Final Exam

Question 1

zolpidem (ambien)

Answer 1

MOA: non benzo, short acting hypnotic
Uses: short term use for insomnia
Side effects: dizziness, drowsiness, headaches, anxiety, cognitive dysfunction, hepatic encephalopathy; potential for misuse; dependence

Question 2

zopiclone

Answer 2

MOA: short acting Benzo like drug
uses: short term use for insomnia
side effects: dizziness, drowsiness, headaches, anxiety, cognitive dysfunction, amnesia, anxiety, agitation, restlessness, worsening depression, respiratory depression; potential for misuse; dependence; withdrawal effects

Question 3

dayvigo (lemborexant)

Answer 3

MOA: newer sleep aid, blocks orexin and suppresses wakefulness
Uses: insomnia
side effects: abnormal dreams, drowsiness, headache, worsening depression; potential for misuse
-no dependence**

Question 4

dantrolene (direct acting muscle relaxant)

Answer 4

MOA: Acts directly on skeletal muscle by interfering with release of calcium ion
Uses: short term muscle spasms and pain, MS, CP, rheumatic disorders, huntington’s, parkinsons, trigeminal neuralgia, malignant hyperthermia
- side effects: euphoria, CNS depression, lightheadedness, dizziness, drowsiness, fatigues, confusion
contraindications: alcohol, CNS depressants, active liver disease

Question 5

baclofen (central muscle relaxants)

Answer 5

-MOA: works centrally on the CNS; reduces tonic somatic motor activity influencing both alpha and gamma motor neurons –> depresses the CNS
contraindications: heart failure, arrhythmias, hyperthyroidism, use of MAOIs

Question 6

amphetamine salts

Answer 6

MOA: stimulates cerebral cortex and thalamus. causes mood elevation, euphoria, increased mental alertness and capacity for work, decreased fatigue and drowsiness, and prolonged wakefulness. relaxation of bronchial smooth muscle, increased respiration, and dilation of pulmonary arteries
Uses: ADHD, narcolepsy
side effects: hypertension, tachycardia, agitation, anxiety, insomnia, loss of appetite, dry mouth, abdominal pain
contraindications: hypertension, heart failure, PVD, CAD, hyperthyroidism, glaucoma, agitation

Question 7

Methylphenidate (concerta, ritalin)

Answer 7

uses: ADHD, narcolepsy
Side effects: same as amphetamines + temporary slowing of growth in prepubescent children
Contraindications: same as amphetamines

Question 8

Atomoxetine (strattera)

Answer 8

-Uses: ADHD, narcolepsy
Side effects: hypertension, urinary retention; increased suicide risk; excessive sweating, dry mouth, constipation, reduced appetite, nausea, vomiting, erectile dysfunction, drowsiness, headache, insomnia, agitation, worsening psychiatric symptoms, prolonged QT
contraindications: narrow-angle glaucoma; history of adrenal gland cancers; severe cardiovascular disease; severe hypertension; uncontrolled hyperthyroidism

Question 9

orlistat

Answer 9

MOA: binds to lipase and blocks them → reduces fat absorption. reduces fat absorption by 30%
-uses: obesity
-side effects: oily spotting, flatulence, and fecal incontinence. decreased absorption of vitamin A,D,E
-limiting dietary intake of fat can help with side effects

Question 10

Triptans

Answer 10

MOA: serotonin receptor agonists, work by stimulating serotonin receptors in the brain. stimulate 5-HT receptors in cerebral arteries → causes vasoconstriction → reduces headache. take at first sign of headache
Indications: migraines
side effects: vasoconstriction effects, serotonin syndrome
contraindications: heart disease or symptoms of heart disease, peripheral vascular diseases; CAD, uncontrolled hypertension;
cardiac arrthymias, sepsis, impaired renal or hepatic function

