Final Exam Flashcards

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1
Q

what range does endocrine signal

A

long distance

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2
Q

what range does juxtacrine signal

A

adjacent

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3
Q

what does paracrine signal

A

close proximity

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4
Q

what does autocrine signal

A

self stimulating

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5
Q

what is being signaled?

A

hormones, lipids, proteins, sometimes gases.

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6
Q

what is metabolism

A

The sum of all reactions, catabolic and anabolic reactions.
Refers to all the bodily activities and chemical reactions in an organism that maintains life.

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7
Q

what is catabolic reactions

A

breaks down compounds; generates energy (ATP).

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8
Q

what are anabolic reactions

A

creating compounds; consumes energy (ATP).

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9
Q

what is metabolism related to

A

body temperature

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10
Q

what is metabolic rate

A

Rate at which an organism uses energy to power these reactions.

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11
Q

what does leptin do

A

a hormone that is secreted in order to feel satiated; long term.

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12
Q

what does ghrelin do

A

a hormone that is secreted before eating for salivation; short term.

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13
Q

what is the metabolic pathway

A

Protein A to Amino Acid B through enzyme X, so on and so forth by enzyme Z and Y until we get the final product.

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14
Q

pathway for glucose

A

Glucose is broken down, releasing ATP through each step, resulting in CO2 and H2O.

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15
Q

what two phases are used for nutrient utilization

A

absorptive and postabsorptive

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16
Q

what is the absorptive phase

A

occurs when ingested nutrients enter the bloodstream from the GI tract.
Some of the ingested nutrients are used for immediate energy needs, others stored.
About 4 hours.

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17
Q

what is the postabsorptive phase

A

occurs when the GI tract is empty of nutrients, and body’s stores are used.
About 12 hours, but can go up to 2 weeks.

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18
Q

what are the main sources of nutrition

A

carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins.
Carbohydrates: mostly glucose; sometimes other sugars.
Lipids: Triglycerides; sometimes other fats.
Proteins: amino acids are broken down into ATP if starving; amino acids that are taken in are broken down into triglycerides.

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19
Q

what are the two most important metabolic organs

A

pancreas and liver

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20
Q

what does the liver do metabolically

A

filters toxins that are consumed; stores glucose in the form of glycogen; generates bile that emulsifies toxins to be secreted.

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21
Q

what does the pancreas do metabolically

A

makes and secretes key digestive enzymes, like amylase; also makes and secretes bicarbonate that neutralizes stomach acid.

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22
Q

what do glycosidic bonds do

A

Glycosidic bonds alpha 1 and 4 break down glycogen; alpha 1 and 6 break down starch.

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23
Q

what sugar does the skeleton store

A

glycogen

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24
Q

what two organs need energy constantly

A

heart and brain

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25
Q

what energy will the brain use

A

only sugar

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26
Q

what energy will the heart use

A

any energy

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27
Q

difference between liver and muscle sugar retention

A

liver shares the sugar while the muscles keep it.

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28
Q

what happens when glucose is broken down

A

made into maltose, which is 2 glucoses

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29
Q

what is a sucrose molecule made from

A

fructose and glucose

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30
Q

what is a lactose molecule made from

A

glucose and galactose

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31
Q

what sugars are disaccharides

A

maltose, sucrose, and lactose

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32
Q

which sugars are monomers

A

glucose, fructose, galactose

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33
Q

what happens to the sugar the liver cannot store

A

converted into fat

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34
Q

what is most sugar made into

A

used to synthesize ATP

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35
Q

what are major sugar polymers

A

glycogen and starch

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36
Q

what is lipase

A

an enzyme that digests fats

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37
Q

what is a micelle

A

aggregation of lipids in water (3 carbons with a phosphate attachment)

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38
Q

what are lipoproteins

A

store triglycerides, which together are called chylomicron, which can be released into the lymph vessels/bloodstream through exocytosis.

