dna replication)
block RNA polymerase (interferes with transcription)

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64
Q

inhibiting the synthesis of essential metabolites

A

antimetabolites compete with normal substrates
-Sulfanilamide: competes with Para-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) stopping the synthesis of folic acid

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65
Q

PABA

A

substrate formation of folic acid
-similar structure as sulfanilamide

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66
Q

penecillin binding protiens

A

enzymes that produce peptide cross links in peptidoglycan

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67
Q

penicillin

A

natural
inhibits PBP (narrow spectrum)
no cross links
weak
burst
lysis
contain B lactam ring
chemical side chains are attached to the ring

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68
Q

G- outermembrane consists of

A

porins

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69
Q

cycloserine

A

inhibits part of peptide side chain on NAM

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70
Q

bacitracin

A

binds to bactoprenol lipid carrier
-transport of dissacharide units of peptidoglycan across cell membrane to the growing chain inhibited

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71
Q

penecillin, vancomycin, cephalosporins inhibit

A

activity of enzymes that cross-link the peptide side chains

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72
Q

natural penicillins

A

from penicillium fungi cultures
-pencillin G (injected) and penicillin V (oral)
-narrow spectrum of activity
-susceptible to penicillinases (B- lactamases)

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73
Q

cephalosporins

A

similar to penecillins
b lactam ring differs from penicillin

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74
Q

4th generation of cephaloporins

A

pseudonomas
good gram positive

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75
Q

5th generation of cephaloporins

A

MRSA+
staph aureus
good: gram positive/ negative

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76
Q

bacitracin

A

b. subtilis and b. lichenform
topical application works against gram positive

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77
Q

vancomycin

A

streptomyces
resistant to vancomycin
vancomycin resistant enterococcus: nosomial oppurtunistic pathogen

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78
Q

teixobactin

A

kills some gram positive bacteria (M. tuberclosis, S. aureus, VRE)

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79
Q

isoniazid (INH)

A

anti-mycobacterial antibiotic
inhibits mycolic acid synthesus in mycrobacteria

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80
Q

ethambutol

A

secondary drug to avoid resistance
-only acts against mycrobacterium

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81
Q

nitrofurantoin

A

-attack bacterial ribosomal protiens
-treatment for UTIs

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82
Q

chloramphenicol

A

inhibits peptide bond formation
-binds to 50S subunit

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83
Q

how does chloramphenicol inhibit protien synthesis

A

suppresses bone marrow and affects blood cell formation (aplastic anemia)

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84
Q

aminoglycosides

A

-changes shape of 30S
-auditory and kidney damage
-streptomycin: tuberculosis

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85
Q

tetracylines

A

produced by streptomyces
interfere with tRNA attachment to ribosome
broad spectrum
against ricketsias and chlymadias
suppress C. albicans

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86
Q

glycyclines (inhibitor of protien synthesis)

A

broad spectrum
bacteriostatic
30S ribosomal
inhibit rapid efflux
intravenous
useful against MRSA

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87
Q

multi drug resistant glycylcycline

A

acinetobacter baumannii

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88
Q

macrolide (inhibitors of protein synthesis)

A

lactone ring
narrow spectrum against gram positive: eryhthomycin
azithromycin

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89
Q

streptogramins

A

attach to 50S subunit
work against gram positives (penecillin, mold, PBP)
synercid: multiple targets/ sites on 50S subunit

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90
Q

NAG-NAM

A

cell wall - prevents cross link

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91
Q

porins are found

A

outer membrane

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92
Q

b lactimase

A

resistant

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93
Q

b lactam ring

A

cidal

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94
Q

oxazolidinone

A

bind to 50S/30S interface
synthetic: combat MRSA (linezolid)

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95
Q

pleuromutilin

A

mushroom
retapamulin: topical and effective against gram positives

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96
Q

lipopeptide (inhibits protien synthesis)

A

daptomycin: produced by streptomyces, used for skin infections
polymyxin B: against gram negative
polymyxin E (colistin): against gram negative

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97
Q

rifamycin (rifampin)

A

nucleic acid synthesis inhibitor
-penetrates tissues; antitubercular activity
-mycobacteria, tuberchlosis, leprocy

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98
Q

quinolone and fluoroquinolones

A

nalidixic acid: synthetic; inhibits DNA gyrase

norflaxin and ciproflaxin: broad spectrum; relatively nontoxic

gemifloxacin, moxifloxcin: newer versions

problem: ruptures tendons

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99
Q

sulfonamides

A

inhibit synthesis of folic acid needed for nucleic acid and protien synthesis
-structurally similar to PABA (folic acid precursor)

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100
Q

PABA

A

sulfa drug
structurally similar

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101
Q

antifungal drugs

A

fungal steroids
-interrupt synthesis of ergosterol, making membrane excessively permeable