Question 11

barbiturates

Answer 11

-MOA: CNS depressant
-Uses: pre-op sedation, anesthesia adjunct, anticonvulsant (prevention of generalized tonic–clonic seizures and fever-induced convulsions)
- side effects: dizziness, drowsiness, lethargy, paradoxical restlessness, thrombocytopenia, hypotension, bradycardia, CNS depression
memory impairment, respiratory depression
contraindications: pregnancy, severe respiratory difficulties, severe liver disease

Question 12

Hydantoins (Dilantin)

Answer 12

• MOA: Therapeutic range = 10-20
• Uses: tonic-clonic and focal seizures
• side effects: lethargy, abnormal movements, ataxia, mental confusion, cognitive changes (suicidal thoughts) gingival hyperplasia, thrombocytopenia, hepatitis
  contraindications: liver failure, bradycardia

Question 13

Iminostilbenes (Tegretol)

Answer 13

uses: focal onset seizures, general onset seizures, bipolar disorder and neuropathic pain
side effects: Nausea, headache, dizziness, unusual eye movements, visual change,
minor anticholinergic effects
Contraindications: bone marrow depression;
severe hepatic disease; concurrent use of certain anti-fungals; may worsen myoclonic or absent seizures

Question 14

succinimide (zarontin)

Answer 14

uses: uncomplicated absence seizures (children)
side effects: Nausea, abdominal pain, dizziness, drowsiness

Question 15

GABA analogs (gabapentin)

Answer 15

• Uses: neuropathic pain, adjunctive treatment for seizures; chronic pain; pruritus; restless leg syndrome
  side effects: weight gain, drowsiness, dizziness, nausea, visual and speech changes, edema

Question 16

lamotrigine

Answer 16

uses: simple or complex focal seizures, generalized seizures, tonic-clonic seizures, bipolar
side effects: relatively minor CNS and GI symptoms, drowsiness, ataxia, headache, skin rashes, nausea, blurred vision

Question 17

levetiracetam (Keppra)

Answer 17

-uses: adjunct for focal seizures
- side effects: generally well tolerated, Dizziness; drowsiness; suicidal ideation

Question 18

Topiramate (Topomax)

Answer 18

Uses: adjunct for seizures, migraine prophylaxis, eating disorders, tremors
-side effects: weight loss (4-17%), GI upset, dizziness, drowsiness, ataxia, decreased bone density

Question 19

Valproic Acid

Answer 19

Uses: seizures, migraine prophylaxis, bipolar
Side effects: Dizziness, drowsiness, gastrointestinal upset, tremor, weight gain, hair loss, hepatotoxicity, pancreatitis
Contra: liver impairment, urea cycle disorders, use in women of child bearing potential

Question 20

anti metabolite side effects

Answer 20

fever, malaise
-hair loss
-nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, myelosuppression
-neurological, cardiovascular, pulmonary, hepatobiliary, GI, genitourinary (GU), dermatological, ocular, otic, and metabolic toxicity
-tumour lysis syndrome

Question 21

folic acid antagonist (methotrexate0)

Answer 21

MOA: interferes with folic acid, works on S phase
Uses: solid tumours (breast, head, neck, lung), acute lymphocytic leukemia, non-hodgkins lymphoma, RA, psoriasis
side effects: stomatitis, black tarry stools, hair loss
contra: NSAIDs

Question 22

purine antagonists

Answer 22

• interrupts metabolic pathways of purine nucleotides → interrupts DNA/RNA synthesis → tumour cells die
  -Uses: leukemia

Question 23

pyrimidine antagonism

Answer 23

MOA: interrupts metabolic pathways of pyrimidine bases → interrupts DNA/RNA synthesis

Question 24

mitotic inhibitors (vincristine)

Answer 24

MOA: Can work in various phases of the cell cycle. All work shortly before or during mitosis and thus retard cell division.
Uses: combination therapy, solid tumours (testicular, breast, ovarian, small cell lung), leukaemia
side effects: neurotoxic, hair loss, nausea and vomiting, and myelosuppression

Question 25

topoisomerase 1 inhibitors (topotectan)