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39
Q

how are triglycerides digested

A

too large to diffuse across the plasma membrane of intestinal epithelial cells.
Digested into monoglycerides and fatty acids.
Diffuse into intestinal epithelial cells.
Resynthesized

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40
Q

what happens to absorbed amino acids

A

Taken up by all body cells.
Used to synthesize proteins.
Excess amino acids not stored as protein.
Excess are converted by liver cells into fatty acids and then triglycerides.
Waste, especially urine, is nitrogenous due to excess amino acids.

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41
Q

Properties of vitamins, minerals, and water

A

Do not require digestion.
Absorbed in complete form.
fat-soluble vitamins follow pathways for fat absorption.
Small amounts of water are absorbed in the stomach but most in the small intestine.

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42
Q

what are the two types of vitamins and minerals

A

water soluble and oil/lipid based

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43
Q

examples of water soluble and lipid based vitamins/minerals

A

Water soluble: vitamin B and C (all versions).
Oil/Lipid: A, D, E, K; absorption is the same as lipids.

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44
Q

what happens during the postabsorptive phase

A

Synthesis of glycogen and fats slows and breakdown begins.
the liver produces glucose to maintain blood-glucose concentrations through the degradation of glycogen (glycogenolysis) and the synthesis of glucose (gluconeogenesis) from lactate, pyruvate, glucogenic amino acids (principally alanine), and glycerol.
Using fat instead of glucose for energy (glucose sparing).

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45
Q

5 mechanisms for generating glucose in bloodstream

A

Liver breaks down glycogen (glycogenolysis) and converts it into glucose;
Muscles harvest their own glycogen and glucose; also use glycogenolysis.
Gluconeogenesis is when cells make their own glucose through broken down lipids (lipolysis) to turn it into glucose.
Breakdown of proteins.
Glucose sparing: Fatty acids can be catabolized by many cells, especially aerobic muscle fibers.Glucose needs to get through the GLUT protein on PM. There are 14 different versions, but GLUT 1, 3, and 4 are the most important. Each GLUT has different glucose affinities. 4 has low affinity for glucose and is the only one requiring insulin, muscle and fat; GLUT 1 and 3 have high affinity. Insulin then binds to the receptor when glucose is detected in the body. Which will send a signal to the nucleus which will produce more activity for the GLUT proteins. Insulin helps digest the sugar.

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46
Q

what do neurons have a high affinity for

A

GLUT transporters

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47
Q

what does the rest of the body have a low affinity for

A

GLUTs

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48
Q

what is the definition of glucose sparing

A

the neurons and brain will always get priority for glucose. Whatever is left over is for the body.

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49
Q

where is insulin made

A

pancreas

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50
Q

what inhibits glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis in the liver.

A

insulin

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51
Q

What do GLUTs do

A

GLUTs transport glucose across the plasma membrane by means of a facilitated diffusion mechanism.

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52
Q

what stimulates glucose diffusion into cells

A

insulin

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53
Q

what is a calorie

A

amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water 1 degree celsius.
Kcals are commonly used.

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54
Q

How are carbohydrates digested, absorbed and stored?

A

absorbed into the small intestine. Once they’re absorbed, they’re processed even more by the liver and stored as glycogen. Other glucose is moved through the body by the bloodstream. The hormone insulin is released from the pancreas and allows the glucose to be used as energy.

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55
Q

How are lipids digested, absorbed and stored?

A

In the small intestines bile emulsifies fats while enzymes digest them. The intestinal cells absorb the fats. Long-chain fatty acids form a large lipoprotein structure called a chylomicron that transports fats through the lymph system.
Lipids are stored in the body in different forms such as, triglycerides, fat cells, cell membranes and lipoproteins.

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56
Q

How are proteins digested, absorbed and stored?

A

Mechanical digestion of protein begins in the mouth and continues in the stomach and small intestine. Chemical digestion of protein begins in the stomach and ends in the small intestine. hydrochloric acid and enzymes called proteases break it down into smaller chains of amino acids. The pancreas secretes digestive juices into the small intestine, and these contain more enzymes to further break down polypeptides. The body can’t store protein, so once needs are met, any extra is used for energy or stored as fat.

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57
Q

Describe the different mechanism that mammals (humans) use to maintain glucose
homeostasis.