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102
Q

polyenes

A

fungal sterols
interrupts ergosterol synthesis, making membrane excessively permeable
nystatin: most commonly used
-thrush, candida

amphtotericin B: systemic fungal infections; toxic to kidneys

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103
Q

azoles

A

imidazoles: topical; treat cutaneous mycoses

triazole: treat systemic fungal infections; toxic to the kidneys

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104
Q

allylamines

A

fungal; azole resistant infections

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105
Q

echinocandins

A

inhibit synthesis of B-glucan

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106
Q

flucytosine

A

inteferes with rna synthesis, inhibit nucleic acids

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107
Q

griseofulvin

A

produced by penicillium
inhibits microtubule formation: mitrosis -> fungal reproduction
active against superficial dermatophytes

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108
Q

what antifungal drug is used to treat tolnafate

A

tolnaftate

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109
Q

pentamidine

A

anti- pneumocystis
may bind to dna
immunocompromised

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110
Q

antiviral drugs

A

entry and fusion inhibitors
-block receptors on host cell that bind to virus
-block fusion of virus and cell
-uncoating, genome integration, nucleic acid synthesis inhibitors
-prevent viral uncoating
-inhibit viral dna integration into host genome

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111
Q

protease inhibitors

A

block cleavage of protien precursors
example: Paxlovid, used to treat covid19

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112
Q

exit inhibitors

A

inhibit neuraminidase: enzyme required for viruses to bud from the host cell

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113
Q

interferons

A

immune signaling molecule, defense
-viral infected cells to inhibit further spread of infection

Imiquimod: promotes interferon production

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114
Q

antiretrovirals

A

to treat HIV/AIDs
HIV: RNA virus

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115
Q

quinine and chloroquine (antiprotozoan)

A

treats malaria
bark of cinchona

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116
Q

artemisinin (antiprotozoan)

A

kills plasmodium that causes malaria

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117
Q

metronidazole, tinidazole, nitrazoxanide

A

interferes with anaerobic bacteria
-treats trichomonas, giardiasis, amebic dysentry

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118
Q

miltefosine

A

inhibits cytochrome oxidase in mitochondria
treats amebic encephalitis and leishmaniasis
vectoe: sandfly

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119
Q

niclosamide (antihelmic)

A

treats tapeworms
prevents ATP production

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120
Q

praziquantel (antihelmic)

A

alters membrane permeability
treats tapeworms and flukes

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121
Q

mebendazole and albendazole

A

interfere with nutrient absorption
treat intestinal helminths

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122
Q

ivermectin

A

treats roundworms and mites

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123
Q

disk diffusion method (kirby bauer test)

A

paper disks with chemotherapeutic agent placed on agar inoculated with test organism
-zone of inhibition around disk determines sensitivity of organism to the antibiotic

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124
Q

E test

A

minimal inhibitory concentration (MIC)
lowest antibiotic conc preventing bacterial growth

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125
Q

broth dilution tests

A

determine MIC and MIB (minimal bactericidal conc) of antimicrobial drug
-99% of cells of inoculation added are killed
-test organism is placed into wells of tray containing dilations of drug; growth is determined
-antibiograms: susceptibility of organisms

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126
Q

if cells grow it means that it is

A

not cidal

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127
Q

broth dilution tests measure

A

turbidity
-cells are viable, dead or not growing

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128
Q

MBC is determined by using

A

tube dilution test and removing antibiotic
-further plating to see if cells survived 3 to 5 times above the MIC

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129
Q

if cells grow in fresh medium without antibiotic

A

drug is bacteriostatic

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130
Q

if cells dont grow in fresh medium

A

drug is bacteriocidal

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131
Q

persister cells (resistance to antimicrobial drugs)

A

microbes with genetic characteristics allowing for their survival when exposed to an antibiotic

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132
Q

superbugs

A

resistant genes spread horizontally among bacteria on plasmids or transposons

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133
Q

bacterial pathogens

A

resistant to nearly all antibiotics; cause HIAs
-acinetobacter baumannii
-p. aeroginosa

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134
Q

mechanisms of resistance

A

-enzymatic destruction or inactivation of drug
-prevent penetration to the target site within microbe
-alters drugs target site
-rapid efflux (ejection) of antibiotic
-variations of mechanisms of resistance

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135
Q

beta lactamse

A

break B lactam ring of penicillins and cephalosporins

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136
Q

gram negative bacteria

A

porins in outer membrane may be modified and prevent access of antibiotic to periplasm

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137
Q

MRSA

A

modified penicillin binding protien (PBP)
-B lactam antibiotics can no longer bind and halt cross linking of peptidoglycan

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138
Q

therapeutic index

A

risk vs benefit

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139
Q

clinical considerations

A

drug concentration > MIC during treatment
-half life depends on how quickly the antibiotic is removed from body via excretion
how long a drug stays in tissue

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140
Q

therapeutic dose

A

minimum dose per kg of body weight that stops growth

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141
Q

toxic dose

A

maximum dose tolerated by pt

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142
Q

chemotherapeutic index

A

ratio of toxic to therapeutic dose

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143
Q

higher the chemotherapeutic index

A

safer the drug

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144
Q

synergistic drugs

A

greater effectiveness when used together
ex. aminoglycoside (access to inside the cell) and vancomycin (cell wall)

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145
Q

antagonistic drugs

A

interfere with each other, decrease effectiveness
ex. penicillin (acts of growing cells) and macrolides (bacteriostatic: inhibits growth)