Answer 25

MOA: inhibits proper DNA function uses: ovarian and colorectal cancer side effects: bone marrow suppression cholinergic diarrhea, N,V,D

Question 26

Antineoplastic enzymes (Erwinase)

Answer 26

- MOA: Synthesized using cultures of bacteria and recombinant DNA technology - uses: Acute lymphocytic leukaemia - side effects: impaired pancreatic function,

Question 27

alkylating drugs

Answer 27

-MOA: Used to treat various types of cancer by preventing cancer cells from reproducing (alter DNA) - uses: ovarian, testicular, lymphoma, leukemia, breast, retinoblastoma - side effects: nephrotoxicity (hydration important ++), neuropathy, ototoxicity, hemorrhagic cystitis

Question 28

cytotoxic antibiotics

Answer 28

- MOA: -Natural substances produced by the mold Streptomyces. cell cycle non-specific and blocks DNA synthesis - uses: combination therapy - side effects: Bone marrow suppression & heart failure (cardiomyopathy), pulmonary fibrosis, pneumonitis

Question 29

aromatase inhibitors

Answer 29

- MOA: inhibits aromatase → conversion of certain hormones is prevented → decreases or delays tumour mass growth, responsive to hormones Uses: post therapy for breast cancer Side effects: hot flashes, osteoporosis, hypertension, mood disorders, weakness, arthralgia

Question 30

SERMs (tamoxifen)

Answer 30

MOA: binds to estrogen receptors to inhibit estrogen effects & decrease DNA synthesis -Tamoxifen is cytostatic rather than cytocidal -inhibits cancer growth (vs kills the cells) Uses: treatment and risk reduction of breast cancer for 5-10 years (post initial treatment) Side effects: Hypertension, peripheral edema, mood disorders, depression, hot flashes, nausea, weakness, and osteoporosis

Question 31

estrogen receptor antagonists

Answer 31

MOA: binds to estrogen receptors to inhibit tumour growth Uses: breast cancer Side effects: Vasodilation, pharyngitis, headache, hot flashes, pain, N&V

Question 32

anti androgens (bicalutamide)

Answer 32

MOA: blocks androgens Uses: prostate cancer Side effects: anemia, peripheral edema, muscle aches , gynecomastia, hot flashes, nausea, diarrhea

Question 33

gonadotropin releasing hormone agonists

Answer 33

MOA: decreased LH and FSH and subsequent testosterone and estrogen decrease Uses: gender transitioning, prostate, breast, endometrial cancer, endometriosis, fibroids Side Effects: hair loss, increased body odour, headaches, flushing, hot flashes, nausea, vomiting, weight changes

Question 34

antineoplastic hormones

Answer 34

MOA: causes marked decrease in plasma testosterone and increases estrogen Uses: male tumours Side effects: edema, SOB, leg cramps, chest wall tenderness, anorexia, nausea, diarrhea

Question 35

NSAIDs

Answer 35

MOA: Works by blocking the chemical activity of the cyclooxygenase (COX) enzymes; can also inhibit the leukotriene pathway, prostaglandin pathway or both Uses: various inflammatory conditions, mild to moderate pain Side Effects: dyspepsia, heartburn, GI bleed, hepatotoxicity, AKI, tinnitus, altered hemostasis Contra: risk for bleeding, vitamin K deficiency, peptic ulcer disease, current hemorrhagic stroke, and severe kidney or liver disease

Question 36

Aspirin

Answer 36

Uses: secondary prevention of blood clots associated with MI or stroke. pain, inflammatory conditions, fever, and for certain autoimmune conditions Side effects: increased risk of bleeding Contra: children with flu like symptoms → can cause Reye’s syndrome

Question 37

Indomethacin

Answer 37

MOA: NSAID derivative (analgesic, antipyretic and anti-inflammatory, anti-rheumatic properties) Uses: acute gouty arthritis, RA, OA, bursitis, tendonitis, and ankylosing spondylitis

Question 38

Ketorolac (Toradol)

