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PTA 201 > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What action would you take if you noticed a Red Flag?

A

Immediately notify the supervising PT

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2
Q

What are the Cardiovascular Red Flags?

A

-Chest P!
-L UE P!
-Any Sx of MI
-Pulsating P!
-Constant/Severe LE P!

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3
Q

What are the Cancer Red Flags?

A

-Chronic night P!
-Constant P! unrelieved by position/activity

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4
Q

What are the Gastrointestinal Red Flags?

A

Frequent or severe abdominal P!

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5
Q

What are the Neurological Red Flags?

A

Frequent or severe headaches

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6
Q

What are the Cardinal signs of Inflammation?

A

-Heat
-Redness
-Swelling
-P!
-Decreased ROM

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7
Q

What is abnormal redness?

A

-Rash/Streaking
-With hardened tissue, may indicate thrombophlebitis

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8
Q

What are the risk factors for DVT?

A

-Immobility
-Trauma: Fx/Surgery
-Hx of DM, obesity, hormone changes
-Hypercoagulation

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9
Q

What are the signs and Sx of DVT?

A

-Peripheral edema
-Warmth
-Skin discoloration
-Prominent superficial veins
-Leg P!
-Tenderness

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10
Q

What are signs of Abnormal Edema?

A

-Bilateral (systemic)

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11
Q

This is a description of what diagnosis?
-Increased pressure in a muscle compartment (grouping of muscles, nerves and blood vessels) causing muscle and nerve damage along with pain.

A

Compartment Syndrome

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12
Q

Which area of the body is Compartment Syndrome most typically found?

A

The anterior compartment of the lower leg

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13
Q

Define Acute, Subacute, and Chronic Inflammation

A

-Acute Inflammation: P! before end ROM
-Subacute Inflammation: P! at end ROM
-Chronic Inflammation: P! with stretch past end ROM

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14
Q

What are the general guidelines for Vital Signs?

A

-O2 Saturation: 95-98%
>90% is typical Tx parameter
-HR w/ exercise: </= 20 bpm above RHR
-Return to RHR within 5’ post exercise
-BP: </= 250 systolic, 110 diastolicd
<20-30 mmHg systolic increase w/mod exercise
<10 mmHg diastolic increase w/mod exercise

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15
Q

What are the Signs and Sx of Tendonitis?

A

-Resisted movement
-P! with stretching
-TTP
-No P! with PROM

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16
Q

What are the Signs and Sx of a Fracture?

A

-Point tenderness
-Local edema
-Subjective report of instability
-Deep/grinding P!

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17
Q

What are the phases of bone healing?

A

-Inflammatory phase: bleeding
-Soft Callus phase: Granulation tissue
-Hard Callus phase: Osteoblasts form new bone
-Clinical Union: takes approximately 6-8 weeks to

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18
Q

What are the phases of Tissue Healing?

A

-Acute Stage: Inflammatory response
-Subacute Stage: Repair Sequence/Fibroplastic
-Chronic Stage: Remodeling/Connective tissue formation

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19
Q

Which stage of healing occurs approximately 5-21 days post injury?

A

The Subacute (Repair/Fibroplastic) Stage

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20
Q

Which stage of healing occurs approximately 2-3 weeks post injury?

A

The Chronic (Remodeling) Stage

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21
Q

What Grade Sprain is…
-Microscopic tearing
-No joint laxity
-No/minimal swelling
-Local tenderness
-(-) joint stress test

A

Grade 1

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22
Q

What Grade Sprain is…
-Incomplete tearing
-Moderate joint laxity
-Localized swelling
-P! with WB
-Ecchymosis (Bleeding)
-Mild (+) stress test

A

Grade 2

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23
Q

What Grade Sprain is…
-Complete tear/rupture
-Profound joint laxity and instability
-Unable to WB
-Significant P! and swelling/ecchymosis
-Mod/severe joint stress test

A

Drade 3

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24
Q

What is the ultimate tensile strength of an injured ligament?

A

50-70%

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25
Q

What Degree Strain is…
-Stretch or minor tear
-Minor weakness, P!, swelling

A

1st Degree

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26
Q

What Degree Strain is…
-Moderate tear (50%)
-Moderate weakness, P!, swelling/bruise

A

2nd Degree

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27
Q

What Degree Strain is…
-Complete tear
-Major weakness, swelling/bruise, LOF
-No P!

A

3rd Degree

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28
Q

In what joint position should all joint mobilizations be performed in?

A

The open-packed position

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29
Q

What are the characteristics of the closed-packed postition?

A

-Most congruent position of the joint
-Joint surfaces aligned
-Capsule and ligaments are most taut

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30
Q

What are the Contraindications for Joint Mobilizations?

A

-Closed Pack position
-CA in area
-CNS disorder
-Vertebral artery disorder
-Joint infection
-Joint hypermobility
-Bone disease
-Osteoporosis
-RA
-Acute inflammation

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31
Q

What are the characteristics that predispose someone to arthritis?