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146
Q

antimicrobial agents

A

target virulence factors
sequester iron which feeds pathogens
drugs combat dormant persister cells (antibiotic resistant cells)
target gram negative bacteria (porins outermembrane)
antimicrobial sensitivity
bacteriocins:peptides produced by bacteria (kills other bacteria)
phage therapy: using bacteriophage to treat infection

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147
Q

microbiome

A

growth of MRSA (resistant S. aureus)
lactobacillus spp grew

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148
Q

phenol and phenolics

A

plasma membranes, causing leakage
active in presense of organic matter
reduced irritation, increased effectiveness
ex. O-phenylphenol

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149
Q

Bisphenols

A

two phenol groups connected by a bridge
disrupt plasma membranes
hexachlorophene: control skin infections
triclosan: antibacterial soaps

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150
Q

biguanides

A

effective against gram positive, gram negative bacteria, enveloped viruses
ex.
Chlorhexidine: surgical hand scrubs
Alexidine: works faster

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151
Q

iodine

A

impairs protien synthesis and alters membranes
tincture: solution in alcohol
iodophor: combined with organic molecules
povidone-iodine: skin antisepsis

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152
Q

Essential oils

A

peppermint, pine and orange oil
strong against gram positive bacteria, effectiveness against viruses not studied
tree and pine oil: broad spectrum that includes gram positive and negative bacteria and fungi

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153
Q

chlorine

A

bleach: hypochlorous acid (HOCL) neutral

chloramine: chlorine and ammonia

municipal water disinfection: compressed chlorine gas

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154
Q

if the water is cloudy/ not clean

A

2-3 drop bleach
1 L of H2O
30 mins

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155
Q

alcohols

A

denture protiens and dissolves lipids
require water
alcohol based hand sanitizers: above 62% alcohol
not effective against endospore producers and nonenveloped viruses
-not effective against C. dificile or Norovirus

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156
Q

best alcoholic action

A

around 65-70%
100% = growth of bacteria

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157
Q

oligodynamic action (heavy metals)

A

very small amounts
denature protiens

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158
Q

silver nitrate

A

prevents opthalmia neonatorium

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159
Q

copper sulfate

A

algicide
swimming pools

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160
Q

Cu2+ and Ag+ ions

A

used in water disinfection

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161
Q

zinc chloride

A

mouthwash
antidandruff shampoos

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162
Q

soap

A

acid anionic sanitizers
-emulsification
break oil film -> soalather and water
phosphoric acid

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163
Q

quaternary ammonium compounds (quats)

A

cations denature
broad spectrum
except ineffective against endospores and mycobacteria
exception: pseudomonas

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164
Q

organic acids to prevent molds in some foods

A

sorbic acid
benzoic acid
calcium propionate

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165
Q

nitrites and nitrates

A

prevent endospore germination (clostridium botulism)
-nitrosamines

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166
Q

bacteriocins

A

one bacterium that inhibits another
-nisin and natamycin prevent spoilage of cheese

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167
Q

aldehydes

A

inactivate protiens by cross linking with functional groups
-formalin preserve specimen
-glutaraldehyde: sporicidal in 3-10 hours; used in respiratory therapy equipment, endoscopes, other equipment that can be autoclaved

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168
Q

gaseous chemosterilants

A

cross links nucleic acids and protiens
heat sensitve material

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169
Q

ethyl oxide

A

sealed chamber
sterilizes large equipment and furniture depending on chamber size

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170
Q

chlorine dioxide

A

enclosed building areas or water treatment
surface disinfection

171
Q

supercritical fluids

A

supercritical state in both gas and liquid properties
uses:
-food industry
-medical implants including bone, tendons, ligaments removed from donors

172
Q

peroxygens

A

oxidizing agents
-hydrogen peroxide:
good disinfectant
asceptic food packaging
disinfection of food processing and medical equipment

173
Q

benzoyl peroxide

A

topical acne medications

174
Q

ozone

A

water disinfection

175
Q

effecive disinfectant principles

A

concentration of disinfectant
organic matter

176
Q

disk diffusion method

A

look for zone of inhibition around disks

177
Q

gram negative bacteria

A

more resistant to biocides due to lipopolysaccharide (porins in OM)
-pseudonomas and burkholderia are unusually resistant

178
Q

mycrobacteria

A

tuberculocides must undergo special testing

179
Q

bacterial endospores

A

resistant to biocides

180
Q

nonenveloped viruses

A

more resistant than enveloped viruses

180
Q

prions

A

immerse in NaOH and autoclave at 121 ceclius for 1 hour

181
Q

bukholderia (gram negative)

A

moist soil -> septic shock

181
Q

BSL (biological safety levels)

A

BSL 1 - low risk microbes
BSL 5 - high risk microbes

181
Q

BSL 1

A

healthy hosts
ex. E coli

182
Q

BSL 2

A

diseases of varying severity
moderate risk to workers and environment
ex. S aureus

183
Q

BSL 3

A

serious or lethal diseases through respiratory transmission
ex. Mycobacterium tuberclosis