Answer 38

MOA: anti-inflammatory, with strong analgesic properties (comparable to opioids) Uses: moderate-to-severe acute pain resulting from orthopedic injuries, surgeries or severe migraines -should be used for limited intervals Side effects: kidney impairment, edema, GI pain, dyspepsia, and nausea

Question 39

ibuprofen

Answer 39

Uses: pain, fever, RA, OA, dental pain, MSK disorders, dysmenorrhea Side effects: increase risk or stroke and bleeding, can increase blood pressure and at high doses/long periods of time

Question 40

Cox-2 inhibitors

Answer 40

MOA: COX-2 inhibitors allow for anti-inflammatory effects while reducing the prevalence of adverse effects such as GI upset, ulceration/bleeding Uses: OA, RA, acute pain, ankylosing spondylitis, dysmenorrhea Side Effects: headache, sinus irritation, diarrhea, fatigue, dizziness, lower extremity edema, and hypertension Contra: hypersensitivity to celecoxib, sulfonamides, aspirin, other NSAIDs, 3rd trimester, breastfeeding, heart failure

Question 41

Enolic Acid Derivatives (meloxicam)

Answer 41

MOA: potent NSAIDs, better GI tolerance Uses: mild to moderate OA, RA, and gouty arthritis

Question 42

Allopurinol

Answer 42

MOA: helps prevent excessive uric acid production in individuals with gout Uses: gout, tumour lysis syndrome Side effects: acute gout attacks, agranulocytosis, aplastic anemia, serious and potentially fatal skin conditions

Question 43

Colchicine

Answer 43

MOA: reduces the inflammatory response to deposits of urate crystals in joint tissue -second line Uses: gout side effects: N,V,D -take on empty stomach

Question 44

Probenecid

Answer 44

MOA: inhibits the reabsorption of uric acid in the kidney and thus increases the excretion of uric acid -ineffective in clients with kidney impairment Uses: gout

Question 45

immunosuppressants (general)

Answer 45

MOA: selectively suppress certain T lymphocyte cell lines to suppress the immune system Uses: helps to reduce organ rejection, MS, RA side effects: increased risk for opportunistic infections

Question 46

signs of organ rejection

Answer 46

-flu like symptoms -fever -weight gain -decreased urine output -fatigue -muscle pain -tenderness over area

Question 47

Basiliximab

Answer 47

uses: prevention of organ rejection in kidney transplants, give with methylprednisolone side effects: cytokine release syndrome (fever, dyspnea, tachycardia, sweating, chills, headache, nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, muscle and joint pain, and general malaise)

Question 48

sirolimus

Answer 48

uses: prevention of organ rejection in kidney transplant

Question 49

Azathioprine

Answer 49

uses: prevention of organ rejection in kidney transplants, RA side effects: leukopenia, thrombocytopenia, hepatotoxicity

Question 50

Mycophenolate

Answer 50

Uses: prevention of organ rejection in kidney, liver, and heart transplantation

Question 51

tacromilus

Answer 51

Uses: prevention of organ rejection in liver, kidney, heart transplants, rejection in bone marrow, pancreas, pancreatic islet cells, and small intestine transplants, autoimmune diseases, psoriasis Side effects: agitation, anxiety, confusion, hallucinations neuropathy, albuminuria, dysuria, AKI, ATN, DM

Question 52

cyclosporin

Answer 52

MOA: prevention and treatment of graft rejection following solid organ (liver, pancreas, spleen) and bone marrow transplant, RA & psoriasis Side effects: hepatotoxicity (cholestasis, hyperbilirubinemia), neurotoxicity, nephrotoxicity, hypertension, DM, gingival hyperplasia, hirsutism

Question 53

Fingolimod

Answer 53

Uses: MS

Question 54

Glatiramer

Answer 54

uses: MS

Question 55

Biological Response Modifying Drugs (anti-rheumatic drugs)