A

Together, insulin and glucagon help maintain homeostasis, where conditions inside the body hold steady. When a person’s blood sugar is too high, their pancreas secretes more insulin. When their blood sugar levels drop, their pancreas releases glucagon to raise them.

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58
Q

primary function of the circulatory system is

A

Transport necessary materials to the cells of an animal’s body.
Transport waste products away from cells so they can be released into the environment.

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59
Q

what are the three types of circulatory system

A

gastrovascular cavity, open circulatory systems, closed circulatory systems

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60
Q

gastrovascular cavity properties

A

ascular cavity
Body cavity with a single opening.
Jellyfish, anemones, hydras.
Food is digested in the cavity and absorbed into cells.
Wastes are excreted into cavities.
All of the animal’s body cells must be located near the cavity or in slender extensions.
Muscular efforts of the cell wall increase effectiveness.
Cell wall must be thin in order for exchange.

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61
Q

open circulatory system properties

A

Arthropods and some mollusks.
Basic components: hemolymphs (mixture of blood and interstitial fluid), vessels, one or more hearts.
Vessels open into the animal’s body cavity.

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62
Q

closed circulatory system properties

A

Blood and interstitial fluid are physically separated; differ in components and chemical composition.
Larger, more active animals need a high pressure to pump blood to all body cells.
Found in earthworms, cephalopods, and all vertebrates.
Advantages/features: redirects blood; always a heart (pump); cells within blood work as a defense mechanism (immune system); has the ability to repair; when growing, more vessels also grow; can adapt to metabolism; transportation.

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63
Q

solutes in gas exchange

A

O2 and CO2

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64
Q

what is single circulation

A

Blood delivers oxygen and nutrients to the cells.
Blood picks up carbon dioxide and waste products.
Deoxygenated blood is returned by veins to the heart.
Examples: fish.
Heart valves prevent backwards flow.

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65
Q

what is double circulation

A

Major advantage of double circulation: two different blood pressures in two different systems.
CO2 blood comes from heart to lung, oxygenated by lungs, flows back into the heart, and oxygen is pumped out to the rest of the body.
The heart acts as a dual dump; still has the pulmonary and systemic pathways.

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66
Q

what is intermediate circulation

A

Two atria to collect blood.
Right atrium: blood from the body that is low in oxygen.
Left atrium: blood from the lungs that is oxygen-rich.
Pulmonary pathway: arteries go only to the lungs.
Systemic pathway: arteries go to the body.
Advantages: skin can carry out gas exchanges.
Disadvantages: CO2 reflow.
Examples: amphibians.

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67
Q

what is hemolymph

A

the major transport medium for the exchange of materials between cells, such as hormones, waste materials, and nutrients. Through its regulation of ionic and chemical composition, it maintains the proper internal environment for cells as an extracellular extension of intracellular fluids (INSECTS)

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68
Q

what is the atrium

A

heart chamber that receives blood into the heart and drives it into a ventricle, or chamber, for pumping blood away from the heart.

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69
Q

what is the ventricle

A

muscular chamber that pumps blood out of the heart and into the circulatory system.

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70
Q

what are the 3 components of blood

A

plasma, hematocrit, and buffy coat

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71
Q

what is the plasma

A

Plasma is 55% of all blood and is mostly water, but contains albumin, globular proteins (antibodies).
Gases include CO2 and O2.
Acids and bases are in the forms of molecules.
Nutrients include amino acids and sugars.
Other proteins include complement proteins (immune system).

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72
Q

what is the hematocrit

A

Hematocrit includes RBC, which is 45% of blood.

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73
Q

what is the buffy coat

A

The Buffy coat represents about 1% of blood; it contains white blood cells.

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74
Q

what are the two classes of WBC

A

lymphoid and myeloid

75
Q

what does lymphoid do

A

make T and B cells, NK cells

76
Q

what does myeloid make

A

makes macrophages (8-10%), neutrophils (62% of cells in the blood), basophils, eosinophils, Mast cells.

77
Q

why do RBCs have a concave shape`

A

to exchange gases quicker

78
Q

why is blood 38 degrees celsius

A

absorbs heat from muscles and distributes it

79
Q

what are erythrocytes

A

immature RBCs, which have a nucleus and a mitochondria. When mature, RBCs will have no nucleus or mitochondria.