184
Q

BSL 4

A

pose high risk of aerosol transmitted infections
fatal
Ebola, Marburg

185
Q

symptoms

A

subjective changes felt by pts

186
Q

signs

A

objective changes measured or observed

187
Q

syndrome

A

signs and symptoms
-labratory tests

188
Q

pathology

A

study of disease

189
Q

etiology

A

cause of disease

190
Q

pathogenesis

A

manner in which disease develops

191
Q

infection

A

invasion or colonization by pathogens

192
Q

infectious disease

A

infection results in any change in state of health
-infection may exist in absence of disease
-could occur in a type of microorganism locates in a part of body where its normally not found

193
Q

communicable disease

A

spread from one host to another
ex. covid

194
Q

contagious disease

A

diseases that easily and rapidly spread from one host to another

195
Q

noncommunicable diseasee

A

disease that is not spread from one host to another
ex. tetanus (clostridum tetani)

196
Q

duration

A

average time individuals have a disease from diagnosis until they are either cured or die

197
Q

acute disease

A

symptoms develop rapidly but has a short duration
ex. influenza

198
Q

chronic disease

A

symptoms develop slowly

199
Q

subacute disease

A

between chronic and acute
ex measles

200
Q

latent disease

A

causative agent that is inactive for a time but then activates and produces symptoms

ex. asymptomatic at first; shingles, chickenpox, coldsores

201
Q

sepsis

A

extreme inflammatory syndrome in response to severe infection

202
Q

local infection

A

pathogens are limited to a small area of the body
ex. boils, abcess

203
Q

systemic (generalized) infection

A

infection spread throughout the body by blood and lymph

204
Q

focal infection

A

systemic infection that began as a local infection
-teeth, tonsil, sinus

205
Q

septicemia

A

blood poisoning; growth of bacteria in the blood

206
Q

toxemia

A

toxins in blood

207
Q

viremia

A

viruses in blood

208
Q

primary infection

A

acute infection that causes initial illness

209
Q

secondary infection

A

opportunistic infection after primary infection

210
Q

subclinical infection

A

no noticeable signs of symptoms
(inapparent, asymptomatic)
ex. hepatitis A

211
Q

kochs postulates

A

-specific infection disease is caused by specific microbe
-etiology of disease: first step in treatment and prevention

212
Q

exceptions to kochs postulates

A

-some pathogens cause several diseases, cause disease only in humans
-some microbes have never been cultured

213
Q

phenotype (sign or symptom) should be associated with pathogen strains of a species - enterogemorrhagic e coli

A

EHEC causes intestinal inflammation and diarrhea

214
Q

inactivation of suspected genes are a measurable loss of pathogenicity

A

one of the genes in EHEC codes for shiga toxin and inhibits protien synthesis

215
Q

reversion of the inactive gene should restore the disease phenotype

A

by adding the gene that encodes the toxin bck into the genome, ehec’s ability to cause disease is restored

216
Q

incubation period

A

no signs or symptoms
-interval btw initial infection and first signs and symptoms

217
Q

prodromal period

A

early, mild signs or symptoms

218
Q

period of illness

A

disease is most severe

219
Q

period of decline

A

signs and symptoms subside

220
Q

period of convalescence

A

body returns to its pre-diseased state; recovery
-could still spread disease ex. vibrio, typhoid fever

221
Q

continual sources of infections

A

human reservoirs: ppl with signs or symptoms; carriers may have inapparent infections or latent diseases
-aymptomatic, incubating, convalescent, chronic and passive carriers

222
Q

animal reservoirs

A

zooneses are diseases in wild and domestic animals

223
Q

nonliving reservoirs

A

soil and water
foods
pet waste
consuming infected animal products
antropod vectors
rabies, lyme disease

224
Q

direct contract transmission

A

close association btw infected and a susceptible host

225
Q

congenital transmission

A

mother to fetus
syphallis

226
Q

indirect contact transmission

A

spreads to host by nonliving “fomite”
ex. AIDs, hepatitis B

227
Q

droplet transmission

A

transmission via airborne droplets
ex. flu, pneumonia

228
Q

vehicle transmission

A

transmitted by an inanimate reservoir
-airborne: histoplasmosis
-waterborne: cholera
-foodborne: tapeworm; may involve cross contamination

229
Q

vectors

A

anthropods (fleas, ticks, mosquitos)
mechanical: by feet
biological: reproduces in vector; transmitted via bite or flea

230
Q

hospitals

A

nosocomial infections
-certain normal microbiota are oppurtunistic and pose a risk
-antimicrobial resistance (S aureus MRSA) are high among HAIs

231
Q

compromised host

A

individual whose reistance to infection is impaired by disease, therapy, burns

232
Q

infect contact through fomites and hospital ventilation system

A

urinary catheters (fomite transmission)
intravernous catheters
respiratory aids
needles
surgical dressings

233
Q

pseudonomas aeroginosas is

A

highly resistant nosocomial pathogen

234
Q

infection control committee

A

oversee and monitor infection control

235
Q

emerging infectious disease

A

new or changing, increasing in incidence or showing a potential to increase in near future

236
Q

contributing factors of emerging infectious diseases: genetic recombination between organisms