Answer 55

MOA: alter the body’s response to diseases such as cancer and autoimmune, inflammatory, and infectious diseases -enhance or restrict the patient’s immune response to disease, can stimulate a patient’s hematopoietic (blood-forming) function, and can prevent disease -requires adequate hydration Uses: DMARDs --> RA, hematopoietic drugs, immunomodulating drugs (interferons, monoclonal antibodies, interleukin receptor agonists) side effects: hypertension contra: uncontrolled hypertension

Question 56

Biological response modifiers

Answer 56

consists of hematopoietic drugs, & immunomodulating drugs MOA: 1) enhancement of host's immune system 2) direct toxic effects on tumour cells 3) adverse modification of the tumours biology (makes it harder for tumour cells to survive and reproduce) Uses: anemia, neutropenia

Question 57

Hematopoietic drugs

Answer 57

MOA: colony stimulating factor (CSF) -stimulate the production, maturation, and activation of neutrophils decrease bone marrow recovery time -stimulate immune cells to kill cancer cells, and viral or fungus infected cells -start use 24 hrs after completion of chemo Uses: chemotherapy related anemia and neutropenia, reduce bone marrow recovery time after transplant side effects: fever, muscle aches, bone pain, flushing, nausea (very common); thrombocytopenia, increased ALP, inflammation of the aorta, nephrotoxicity, respiratory distress,

Question 58

interferons

Answer 58

MOA: immunomodulators, antitumoral, antivirals, antineoplastic, identical to interferon cytokines naturally found in the body -prevent cancer cells from dividing -increase the activity of other cells in the immune system Uses: hep B, hep C, myelogenous leukemia, multiple myeloma, non hodgkin's lymphoma, melanoma, hairy cell leukemia, basal cell carcinoma, MS side effects: flu like symptoms contra: concurrent use of immunosuppressant drugs

Question 59

Monoclonal Antibodies

Answer 59

MOA: can specifically target cancer cells and have minimal effects on healthy cells Uses: cancer, rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus, psoriatic arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, Crohn's disease, multiple sclerosis, reducing risk of certain respiratory illnesses in high risk individuals - side effects: flu like symptoms contra: AIDS

Question 60

Adalimumab (humira)

Answer 60

antibody RA

Question 61

Bevacizumab (avastin)

Answer 61

antibody metastatic colorectal cancer

Question 62

Infliximab (Remicade)

Answer 62

antibody ankylosing spondylitis, crohn’s, ulcerative colitis, RA, psoriatic arthritis

Question 63

Trastuzumab (herceptin)

Answer 63

antibody breast cancer

Question 64

BCG vaccine

Answer 64

localized bladder cancer

Question 65

Etanercept (Enbrel)

Answer 65

RA, ankylosing spondylitis, plaque & psoriatic arthritis

Question 66

Disease Modifying Antirheumatic Arthritis Drugs (DMARDs)

Answer 66

MOA: -exhibit anti-inflammatory, antiarthritic, and immunomodulating effects -inhibit cell movement into inflamed areas -reduces the progression of the disease by modulating the inflammation and body’s autoimmune destruction of the joints -non-biological or biological Uses: RA Contra: -active infection (bacterial, viral, TB) -should be avoided in pregnancy/women of childbearing age and during lactation -should not be given with live vaccines

Question 67

Virulence

Answer 67

degree to which an organism is pathogenic severity of harmfulness of a disease

Question 68

median infectious dose (ID50)

Answer 68

the number of pathogen cells or virions required to cause active infection in 50% of inoculated species

Question 69

median lethal dose (LD50)

Answer 69

the number of pathogenic cells, virions, or amount of toxin required to kill 50% of infected species

Question 70

normal flora

Answer 70

- commonly colonized on the host but does not cause disease under normal conditions and healthy immune system - some normal flora is acquired before birth - Many are provided to baby by mother (ie breast milk, through vaginal opening during birth) - helps to inhibit the growth of pathogenic bacteria through various processes (ie pH, compete for nutrients, environmental changes, limited attachment sites, etc) - Other benefits include: Producing vitamins in the body & metabolize undigested materials