80
Q

what is hemoglobin

A

a red protein responsible for transporting oxygen in the blood of vertebrates. Its molecule comprises four subunits, each containing an iron atom bound to a heme group.

81
Q

what is the creation of RBCs called

A

erythropoiesis

82
Q

what is a hormone that promotes RBC creation

A

EPO

83
Q

what are platelets made out of

A

megakaryocyte fragments

84
Q

what are the steps for wound healing

A

Platelets stick to each other and form a platelet plug; collagen fibers also form.
Platelets send clotting factor signals to the bloodstream and attract more platelets.
Fibrogen is the precursor to fibrin.
Fibrin is triggered, which forms a meshwork; it acts like tape.

85
Q

what is pulmonary circulation

A

Pulmonary circulation moves blood between the heart and the lungs. It transports deoxygenated blood to the lungs to absorb oxygen and release carbon dioxide. The oxygenated blood then flows back to the heart.

86
Q

what is systemic circulation

A

Systemic circulation carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle, through the arteries, to the capillaries in the tissues of the body. From the tissue capillaries, the deoxygenated blood returns through a system of veins to the right atrium of the heart.

87
Q

what are the atrioventricular valves

A

The mitral and tricuspid atrioventricular (AV) valves separate the atria from the ventricles, and prevent backflow

88
Q

what are the semilunar valves

A

half-moon-shaped leaflets of endocardium and connective tissues, situated between the aorta and the left ventricle and between the pulmonary artery and the right ventricle. These valves permit blood to be forced into the arteries, but prevent backflow from the arteries into the ventricles.

89
Q

what is the sinoatrial node

A

There is a pacemaker (SA node) in the right atrium that leaks ions so neurons don’t need to be used. Makes both atriums contract. Pacemaker contracts on its own.

90
Q

what are arteries

A

pumps blood away from the heart
Large arteries to small arteries to arterioles to capillaries.
High pressure and high proteins.
Water and solutes leave capillaries.

91
Q

blood vessels that carry blood away biggest to smallest

A

arteries to arterioles to capillaries

92
Q

what are veins

A

vessels that bring blood back to the heart
Large veins to small veins to venules to capillaries.
Low pressure and high proteins.
Thinner and less muscular than arteries.
Need Help returning blood to heart, so smooth muscle contractions and valves inside veins that are squeezed by skeletal muscle return blood.
Water and solutes (albumin) enter capillary.

93
Q

blood vessels that bring blood to the heart biggest to smallest

A

veins to venules to capillaries

94
Q

What are capillaries

A

Capillaries are where gas exchange occurs.
Capillaries branch off, creating capillary beds, and converge together to become the venules.
Capillaries have thick lumens for muscle and elastic connective tissue, which helps blood move forward.
Cells are heavily reliant on capillaries, so capillaries will be everywhere.
Fenestrated capillaries have holes within the cells of capillaries.

95
Q

what is the main function of the circultory system

A

to bring oxygen and nutrients to cells.
`

96
Q

what are lymph vessels

A

resemble veins and have openings that collect the excess water and solutes. Right before blood reaches the vena cava, the fluid is replaced.

97
Q

what is ventilation

A

the flow of air into and out of the alveoli

98
Q

what is true about oxygen

A

not easily dissolvable in water
cold water will make oxygen dissolve easier
ions/solutes in water will make it hard for O2 to dissolve
oxygen wants to go from high to low pressure

99
Q

what are gills

A

respiratory membrane for aquatic animals; can be internal or external.

100
Q

how do gills work

A

water runs through gills, which are filled with capillaries. dissolved oxygen goes through capillaries.

101
Q

what is buccal pumping

A

when a fish takes water into its mouth and pushes it out.

102
Q

what is ram ventilation

A

when the fish needs to have its mouth open and constant movement to create a current.

103
Q

what are the 4 main respiratory systems

A

Body surface
Gills
Trachea
Lungs

104
Q

common features of ALL respiratory systems

A

Moist surfaces for gas diffusion and dissolving
High SA for gas exchange
Extensive blood flow
Thin, delicate structure.