A

E coli O157:H7 and avian influenza (H5N1)
O antigen
H7: flagella

237
Q

contributing factors of emerging infectious diseases: evolution of existing organisms

A

vibrio cholerae
O139 - cholera toxin

238
Q

contributing factors of emerging infectious diseases: widespread use of antibiotics and pesticides

A

antibiotic resistant strains
-superbugs, R plasmids

239
Q
A
240
Q

changes in global climate and weather patterns

A

Hantavirus: rodents - saliva -urine - feces - respiratory syndrome

240
Q

antigenic shift

A

two strains of influenza virus infect the same cell and genomes get mixed
*dramatically makes a different virus
-pandemics, outbreaks

241
Q

antigenic drift

A

random mutations that occur within cell that a virus infects, creating small changes in virus protiens

241
Q

contributing factors of emerging infectious diseases: inherant genetic instability of some microbes

A

rna viruses: lack proofreading of dna viruses, mutations
antigenic shirt and drift

242
Q

modern transportation

A

zika virus and chikungonya: joint pain
west nile encephatlitis: birds, mosquitoes: vectors

243
Q

insect vectors transported to new areas where they become established

A

aedes aegypti
a albopictus: asian tiger

244
Q

public health failure

A

diptheria -> corynebacterium dipthaie

244
Q

ecological diseas

A

coccidioimycosis

244
Q

zika virus

A

congenitial
-mother to fetus causes microencephaly

245
Q

pathogenecity

A

ability to cause disease

246
Q

virulence

A

degree of pathogenecity -> genetic element

247
Q

attenuation

A

weakening of disease producing ability of pathogen
-attenuated vaccines contain crippled viruses or bacteria that iject into a host to stimulate an immune response

248
Q

portals of entry

A

mucous membranes
skin
parental route: deposited directly into tissues when barriers are penetrated
injections, barriers, wounds, cuts, surgery

249
Q

ID50

A

infectious dose (cause disease) for 50% of a sample population
-measures virulence of a microbe
-causes disease

249
Q

LD50

A

lethal dose for 50% of a sample population
-potency of a toxin

250
Q

virulence factors

A

pili, detection enzymes, capsule, enzymes that inactivate antibiotics, protiens that disrupt normal cellular function

251
Q

pathogenecity island

A

genomic island that contains virulence factors

252
Q

adherence

A

all pathogens attach to host tissues

253
Q

adhesions (ligands) on pathogen

A

bind to receptors on host cells

254
Q

glycocalyx

A

in S. mutans, made of dextran, enabling the bacteria to adhere to teeth

255
Q

fimbrae

A

in actinomyces, adheres to glycocalyx of S. mutans

256
Q

viral spikes

A

spikes of SARS-COV-2 adhere to ACE2 receptor on host cells

257
Q

capsules

A

resistance
glycocalyx around cell wall
impair phagocytosis:
-S. pneumonae: pneumonia
-H. influenza; pneumonia, meningitis
-B. anthracis: anthrax
-Y. pestis: plague

258
Q

M protien in cellwall

A

resists phagocytosis
-S. pyogenes

259
Q

Opa protien in cell wall

A

allow attachment to host cell
-N. gonorrhae

260
Q

Waxy lipid (mycolic acid)

A

resists digestion by phagocytosis
mycobacterium tuberculosis

261
Q

kinase

A

digest fibrin clot

261
Q

coagulase

A

coagulate fibrinogen forming fibrin

262
Q

hyaluronidase

A

digests hyaluronic acid, a host polysaccharide that holds cells together

263
Q

collagenase

A

breaks down collagen

264
Q

IgA protease

A

destroy IgA antibodies

265
Q

protozoan pathogenesis

A

immune avoidance by protozoa`

266
Q

antigenic variation

A

pathogens alter their surface antigens
antibodies that a host made against antigens are rendered ineffecive
example:
-influenza virus
-N. gonorhea
-Trypanosome brucei gambiense

267
Q

antigenic masking

A

some protozoans coat themselves in host antigens to avoid detection by the immune system

268
Q

invasins

A

surface protiens produced by bacteria that rearrange actin (cytoskelaton of eukarya) filmanents of the cytoskelaton

269
Q

what do invasins cause

A

membrane ruffling resulting in bacteria being engulfed

270
Q

shigella and listeria

A

use actin to move from one cell to the next

271
Q

survival inside phagocytes

A

require low pH in phagolysosome
escape from phagosome before lysomal fusion
prevention of fusion of lysosome with phagosome

272
Q

how is pathogen excreted as waste`

A

pathogen
phagocyte
lysozome
phagolysozome
digestive enzymes
superoxide radicals
residual
excreted as waste

273
Q

biofilms

A

resist antibiotics and disinfectants
involved in 65% of all infections
evade phagocytes
resistant to phagocytosis, shielding by extracellular polymeric substance (EPS) of biofilm

274
Q

iron

A

required for most pathogenic bacteria
-siderophores: secreted by pathogens, bind iron more tightly than host cells and host iron binding protiens

275
Q

direct damage

A

disrupts host cell function
uses host cell nutrients
produce waste products
multiplies in host cells and causes ruptures