Question 71

symbiosis

Answer 71

the relationship between normal microbiota and the host

Question 72

commensalism

Answer 72

One organism benefits, and the other is unaffected

Question 73

mutualism

Answer 73

both organisms benefit

Question 74

parasitism

Answer 74

one organism benefits at the expense of the other

Question 75

Louis pasteur

Answer 75

discovered that various microbes have unique properties and invented the process of pasteurization (kill microbes responsible for spoilage), and developed new vaccines

Question 76

Koch

Answer 76

demonstrated the connection between a single microbe and a known human disease - discovering the bacteria that causes anthrax, cholera and tuberculosis

Question 77

John snow

Answer 77

- discovered evidence that suggested that contaminated water from a water pump was a source of the cholera epidemic - he did this by surveying individuals and plotting the information on a map, discovering that cases were high near a particular water pump

Question 78

communicable disease

Answer 78

a disease that is spread from one host to another (ie measles, mumps, COVID19)

Question 79

contagious disease

Answer 79

diseases that are easily and rapidly spread from one host to another (chicken pox,COVID19, rhinovirus) - Some communicable diseases can also be considered contagious

Question 80

non-communicable disease

Answer 80

a disease that is not spread from one host to another (tetanus toxoid from an old nail)

Question 81

endemic disease

Answer 81

disease constantly present in a population

Question 82

epidemic disease

Answer 82

disease acquired by many people in a given area in a short time

Question 83

pandemic disease

Answer 83

worldwide epidemic

Question 84

focal infection

Answer 84

a localized infection that spreads systemically or to another location (ie an infection that started on the finger that became septic)

Question 85

secondary infection

Answer 85

an infection that occurs during or after treatment for another infection (CDiff)

Question 86

Structures that make gram-positive C. difficile more virulent includes:

Answer 86

- spore forming ability - ability to move and penetrate the mucous layer - toxin A and B that damage cells - its ability to mutate and become more resistant to treatments

Question 87

periods of disease

Answer 87

1) Incubation period - time between the initial start of infection and onset of symptoms 2) Prodromal period - early mild symptoms (malaise, fatigue) 3) Period of illness - disease is most severe, lots of signs and symptoms 4) Period of decline - symptoms start to improve 5) Period of convalescence - body returns back to pre disease state

Question 88

contributing factors to emerging infections

Answer 88

Rapid population growth Globalization Climate change Antibiotic resistance Human behaviour changes Aging population

Question 89

chain of infection

Answer 89

1) Causative Agent - bacteria, virus, fungi (microorganism) 2) Reservoir (source) – Humans, animals and the environment can all be reservoirs for microorganisms to grow and multiply 3) Portal of Exit - the path for the microorganism to escape from the host. The blood, respiratory tract, skin and mucous membranes, GU tract and GI tract are all examples (many more exist) 4) Mode of Transmission - how microorganisms are transferred (to other organisms, locations) 5) Portal of Entry - a path for the microorganism to get into a new host, similar to the portal of exit (ie nasal passages, broken skin, eyes, GU system, GI tract and many more) - “exposure” 6) Susceptible Host - a person susceptible to the microorganism.

Question 90

ID50: infectious Dose

Answer 90

​​- one of the important indicators for virulence (degree of ability to cause disease) - ID50 is the number of pathogen cells or virions required to cause active infection in 50% of inoculated animals/persons - Microorganisms with smaller infectious doses have greater virulence

Question 91

LD50: Lethal Dose

Answer 91

- LD50 is the number of pathogenic cells, virions, or amount of toxin required to kill 50% of infected animals/persons - Measures lethality of a toxin

Question 92

adhesions (colonization)

Answer 92

- Adhesins = molecules that microbes use to attach - adhesion refers to the capability of pathogenic microbes to attach to the cells of the host - Following the initial exposure, the pathogen adheres at the portal of entry - Pathogen is limited to only those cells (and organisms) to which it can bind.