105
Q

what is a trachea

A

prevalent in insects; found in their skin.
Trachea to tracheoles to muscle.
Allows for a high metabolism.

106
Q

what are spiricles

A

openings on the body of insects that they breathe through

107
Q

Distinguish between conducting vs. respiratory zones.

A

The conducting zone, which includes everything from the nose to the smallest bronchioles, moves air into and out of the lungs. The respiratory zone includes the respiratory bronchioles and alveoli and moves the respiratory gases, that is oxygen and carbon dioxide, in and out of the blood.

108
Q

what is positive ventilation

A

which lung distension occurs through increasing pressure in the airways.

109
Q

what is negative ventilation

A

lung inflation by distending the rib cage and abdomen.

110
Q

what are the two muscles used for breathing

A

diaphragm and intercostals

111
Q

what happens when the diaphragm is relaxed

A

air is pushed out

112
Q

what happens when diaphragm is contracted

A

air pushed in

113
Q

why do intercostals contract

A

to increase chest volume

114
Q

where does gas exchange happen in the lungs

A

alveoli

115
Q

what is the terminal bronchiole

A

the last part of the conducting portion of the respiratory system; distributes air across all parts of the lung

116
Q

what do alveoli do

A

moving air in and out of your lungs (ventilation)
oxygen-carbon dioxide exchange (diffusion)
pumping blood through your lungs (perfusion)

117
Q

parts of the respiratory system

A

Cavity to trachea to bronchi and bronchioles to alveoli

118
Q

what are alveolar type 1 cells

A

a complex branched cell with multiple cytoplasmic plates that are greatly attenuated and relatively devoid of organelles; these plates represent the gas exchange surface in the alveolus.

119
Q

what are type 2 alveolar cells

A

defenders of the alveoli by secreting surfactant, keeping the alveolar space relatively free from fluid, serving as progenitor cells to repopulate the epithelium after injury, and providing important components of the innate immune system.

120
Q

what is tidal volume

A

the amount of air that moves in or out of the lungs with each respiratory cycle

121
Q

tidal volumes for the lungs

A

Tidal volume (regular breathing) is 500 mL.
Inspiratory reserve volume: 3100 mL.
Expiratory reserve volume: 1200 mL
Residual volume: 1200 mL

122
Q

what is surfactant

A

a complex mixture of specific lipids, proteins and carbohydrates, which is produced in the lungs by type II alveolar epithelial cells. The mixture is surface active and acts to decrease surface tension at the air–liquid interface of the alveoli.

123
Q

What is external vs. internal respiration?

A

External respiration, also known as breathing, involves both bringing air into the lungs (inhalation) and releasing air to the atmosphere (exhalation). During internal respiration, oxygen and carbon dioxide are exchanged between the cells and blood vessels.

124
Q

what does the nasal cavity do

A

humidify, warm, filter, and act as a conduit for inspired air, as well as protect the respiratory tract through the use of the mucociliary system. The nasal cavity also houses the receptors responsible for olfaction

125
Q

what does the pharynx do

A

carries air, food and fluid down from the nose and mouth.

126
Q

what does the trachea do

A

carry oxygen-rich air to your lungs. They also carry carbon dioxide, a waste gas, out of your lungs.

127
Q

what does the bronchi do

A

distribute the air throughout the lungs until reaching the respiratory bronchioles and alveolar sacs

128
Q

what do nose hairs a mucus do

A

trap particles from entering your lungs

129
Q

what are the 3 types of pathogens

A

Bacteria (extra and intra), viruses (intra), parasites (extra).

130
Q

what do bacterial pathogens do

A

Major entry points through direct bodily contact, open wounds, inhalation, and ingestion.

131
Q

what are viruses

A

Nucleic acids enclosed in a proteins coat.
Must infect the host cell to replicate.
May kill the host cell rapidly or lie in a dormant period.
May cause cancer.

132
Q

what are parasites

A

Protists, fungi, worms.
damage the host by using host nutrients or secreting toxic chemicals.