276
Q

endotoxins

A

G- outermembrane
lipid A of LPS of gram negative bacteria
*released during bacterial multiplication and when gram negative bacteria die
fever, activation of clotting factors, vasodilation, shock, and death may result

277
Q

toxins

A

produced by microorganisms
-produce fever, cardiovascular problems, diarhea, shock

278
Q

toxigenicity

A

produce toxin

279
Q

toxemia

A

presense of toxin in hosts blood

280
Q

intoxications

A

presense of toxin without microbial growth

281
Q

exotoxins

A

released outside - metabolism - protiens
protiens secreted and produced by bacteria
highly specific for their targets
highly lethal

282
Q

antitoxins

A

antibodies against exotoxins that provide immunity
-neutralize

283
Q

toxoids

A

inacinvolved in biochemical reactions
enzymatic nature
small amt is lethal
can be used again

284
Q

AB type exotoxins

A

AB toxins
cytolytic toxins: membrane disrupting toxins
superantigen toxins

285
Q

potent exotoxins

A

AB toxins
-include: diptheria, tetanus, botulism, cholera

286
Q

diphtheria exotoxin

A

blockage of protien synthesis

287
Q

the A domain in AB toxin adds

A

ADP- ribosyl group to EF-2

288
Q

elongation factor 2

A

key factor in translation

289
Q

neurological exotoxins

A

C tetani and C botulism produce potent AB exotoxins that affect nervous tissue

290
Q

enterotoxins

A

massive secretion of fluid into intestinal lumen, results in vomitting and diarhea

291
Q

plasmids and bacteriophage

A

cause waterborne disease cholera

292
Q

membrane disrupting toxins (exotoxins)

A

lyse host cells by disrupting plasma membranes

293
Q

leukocidins

A

kill phagocytic leukocytes

294
Q

hemolysins

A

kill erythcrocytes by forming protien channels

295
Q

streptolysins

A

hemolysins produced by streptococci

296
Q

superantigens

A

excessive activation of immune response - lots of T cells
-strong immune and inflammatory response: shock and death
-pyrogenic (fever producing) toxins of staph A such as shock syndrome
-food poisoning by entereotoxins`

297
Q

bacterial source

A

endotoxins: gram positive and negative
exotoxin: gram negative in outer membrane

298
Q

relation to microorganism

A

exotoxin: metabolic product of growing cell; excreted outside host CM
endotoxin: outer membrane of cell wall during cell division (within)

299
Q

chemistry

A

exotoxin: AB protiens
endotoxin: lipid portion (A)

300
Q

pharmacology

A

exotoxin: specific; gastrointestinal
endotoxin: general

301
Q

high stability

A

exotoxin: toxid
endotoxin: stable

302
Q

toxicity

A

exotoxin: high
endotoxin: low

303
Q

fever producing

A

exotoxin: no
endotoxin: yes

304
Q

immunology

A

exotoxin: converted to toxoids (vaccine)
endotoxin: not easily neutralized by antitoxin

305
Q

lethal dose

A

exotoxin: small
endotoxin: larger

306
Q

representative diseases

A

exotoxin: gas gangrene, tetanus, botulism, diphtheria, scarlet fever, cyanobacterial intoxication

endotoxin: typhoid fever

307
Q

viral mechanisms for evading host defenses

A

-intracellular prevents immune response from detecting or accessing the virus
-use host cell surface molecules to attach and gain entrence to host
-attack components of immune system
-antigenic variation: antigenic changes on infected cell

308
Q

cytopathic effects

A

visible effects of viral infections
-viruses multiply inside host
-create inclusion bodies (cytoplasm of cell diagnostic)
syncytium ex. measles, mumps
transformation of host cells - contact inhibition - unregulated cell growth resulting in cancer

309
Q

cytocidal effects

A

cytopathic effects that kill the host cell

310
Q

noncytocidal effects

A

cell damage but not cell death

311
Q

fungi

A

virulence facots
toxic metabolic products
allergic response

312
Q

trichothecene (fungi)

A

toxins inhibit protien synthesis in eukarya

313
Q

proteases

A

modify host cell membranes
-break protiens to attach
ex. C albicans

314
Q

capsules

A

prevent phagocytosis
-Cryptococcus neoformans
-soil fungus, pigeion, chicken, meningitis

315
Q

ergot

A

alkaloid toxins
-Claviceps purpurea

316
Q

alflatoxin

A

carcinogenic toxin produced by aspergillus flavus

317
Q

mycotoxin

A

mushroom
neurotoxic

318
Q

protozona and waste produces avoid defenses by

A

digesting tissue and cells
-Giardia intestinalis
-Toxoplasma gondii
antigenic variation: surface components
-Trypanosoma

319
Q

portals of exit

A

respiratory tract: cough, sneeze
GI tract: feces, saliva
Genitourinary tract: urine
skin
blood: anthropods that bite; needles or syringes

320
Q

epidemiology

A

where and when diseases occur, how they are transmitted in populations

321
Q

john snow

A

father of evolution
-tracked source of cholera outbreak to water from a specific well
-broke chain of transmission

