FINAL EXAM Flashcards

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1
Q

What are the advantages of taking an individual test?

A
  • Provides a lot of information beyond the test score
  • Allows the examiner to observe behavior in a standard setting
  • Allows individual interpretation of test scores
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2
Q

What are the advantages of taking a group test?

A
  • Cost-efficient
  • Don’t need to settle for a test with poor psychometrics
  • Minimizes scoring time and scoring skill
  • More objective
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3
Q

What is an individual test?

A
  • One subject tested at a time
  • Examiner records response
  • Scoring requires considerable skill
  • Examiner flexibility can elicit maximum performance if permitted by standardization
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4
Q

What is a group test?

A
  • Many subjects are tested at one time
  • Subjects record their own responses
  • Scoring is straightforward and more objective
  • There is little flexibility
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5
Q

What four things should one take in mind when using group tests?

A
  • Use results with caution
  • Be suspicious of low scores
  • Consider wide discrepancies as a warning signal
  • When in doubt, refer them for individual testing
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6
Q

What is an achievement test?

A
  • Evaluating things you have already learned
  • Mainly used for evaluating a course of training
  • Rely heavily on content validation procedures
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7
Q

What is an aptitude test?

A
  • Evaluating the effects of an unknown, uncontrolled set of experiences
  • Evaluate the potential
  • Rely heavily on predictive criterion validity procedures
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8
Q

What is an example of an achievement test?

A

This test

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9
Q

What is an example of an aptitute test?

A

SAT, GRE, LSAT

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10
Q

What is grade inflation?

A
  • Professors give out too many A’s
  • Inflates the GPA of students
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11
Q

How does grade inflation impact college admissions?

A

made it harder for college admissions teams to distinguish between applicants

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12
Q

Major weaknesses of the ACT

A
  • doesn’t have high internal consistency
  • Restricted range on GPA predictions
  • Poor predictive power
  • Race and SES affect scores as well
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13
Q

Major weaknesses of the SAT

A
  • Test prep requires time, energy and money
  • Race and class biases associated with the SAT
  • Too much importance placed on the SAT
  • SAT alone not a strong predictor of college success
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14
Q

What effect do coaching/preparation courses have on tests like the SAT or GRE? What are the problems?

A

Effect: Point increases with coaching
Problems: Large financial and time investment

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15
Q

How well does the SAT predict undergraduate school performance?

A

correlation of .42 and 17% of variance
pretty good - undergraduate

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16
Q

How well does the GRE predict graduate school performance?

A
  • overpredicts young people, and underpredicts old people,
  • accounts for 5 to 11% of variance
  • correlation = .4 to .25 which isnot good
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17
Q

What is the best combination of predictors of undergraduate GPA?

A

Combination of SAT and high school records with correlation coefficients of 0.55 - 0.61

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18
Q

What is the Raven Progressive Matrices test?

A

Very popular nonverbal intelligence test

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19
Q

What is a major advantage of the Raven Progressive Matrices test?

A

minimizes language and culture differences
the best single measure of Spearman’s g available

CON: can’t compare to other test scores as easily

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20
Q

What is the relationship between socioeconomic status (SES) and GPA/standardized test scores?

A

Typically, the higher your SES, the higher your scores. Wealthy people have access to better preparations.

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21
Q

Define personality

A

the relatively stable and distinctive patterns of behavior that characterize an individual and his or her reactions to the environment

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22
Q

Define Personality Characteristics

A

nonintellective aspects of human behavior, typically distinguished from mental abilities

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23
Q

Define personality types

A

general descriptions of people
for example, avoiding types have low social interest and low activity and cope by avoiding social situations

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24
Q

Define personality traits

A

relatively enduring dispositions—tendencies to act, think, or feel in a certain manner in any given circumstance and that distinguish one person from another

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25
Q

Define personality states

A

emotional reactions that vary from one situation to another

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26
Q

Define self-concept

A

a person’s self-definition or an organized and relatively consistent set of assumptions that a person has about himself or herself

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27
Q

What are the two major strategies for the development of a personality test?

A

Deductive and empirical

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28
Q

What are the two deductive strategies for structured personality-test construction?

A

Logical content and theoretical

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29
Q

What is logical-content strategy?

A

uses reason and deductive logic in the development of personality measures

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30
Q

What is theoretical strategy?

A

begins with a theory about the nature of the particular characteristic to be measured

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31
Q

What are the empirical strategies for structured personality-test construction?

A

Criterion Group and Factor Analysis

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32
Q

What is criterion group strategy?

A

begins with a criterion group, or a collection of individuals who share a characteristic such as leadership or schizophrenia.
Test constructors select and administer a group of items to all the people in this criterion group as well as to a control group that represents the general population. Constructors then
attempt to locate items that distinguish the criterion and control groups, or how the two groups contrast

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33
Q

What is factor analysis strategy?

A

uses factor analysis to derive empirically the basic dimensions of personality

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34
Q

What is cross-validation?