133
Q

what are innate defenses

A

the defense system with which you were born. It protects you against all antigens. Innate immunity involves barriers that keep harmful materials from entering your body. These barriers form the first line of defense in the immune response.

134
Q

properties of the innate defense

A

always ‘on’.
Includes the skin, mucus membranes, phagocytes, fevers, NK cells, antimicrobial proteins, inflammation.
The skin has a low pH and is very salty, secretes enzymes that can digest things.
Skin and mucous membranes are the first line of defense.
Everything else above is the second line of defense; found in your blood.
Nonspecific and protects against all foreign substances.
An inherent ability.
Does not require prior exposure to invaders.
Recognizes a general, conserved property that marks invaders as foreign.

135
Q

what are adaptive defenses

A

consists of antibodies and lymphocytes, often called the humoral response and the cell mediated response. The term ‘adaptive’ refers to the differentiation of self from non-self, and the tailoring of the response to the particular foreign invader.

136
Q

properties of the adaptive defense

A

must be turned ‘on.’
Includes B cells and T Cells.
Humoral immunity is B cells and cellular immunity is T cells.
Recognizes specific foreign substances.
Acts to immobilize, neutralize, or destroy foreign substances.
Amplifies inflammatory response and activates complement.

137
Q

what are the Major Principles of the immune system

A

Recognition (innate)
Immune effector function (what mechanism is used to fight invaders)
Immune regulation (on/off switch)
Memory in order to remember pathogens for future exposures (adaptive immunity)

138
Q

where are T and B cells taught

A

in the thymus and bone marrow; taught to not kill parts of the body

139
Q

what happens when T and B cells mature

A

Selected for functionality and competence (in primary immune tissue); allowed to leave primary tissue

140
Q

what is positive selection

A

when T and B cells are competent

141
Q

what is tolerance

A

the immune system accepts your cells and does not attack your body; cells are taught tolerance

142
Q

what is negative selection

A

when several cell types are removed, leaving the cell type of interest untouched.

143
Q

what is the first line of defense

A

surface barriers, like skin and mucous membranes

144
Q

what is the second line of defense

A

the non-specific phagocytes and other internal mechanisms that comprise innate immunity.

145
Q

what is the third line of defense

A

the adaptive immunity

146
Q

what are T cells

A

part of the immune system and develop from stem cells in the thymus.

147
Q

what are CD8 cells

A

kill virus-infected cells and produce antiviral cytokines such as interferon gamma. In this way, CD8 T lymphocytes contribute to resisting primary and secondary viral infections.

148
Q

what are CD4 cells

A

a type of white blood cell. They’re also called CD4 T lymphocytes or “helper T cells.” That’s because they help fight infection by triggering your immune system to destroy viruses, bacteria, and other germs that may make you sick.
activate all other killing cells; CD4 does not kill.
regulates/shuts down all other killing cells.

149
Q

what are MHCs

A

group of genes that code for proteins found on the surfaces of cells that help the immune system recognize foreign substances

150
Q

Class I MHC

A

found in all cells in the body, including immune; CD8 cells.

151
Q

Class II MHC

A

found only in immune cells; can only activate CD4 cells.

152
Q

what is tissue graphing based on

A

MHCs

153
Q

what is MHC used for

A

recognition from the macrophages to the T cells.

154
Q

what cytotoxins do CD8 cells have

A

perfins (makes holes in the cell) and granzymes (triggers apoptosis).

155
Q

what cells do not have MHC

A

Neurons, ovaries, testes, and RBC

156
Q

how many MHCs does it take to activate CD8 and CD4 cells

A

at least 50

157
Q

what are the primary lymphoid tissues

A

bone marrow and thymus

158
Q

what are the secondary lymphoid tissues

A

Tonsils, lymph nodes, spleen, Peyer patches, lymphatic vessels.

159
Q

properties of lymph nodes

A

only have two exits for fluid in order for cells to make contact with the pathogen.
Where immune responses take place (kill the pathogen).

160
Q

what are leukocytes

A

part of the body’s immune system. They help the body fight infection and other diseases. Types of leukocytes are granulocytes (neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils), monocytes, and lymphocytes (T cells and B cells).