322
Q

ignaz sammelweis

A

handwashing as sepsis

323
Q

florence nighingtale

A

improved sanitation decreased incidence of epidemic typhus

324
Q

reproductive number

A

average number of people who will contract a disease from one infected individual

325
Q

descriptive epidemiology

A

analysis of data
-retrospective study: already happened

326
Q

analytic epidemiology

A

particular disease to determine cause or risk factors
-Nightingale’s work -> soliders, cilivians, cohort groups

327
Q

experimental epidemiologu

A

hypothesis
clinical trial -> test or control

328
Q

case reporting

A

enables researchers to establish chain of transmission
report specific diseases to officials
Notifiable infection diseases list
provide early warning of possible outbreaks

329
Q

CDC

A

epidemiological information in the US
publishes Morbidity and Mortality Weekly Report

330
Q

morbidity

A

incidence of specific notifiable disease

331
Q

mortality

A

deaths from notifiable diseases

332
Q

notifiable infectious diseases

A

physicians are required to report occurance

333
Q

morbidity rate

A

number of people affected in relation to total population

334
Q

mortality

A

number of deaths in a given time period

335
Q

spoardic disease

A

Neisseria meningitis, typhoid fever
-occurs only occassionally

336
Q

endemic disease

A

constantly present
ex. common cold

337
Q

epidemic disease

A

disease scquired by many ppl in a given area in a short time
ex. influenza

338
Q

pandemic disease

A

worldwide epidemic

339
Q

incidence

A

number of people who develop a disease during particular time period
-new cases

340
Q

prevalence

A

number of ppl who have a disease at a specific time, regardless of when it first appeared
-takes into account both old and new cases

341
Q

common source epidemic

A

contamination of food or water
ex. cholera

342
Q

host to host epidemic

A

disease that shows a slow progressive and gradual decline
ex. flu, chickenpox

343
Q

Borrelia burgdorferi

A

lyme disease
ixodes tick
increase in deer and human populations in wooded areas

344
Q

Mycobacterium tuberclosis

A

tuberclosis
sputum dprolets
multi-drug resistant

345
Q

Clostriodes difficile

A

antibiotic associated enterolitis
person to person
gut dysbiosis due to long term use of antibiotics

346
Q

Vibrio cholerae

A

cholera: severe diarrhea
water contaminated with feces of infected persons
poor sanitation and hygiene via infected travelers and commerce

347
Q

dengue

A

infected mosquito Aedes aegypti
poor mosquito control
increased travel and shipping - modern transportation

348
Q

influenza H5N1

A

direct contact with infected animals or humans, not spread by respiratory aerosols
antigenic shift

349
Q

zika

A

asymptomatic
bite of infected mosquito
poor mosquito control
increased urbanization in tropics

350
Q

candida

A

microbiota becomes oppurtunistic pathogen
catheters: compromised host

351
Q

disease tracking

A

index case or patient zero
(1st person with the disease)

352
Q

specimen collection sites

A

blood
CSF (lumbar puncture, direct microscopy and culture)
pleural fluid: lungs
synovial: oral cavity
peritoneal: abdominal cavity
aspectically

353
Q

cerebrospinal fluid

A

turbid leukocytes

354
Q

labratory identification of microbial pathogens

A
  1. isolate bacteria from pt
  2. pure culture - cell and colony morpholoy
  3. gram stain
  4. biochemical pathways
355
Q

selective media

A

allow some organisms to grow, while inhibiting others

356
Q

differential media

A

allow identification of organisms based on their growth and appearance on the medium

357
Q

colonies of MRSA on chromogenic agar medium

A

appear pink
others appear blue

358
Q

biochemical alogrithms to identify bacteria

A

identify gram positive pyogenic cocci

359
Q

specificity

A

recognize the target pathogen

360
Q

sensitivity

A

minimum amount of pathogen needed for this test to detect it, minimizing false negatives

361
Q

immunoassays

A

measure pt antibody levels
serology and titers
-antigen antibody reactions in vitro
-individual is infected, antigens to that pathogen should become elevated

362
Q

anitigen

A

foreign agents to body provoke an immune response

363
Q

antibody

A

produced by B cells
bind antigens for which they are specific

364
Q

enzyme immunoassay (EIA)

A

very sensitive
rapid tests
detect antigen antibody complexes

365
Q

direct elisa

A

detects antigens
complex of antigen- antibody
adding a substrate for linked enzyme produces a color

366
Q

indirect elisa

A

detects antibodies

367
Q

sandwich EIA

A

target antigen detected via anchoring between two antibodies

368
Q

rapid tests

A

point of care diagnostics
matrix contains soluble antibodies that are specific to antigen and conjugated to a colored molecule called a chromophore
as liquid sample diffuses through matrix, pt antigens bind the chromophore labeled antibodies

369
Q

pregancy test

A

detects levels of human chronic gonadotropin hormone (HCG)

370
Q

test line area

A

fixed antibodies
2nd body antibody fixed

371
Q

control line area

A

fixed antibodies

372
Q

polymerase chain reaction (PCR)