A

Taking a test that you’ve already administered to a sample to another different sample, with the goal of trying to confirm its validity and reliability with that new sample

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35
Q

What are some of the criticisms of the original MMPI?

A

-Original standardization sample was not adequate
- Language was outdated in questions, some language was sexist,
- Not properly edited (there were grammatical errors, double negatives, etc.)
- too narrow of a scope (suicide attempts, drug and alcohol abuse not addressed in test)

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36
Q

What is the purpose of the MMPI?

A

the purpose is to diagnose or assess major psychiatric disorders
distinguishes normal from abnormal

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37
Q

How did the MMPI-II improve upon the original MMPI?

A
  • Updated and expanded norms
  • Revise and broaden scope of items (those that were sexist, out of date, etc.)
  • Develop an adolescent form
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38
Q

What scales are there for the MMPI and MMPI-II?

A

Validity, Clinical, Content

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39
Q

What is the validity scale for the MMPI?

A

meant to measure test-taking attitude and assess a normal honest approach

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40
Q

What is the clinical scale for the MMPI?

A

tries to identify psychological disorders

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41
Q

What is the content scale for the MMPI?

A

items that relate to specific content areas like intelligence or a disorder

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42
Q

What reading level is required for both the MMPI and MMPI-II?

A

At least an eighth-grade level

43
Q

Know the three validity scales of the MMPI

A

The L (lie) scale
The F (infrequency) scale
The K scale

44
Q

What does the L scale measure?

A
  • designed to evaluate a naive attempt to present oneself in a favorable light
  • People who score high on this scale are unwilling to acknowledge minor flaws.
45
Q

What does the F scale measure?

A

designed to find people “faking bad”
items that are scored infrequently (less than 10%) by the normal population
High score invalidates the profile

46
Q

What does the K scale measure?

A

detect attempts to deny problems and present oneself in a favorable light.
People who score high on this scale are attempting to project an image of self-control and personal effectiveness

47
Q

What is Code Typing on the MMPI? How has this been beneficial?

A

creating a personality profile based on the most extreme 2 or 3 MMPI scales
used to diagnose them for psychopathy

48
Q

Is there much empirical research on the MMPI and MMPI-II?

A

Yes, more than other personality tests

49
Q

What are the problems with factor analytic strategy?

A

subjective nature of naming the factors

50
Q

What are the three types of variance associated with factor analytic strategy?

A

Common variance, unique variance, error variance

51
Q

What is common variance?

A

the amount of variance a particular variable holds in common with other variables.
It results from the overlap of what two or more variables are measuring

52
Q

What is unique variance?

A

factors uniquely measured by the variable.
In other words, it refers to some construct measured only by the variable in question

53
Q

What is error variance?

A

variance attributable to error

54
Q

What kind of test-development strategy (or strategies) were used to develop the NEO-PI-R?

A

factor analysis and theory in item development and scale construction

55
Q

What does NEO stand for?

A

neuroticism, extroversion, and openness

56
Q

What are the five personality dimensions on the NEO-PI-PR?

A

Neuroticism
Extroversion
Openness
Conscientiousness
Agreeableness

57
Q

Define neuroticism

A

the degree to which a person is anxious and insecure as opposed to calm and self-confident.

58
Q

Define extroversion

A

the degree to which a person is sociable, leader-like, and assertive as opposed to withdrawn, quiet, and reserved.

59
Q

Define openness

A

the degree to which a person is imaginative and curious as opposed to concrete-minded and narrow in thinking.

60
Q

Define Conscientiousness

A

the degree to which a person is persevering, responsible, and organized as opposed to lazy, irresponsible, and impulsive

61
Q

Define agreeableness

A

the degree to which a person is warm and cooperative as opposed to unpleasant and disagreeable.

62
Q

Does IQ tell the whole story?

A

nope

63
Q

What is deliberate practice?

A

The use of activities that are specifically done in order to improve the current level of performance

64
Q

Characteristics of deliberate practice

A
  • Immediate feedback
  • Deliberate repeated actions.
  • Focus
  • Goal setting and perseverance is key
65
Q

Be able to give examples of deliberate practice and how it differs from other kinds of practice.

A

Practicing a hard part on the piano that you have not yet been able to master for an hour vs playing twinkle, twinkle, little star everyday on the piano for a hour (a lot of questions about this on the test)

66
Q

What is the 10-year/10,000-hour rule?

A

It takes 10,000 hours of deliberate practice to be an expert

67
Q

Be able to name some people who exemplify deliberate practice.

A

Surgeons, musicians, athletes

68
Q

Operational definition

A

the way you are going to measure your hypothetical construct

69
Q

Hypothetical construct

A

an unmeasurable phenomenon that we infer exists and that gives rise to a measurable phenomenon
Used to develop tests

70
Q

What is the regression formula? Understand the different components of the formula and how they are applied.

A

Y = bX + a
Y: expected value
a: the y-intercept
X: the average
B: the slope

71
Q

What components make up Classical Test Score Theory?