A

-Obesity
-Age
-Gender
-Inactivity

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32
Q

Are men or women more affected by OA?

A

Women

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33
Q

What are Heberden’s nodes?

A

OA in the DIPs

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34
Q

What are Bouchard’s nodes?

A

OA in the PIPs

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35
Q

Definition: A chronic inflammatory systemic disease with gradual destruction of joint tissues resulting in deformity and disability.

A

RA

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36
Q

Is RA more prevalent in men or women?

A

Women

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37
Q

Which diagnosis causes MCP ulnar deviation?

A

RA

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38
Q

Which deformity caused by RA results in hyperextension of the PIPs and hyperflexion of the DIPs?

A

Swan Neck Deformity

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39
Q

Which deformity caused by RA results in hyperflexion of the PIPs and hyperextension of the DIPs

A

Boutonniere Deformity

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40
Q

What is Ankylosing Spondylitis also known as?

A

Fusing Spine

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41
Q

Are males or females more affected by Ankylosing Spondylitis?

A

Males

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42
Q

What term is used to describe the x-rayed spine of a patient with ankylosing spondilitis?

A

Bamboo Spine

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43
Q

What does SLE stand for?

A

Systemic Lupus Erythematosus

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44
Q

What kind of disease is SLE?

A

Autoimmune

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45
Q

Are females or males more affected by SLE?

A

Females

46
Q

What is typically the biggest sign a patient has Lupus?

A

A Butterfly Rash across the bridge of their nose and cheeks

47
Q

What are the Static Stabilizers of the shoulder?

A

Things like the bony geometry of the joint, the capsule, ligaments, intraarticular pressure, and the glenoid labrum

48
Q

What are the Dynamic Stabilizers of the shoulder?

A

Muscles
-Primary active stabilizers
-Rotator cuff muscles
-Deltoids
-Long head of biceps brachii
-Secondary active stabilizers
-Teres Major
-Lattisimus Dorsi
-Pectoralis Major

49
Q

How much smaller is the glenoid than the head of the humerus?

A

3-4 times smaller

50
Q

How much of the humeral head is in contact with the glenoid?

A

25-30%

51
Q

At what degree of elevation does the shoulder have the most articular contact?

A

60-120 degrees

52
Q

What is the purpose of the glenoid labrum?

A

Stability- it doubles the depth of the glenoid fossa from 2.5 to 5mm

53
Q

Which muscle inserts into the superior portion of the glenoid labrum?

A

The biceps brachii

54
Q

What are the rotator cuff muscles?

A

-Supraspinatus
-Infraspinatus
-Subscapularis
-Teres Minor

55
Q

When is shoulder surgery needed?

A

-If there is no improvement of Sx in 4-6 months
-Pt. <50 yo, full thickness tear

56
Q

What does SAD stand for?

A

Subacromial Decompression (Shoulder Arthroscopy)

57
Q

How is a SAD performed and for what reason?

A

-by releasing the tight ligament of the coracoacromial arch and shaving away some of the under surface of the acromion
-This raises the roof of the shoulder and allows relief of impingement symptoms

58
Q

What are the top goals post SAD?

A

-Restore PROM quickly
-Restore normal glenohumeral and scapulothoracic mechanics

59
Q

What are the goals for non-surgical treatment of Shoulder Impingement and Rotator Cuff Tears?

A

-Control Inflammation
-Activity Modification
-Restore ROM
-Scapular Stabilization
-Strengthening
-Restore functional motion

60
Q

How is a Bankart Repair performed?

A

The labrum is sutured directly back to the bone

61
Q

What does SLAP stand for

A

Superior Labrum Anterior Posterior

62
Q

What is the most common reason for TSA?

A

Uncontrolled P! secondary to arthritis in the shoulder?

63
Q

Why are Reverse TSAs usually performed?

A

When there is an inability to repair the rotator cuff tear

64
Q

Which muscles Flex the elbow?

A

-Biceps Brachii
-Brachialis
-Brachioradialis

65
Q

Which muscles Extend the elbow?

A

-Triceps
-Anconeus

66
Q

What is the difference between Tendonitis and Tendonosis?

A

-Tendonitis (tendon inflammation) is more short-term lasting <2 wks and has a 99% chance of full recovery
-Tendonosis (collagen degeneration) is more long-term lasting 6-10 weeks and only has an 80% chance of full recovery

67
Q

What is the most common elbow fracture in adults?

A

Radial head fracture

68
Q

Which Type Radial Head Fractures require surgery?

A

Types I-IV

69
Q

What travels through the Carpel Tunnel?

A

-9 Tendons
-The median nerve

70
Q

What travels through the Tunnel of Guyon

A

-Then ulnar nerve

71
Q

What are the Flexors of the Wrist?