A

-amplify small quantities of dna for analysis
-make billions of copies of a target dna within a few hours
used for diagnostic tests for genetic diseases and detecting pathogens

373
Q

dna primers

A

made for specific pathogens
complimentary to target dna

374
Q

cycles

A

0 cycle - 2 copies
1 cycle - 4 copies
20 cycles - 2 million

375
Q

reverse transcription pcr

A

uses mrna as template
-can make cDNA from small amount of viral rna
-detect presense of rna viruses
-complimentary, pcr

376
Q

RT- qPCR (quantitative reverse transcription pcr)

A

involves detection and quantification of RNA
combines effects of reverse transcription and quantative pcr or real time pcr to amplify and detect specific targets

377
Q

flourescent signal

A

measures quantity of dna in real time
-hydrolysis probes
-detect pathogens such as viruses for the diagnosis of infectious diseases

378
Q

influenza (flu)

A

negative sense
segmened rna genome
envelope
external glycoporotiens
avian, swine and mammalian strains

379
Q

Hemagglutinin spikes

A

recognize and attach to hosts
bind to sialic acid
respiratory epithileum

380
Q

neuramadase spikes

A

seperate from the infected cell
-assembly

381
Q

H1N1

A

each virus has one type of HA and one type of NA on its viral capsid and is named for the antigens it contains

382
Q

3 genera of human influenzaviruses

A

influenza A (alphainfluenzavirus): found in different animals

influenza B: epidemics

influenza C: mild sickness

383
Q

influenza A

A

identified by variation in the HA and NA spikes
16 subtypes HA; 9 subtypes NA

384
Q

influenza antigenic drift

A

minor antigenic changes in HA and NA

385
Q

influenza antigenic shift

A

two different species infect the same person
-lead to pandemics
-reassortment of the 8th rna segments

386
Q

1918-1919 pandemic

A

lethal for young adults
cytokine storm
lethal hemorrhaging
avian influenza viruses

387
Q

H5N1 is detected in

A

birds

388
Q

H1N1

A

“bird flu”

389
Q

streptococcus spp.

A

invasive infections
nonsporulating
gram positive
cocci
aerotolerent anaerobes

390
Q

how does strep transmit

A

respiratory pathogens transmitted by airborne droplets or direct contact

391
Q

risk of a microbe

A

oppurtunistic pathogens cause disease in immunocompromised hosts

392
Q

s pyogenes

A

spread by respiratory droplets and contact w fomites
skin infections
minor skin irritation
rectal carriers
food borne

393
Q

pyogenes subgroup

A

form pus
strep throat
b hemolysis
hemolytic enzyme
inactivated by oxygen

394
Q

viridans subgroup

A

strep mutans: denta; caries
incomplete hemolysis on blood agar

395
Q

superantigen exotoxins of strep

A

recruit large numbers of T cells
secrete cytokines that activate large numbers of macrophages and neutrophils
toxic shock syndrome
hypotension - systemic shock
fatal in some individuals
weakened from cancer, drug treatments, hiv infection or old age

396
Q

streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat)

A

contagious spread via person to person contact
indrect contact with items contaminated
symptoms: high fever, sore throat, tonsils, absense of cough
treat w antibiotics

397
Q

streptococci

A

non-sporulating
gram positive cocci
aerotolerant anerobes

398
Q

streptococci can cause disease in immunocompromised hosts bc it is

A

oppurtunitstic

399
Q

s pyogenes is spread by

A

respiratory droplets
contact with fomites

400
Q

pyogenes subgroup undergo what type of hemolysis

A

beta

401
Q

viridans subgroup of strep

A

mutans: dental carries
incomplete blood agar hemolysis

402
Q

streptococci go through

A

lysogenic conversion

403
Q

s. pharyngitis produce

A

eryhtrogenic toxin
-encoded by temperate bacteriophage (bacterial virus)

404
Q

s. pharyngitis unique characteristic

A

strawberry tongue (red rash on tongue) -> scarlet fever

405
Q

erysipelas (strep)

A

involves dermis
local tissue destruction causing sepsis

406
Q

erythema nodosum

A

inflammation of hypodermis
red nodules on skin

407
Q

post-streptococcal includes

A

acute rheumatic fever
acute glomerulonephritis

408
Q

gonnorhea

A

gram negative
diplococcus
obligate aerobe

409
Q

what does gonorhea have on its outer membrane

A

lipooligosaccharide

410
Q

opthalmia neonaturum

A

conjuctivitis of newborn
-gonnorhea can cause this

411
Q

what is needed in atmosphere for gonorhae to survive

A

carbon dioxide

412
Q

HIV family

A

retroviridia

413
Q

HIV genus

A

lentivirus

414
Q

structure of HIV

A

enveloped with ssRNA

415
Q

virion of HIV contains

A

2 identical + stranded rna

416
Q

HIV results in decrease in

A

CD4 T cells

417
Q

what test detects HIV sooner than other types

A

nucleic acid test (NAT)
-looks at actual virus in the blood

418
Q

treatment for HIV

A

anti-retroviral drug

419
Q

re-emerging disease from HIV

A

mycobacterium tuberclosis

420
Q
A

Microbiology (7 decks)

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