A

X = T + E
X: score
T: True score
E: error

72
Q

In what ways can error impact the observed score?

A

The amount of error impacts how good of an estimator the observed score is of the true score. The less error the better the estimate.

73
Q

Test reliability is usually estimated in one of what three ways? Know the major concepts in each way.

A

Test-retest: Take the same test twice
Parallel forms: Take two similar tests
Split halves: Split the test into two equally difficult parts and compare

74
Q

What is reliability? What does low/high reliability mean for measures? How can one address/improve low reliability?

A

How consistently a test gets the same results. Bigger sample improves reliability

75
Q

What is systematic error in a test called?

A

bias

76
Q

What is the relationship between reliability and validity

A

You need reliability for validity, but do not need validity for reliability

77
Q

What is validity?

A

Does the test measure what it reports to measure

78
Q

Define criterion validity

A

How well test scores correspond with a particular criterion

79
Q

Define content validity

A

the degree to which a measure represents the concept it is designed to measure

80
Q

Define construct validity

A

the degree to which a measure measures the hypothesized construct

81
Q

What pre-requisites exist for validity

A

Reliability, variability, correlation

82
Q

Why is construct validity the “mother of all validities”?

A

Every other aspect of validity tries to add to construct validity

83
Q

What are the two types of evidence for construct-related validity?

A

convergent and discriminant

84
Q

What is discriminant validity?

A

shows the test has uniqueness; low correlations with unrelated constructs

85
Q

What is convergent validity?

A

shows that the test measures the same thing as similar tests

86
Q

What is the validity coefficient?

A

correlation between a test and criterion - just looking at the correlation
How much trust you can put in the test to predict the criterion

87
Q

What is the meaning of a squared validity coefficient?

A

deals with prediction, percent of the variation in criterion we can know because of the test score
Also known as the “coefficient of determination”

88
Q

What is the relationship between test examiner race and intelligence scores?

A

If highly standardized, effects are minimal, if there are untrained individuals it has a larger effect

89
Q

What are expectancy effects? What is another name for these effects?

A

Results are affected by what the experimenter expects to find
Rosenthal Effects

90
Q

What is the halo effect? Be able to identify examples of when the halo effect would apply

A

When you attribute things to someone that isn’t due to the trait because of one dominant, positive trait
Ex. Someone is kind based on their attractiveness

91
Q

What is social facilitation? Be prepared to identify examples

A

Social facilitation is the ability to act like the models around you
If you project a mood, the interviewee responds in kind
Exhibit the qualities you want in your interview
Provide a relaxed and safe atmosphere through social facilitation
Remain in control
Set the tone
Act how you want them to act

92
Q

What is positive manifold?

A

the idea that when a set of diverse ability tests are administered to large unbiased samples of the population, almost all correlations are positive.- showing the g (general mental ability) affects all tests

93
Q

What is g? Understand fluid vs. crystallized intelligence.

A

G: overall intelligence
Fluid: abilities that allow us to reason, think, acquire new knowledge
Crystallized: represents the knowledge and understanding we’ve acquired

94
Q

Understand the analysis and purpose of factor analysis.

A
  • Data reduction technique
  • A method for reducing a set of variables or scores to a smaller number of hypothetical variables called factors.
  • Helps determine how much variance a set of tests or scores has in common.
  • Helps you understand which constructs are really being measured by your item
95
Q

Sensitivity

A

accuracy of the test in identifying the disorder/delay/etc
Risk of false positives: tested for it, but does not have it
Sum of true pos/sum condition positive
Example: want high specificity for tests measuring things with intense treatments/medications - personality disorders, ADHD
Pregnancy, learning disabilities

96
Q

Specificity

A

accuracy of the test in identifying those who are NOT delayed/ do NOT have disorders
True negative: does not have it and does not test for it
Sum true negative/sum condition negative
Example: want high specificity for tests measuring things with high costs
Cancer treatments, personality disorders

97
Q

What is the discrepancy hypothesis? What does this do for psychometrics?

A

Discrepancies in children’s scores result in diagnoses of learning disabilities,
Fallacy because some kids are lazy or didn’t want to focus on the test etc.
2 standard deviations below the mean = learning disability.

98
Q

One problem with the use of category rating scales is __________

A

responses are sometimes influenced by the anchors used to contextualize the scale

99
Q

If the scores on X give us no information about the scores on Y, this indicates

A

no correlation

100
Q

The primary differences between a z-score and a T-score is

A

the mean and standard deviation

101
Q

Scales of measurement differ from one another in terms of

A

magnitude, absolute zero, and equal intervals.

102
Q

An interviewer is relaxed and genuinely enjoying her interaction with a client. The client then feels more at ease and offers more information about himself. This is an example of

A

social facilitation

103
Q

Among his motivations for the development of the Wechsler scales of intelligence, was David Wechsler’s belief that

A

IQ scores were influenced by lots of things besides IQ

104
Q

The Woodcock-Johnson-III is a test of

A

achievement