161
Q

what are dendritic cells

A

A special type of immune cell that is found in tissues, such as the skin, and boosts immune responses by showing antigens on its surface to other cells of the immune system.

162
Q

examples of dendritic cells

A

the skin; inner lining of the nose, lungs, stomach and intestines.

163
Q

what happens to T cells when exposed

A

they differentiate into helper, regulatory, or cytotoxic T cells or become memory T cells

164
Q

what do B cells differentiate to when exposed to

A

plasma cell only

165
Q

what are the most important phagocytes

A

macrophages and neutrophils

166
Q

what are macrophages

A

specialised cells involved in the detection, phagocytosis and destruction of bacteria and other harmful organisms. In addition, they can also present antigens to T cells and initiate inflammation by releasing molecules (known as cytokines) that activate other cells.

167
Q

what are granulocytes

A

A type of immune cell that has granules (small particles) with enzymes that are released during infections, allergic reactions, and asthma. Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils are granulocytes.

168
Q

What is clonal selection? What type of cells can undergo clonal selection?

A

Clonal selection is a process by which the body produces B and T cells to respond to infections. These cells each have unique receptors that allow them to identify specific pathogens.

169
Q

what are compliment proteins

A

Kills microbes without phagocytosis.
Uses membrane attack complex (MAC) to create channels in microbial plasma membrane.
Causes microbes to burst.

170
Q

How do antibodies help fight pathogens?

A

(i) binding to and blocking the pathogen’s receptors, thus causing neutralization of the pathogen, (ii) binding to the pathogen and activating complement, and (iii) binding to the pathogen and facilitating its opsonization and uptake by macrophages

171
Q

How do T cells help fight pathogens?

A

Some T cells act as “killer” cells, attacking cells that have already been infected by a virus. Other “helper” T cells assist the immune system in creating antibodies through B cells.

172
Q

What is the function of immune memory T and B cells?

A

maintain a heightened ability to mount a response to a recurrence of infection with the same pathogen. The antibody and memory T cells remaining in an immunized individual also prevent the activation of naive B and T cells by the same antigen.

173
Q

feautures of memory T cells

A

They respond more rapidly and effectively to antigen exposure than naive cells.

174
Q

features of memory B cells

A

long lifespan, high sensitivity to low doses of antigen, quick and robust proliferation, and rapid differentiation into plasma cells that produce high-affinity antibodies during the secondary response.

175
Q

what are PAMPs

A

activate innate immune responses, protecting the host from infection, by identifying some conserved nonself molecules.

176
Q

two ways to activate infalmmation

A

Damaged cells due to released content.
Immune cells can turn on inflammation with the breakdown of protein triggers.

177
Q

characterization of inflammation

A

Redness, pain, heat, swelling (edema), acute
Blood is brought more to the site due to vessels swelling, bring more nutrients and immune cells. Blood also promotes faster repair and isolation.
Repair is delayed if cold or anti inflammatories.

178
Q

what is interferon gamma

A

antimicrobial protein
Inhibits viral replication inside host cells.
Not specific to a particular virus.

179
Q

what is the process for any invaded cell

A

Macrophage to MHC I to T Cell/CD8

180
Q

what is the process for invaded immune cell

A

Macrophage to MHC II to T Cell/CD4.

181
Q

what is the difference between BCRs and TCRs

A

B cells can recognize two ligands with Y-shaped receptors.
B Cell receptors also are secreted to the outside, which create antibodies.
Once a B cell is activated, it’s called a plasma cell.

182
Q

3 stages for aquired immune response

A

Recognition of an antigen (epitome)
Epitome recognizes specific parts of the
pathogen instead of the whole thing.
Activation and proliferation of lymphocytes.
Clonal selection is when a B cell is proliferated
more because it recognizes the pathogen
specifically.
Effector function: attack against antigen.
Effector function is how they attack.

183
Q

what do antibodies do

A

label pathogens, they do not kill

184
Q

what do IgG and IgM do

A

most abundant immunoglobulins in mammals.
Provide bulk of specific immunity against bacteria