Question 93

adhesion mechanisms

Answer 93

Fimbriae (pili) Surface proteins glycocalyces (slime layers and capsules), biofilms Viruses attach by certain receptors Parasitic worms fastened by suckers, hooks, and barbs

Question 94

microbial invasion

Answer 94

- Once adhesion is successful, invasion can proceed - involves the spread of a pathogen throughout the host - may produce exoenzymes or toxins which will contribute to the spread and severity of infection

Question 95

toxin

Answer 95

- a specific chemical product of microbes, plants, and some animals that is poisonous to other organisms - Named according to target (eg. neurotoxic) - can be categorized as endotoxins or exotoxins

Question 96

exoenzymes

Answer 96

- Enzymes secreted by microbes that break down and inflict damage on tissues - Dissolve the host’s defense barriers to promote the spread of disease to other tissues - Eg. Mucinase, coagulase, kinase

Question 97

exotoxins

Answer 97

- Exotoxins are generally significantly more lethal than endotoxins - This means that the LD50 would generally be significantly lower for exotoxins than an endotoxins - source: gram positive (mostly) - composition: protein - effect: specific damage to the cells dependent upon receptor mediated targeting of cells and specific MOA - not heat stable

Question 98

antitoxins

Answer 98

antibodies against specific exotoxins

Question 99

endotoxins

Answer 99

- Lipopolysaccharide (LPS), part of the outer membrane of gram-negative bacterial cell walls - Example of endotoxin: A-B toxins - promotes fever and inflammation - Can also produce chills, weakness, aches, shock and even death - source: gram negative bacteria - effect: general systemic inflammation and fever - heat stable - UTI, meningococcal meningitis, typhoid fever

Question 100

mesophiles

Answer 100

preferring temperatures ranging from 20C to 45C

Question 101

psychrotrophs

Answer 101

Bacteria who prefer cooler environments 4C-25C

Question 102

pyschrophiles

Answer 102

Bacteria who can survive in extremely cold (arctic environments, 0C and below)

Question 103

thermophiles

Answer 103

Organisms that grow at optimum temperatures of 50 °C to a maximum of 80 °C

Question 104

hyperthermophiles

Answer 104

growth ranges from 80 °C to a maximum of 110 °C

Question 105

neutrophiles

Answer 105

meaning they grow optimally at a pH within one or two pH units of the neutral pH of 7

Question 106

halophiles

Answer 106

require high salt concentrations for growth – think the ocean

Question 107

halotolerant

Answer 107

do not require high salt environments to thrive

Question 108

decimal reduction time (DRT) or D-Value

Answer 108

The amount of time it takes for a specific treatment to produce the death of 90% of the population

Question 109

bactericidal

Answer 109

treatments that kill bacteria

Question 110

bacteriostatic

Answer 110

treatments that inhibit bacterial growth

Question 111

methods to control microorganisms

Answer 111

- heat (pasteurization) - heat and pressure (autoclaves) - desiccation (ie dehydrating foods such as raisins) - Filtration (ie high efficiency particulate air (HEPA) filters) - Radiation (ie UV light or sunlight to disinfect) - Low temperature (ie refrigeration and freezing); method generally bacteriostatic than bactericidal - High pressure (ie food industry uses high-pressure processing (also called pascalization) to kill bacteria, yeast, molds, parasites, and viruses in foods while maintaining food quality and extending shelf life) - Osmotic pressure (ie adding salt or sugars to food to create a hypertonic environment) - Metals / antimicrobial surfaces (ie copper has antimicrobial properties and was installed throughout the Vancouver International Airport; silver-infused dressings)

Question 112

anti-virals

Answer 112

- inhibiting DNA/RNA synthesis - prevent it from building proteins - prevent the virus from either binding to or entering the host cell - fusion inhibitors, that prevent the binding of HIV to the host cell co-receptor - Are only available for a small number of viruses including: influenza, COVID-19, herpes viruses, cytomegaloviruses, hepatitis C, and HIV

Question 113

Overactive bladder drugs

Answer 113

Fesoterodine, oxybutynin, solifenacin, tolterodine, trospium