A

-Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
-Flexor Carpi Radialis

72
Q

What are the Extensors of the Wrist?

A

-Extensor Carpi Radialis Longus
-Extensor Carpi Radialis Brevis
-Extensor Carpi Ulnaris

73
Q

What is the surgery performed for Carpel Tunnel Syndrome?

A

Retinaculum Release

74
Q

What is a Colles’ Fracture

A

(AKA Dinner Fork Deformity) Fx of distal radius with displacement in the dorsal direction
-Most common in females middle aged to elderly

75
Q

What is a Smith Fracture

A

A reverse Colles’ Fracture
-Distal radius displaced in the volar direction

76
Q

What is the most common Carpal Fracture?

A

Scaphoid Fracture

77
Q

Which diagnosis results in P! and edema in the snuff box or radial styloid

A

DeQuervain’s Tenosynovitis

78
Q

Which diagnosis results in a contracture of the finger flexors (most commonly the 4th and 5th)

A

Duyputren’s Contracture

79
Q

At what point is surgery needed for a Duyputren’s Contracture?

A

When the MCP is flexed >30 degrees

80
Q

What is the term used to describe a sprain to the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb which is caused by hyperextension and a valgus stress to the thumb?

A

Skier’s Thumb

81
Q

What are the Flexors of the Hip?

A

-Iliopsoas
-Rectus Femoris
-Pectineus
-TFL
-Sartorius

82
Q

What are the Abductors of the hip?

A

-Glute Med
-Glute Min
-TFL
-Sartorius

83
Q

What are the Adductors of the Hip?

A

-Gracilis
-Pectineus
-Quadratus Femoris
-Adductor Brevis
-Adductor Longus
-Adductor Magnus

84
Q

What are the Extensors of the Hip?

A

-Glute Max
-Semitendinosus
-Semimembranosus
-Biceps Femoris

85
Q

What are the Internal Rotators of the Hip?

A

-Glute Min
-Glute Med
-TFL

86
Q

What are the External Rotators of the Hip?

A

-Piriformis
-Quadratus Femoris
-Glute Max
-Gemellus Superior
-Obturator Internus
-Gemellus Inferior
-Obturator Externus

87
Q

What is the Pediatric form of AVN called?

A

Legg-Calve Perthes

88
Q

What is done for patients with Legg-Calve Perthes?

A

They usually have to wear a hip abduction brace for up to 2 years

89
Q

What is the difference between a THA and a hemiarthroplasty?

A

THA: replaces both the femoral head and acetabulum
Hemiarthroplasty: Only replaces the femoral head

90
Q

What are the THA precautions for the posterior approach?

A

-No flexion >90 degrees
-No internal rotation
-No adduction

91
Q

Which exercises should a THA patient not perform in the Max protection phase of recovery?

A

SLR or bridges

92
Q

Can THA patients in the Max protection phase perform AAROM exercises?

A

Yes, because tendons are not involved

93
Q

What is the capsular pattern of the hip?

A

Flexion > Abduction > IR

94
Q

Which diagnosis is caused by compression of the sciatic nerve as it pierces through the piriformis muscle?

A

Piriformis Syndrome

95
Q

Symptoms of which diagnosis: hip flexion and internal rotation often reproduce this pain, as does palpation of the sciatic nerve and gluteal region.

A

Piriformis Syndrome

96
Q

Which knee meniscus makes a C shape?

A

The Medial Meniscus

97
Q

Which movements result in an ACL injury?

A

-Hyperextension with a valgus stretch
-Quick change of direction while running, jumping, or turning

98
Q

What usually causes a PCL injury?

A

Posterior directed force on a flexed knee

99
Q

What are the ACL stability special tests?

A

-Lachmans’s
-Anterior Drawer

100
Q

What is the PCL stability special test?

A

Posterior Drawer

101
Q

Which exercises should you not give to an ACL patient in the max protection phase?

A

LAQs and SAQs

102
Q

What are the special tests for Meniscus Tears?

A

-McMurry’s
-Aply’s

103
Q

What kind of knee surgery is typically done for a meniscus repair?

A

Knee Arthroscopy

104
Q

What type of surgery is done for a HNP?

A

A Laminectomy

105
Q

Which movements are contraindicated for Max protection phase post laminectomy?

A

Bending
Lifting
Twisting

106
Q

What are the 4 stages of disc herniation?

A

-Degeneration
-Bulge or Prolapse
-Extruded Nucleus
-Sequestrated Nucleus

107
Q

What is Stenosis

A

Narrowing of the spinal canal

108
Q

What is Spondylosis?

A

OA of the spine

109
Q

What is Spondylolysis?

A

Stress fracture of the spine

110
Q

What is Spondylolisthesis?

A

Forward slippage of a vertebrae

111
Q

What type of exercises are best for spinal stenosis?

A

Flexion based

PTA 201 (5 decks)

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