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Animal Biology BIOL152 Flashcards

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1
Q

what are the common characteristics for animals

A

multicellular, heterotrophs, no cell walls, nervous tissue, movement, sexual reproduction, extracellular matrix, cell junctions, Hox gene clusters, similar RNA.

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2
Q

how many animal phylae are there

A

36

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3
Q

how much of the 36 animal phylae are vertebrates

A

99%

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4
Q

how species of vertebrates are there

A

42,000

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5
Q

what is the size range of vertebrates

A

microscopic to whales

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6
Q

what are the morphological and developmental features of animals

A

presence or absence of different tissue types, body symmetry types, embryonic development features, body cavities and segmentation, exoskeleton or notochord.

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7
Q

what are metazoas

A

multicellular, eukaryotic organisms in the biological kingdom Animalia (all animals)

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8
Q

how are metazoas based

A

specialized tissues

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9
Q

what are parazoas

A

a group of invertebrate animals coextensive with Porifera and comprising multicellular forms; SPONGES

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10
Q

what do parazoa not have

A

specialized tissues and organs

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11
Q

what are eumetazoas

A

a major division of the animal kingdom comprising all multicellular forms except the sponges; more than 1 types of tissue and organs.

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12
Q

what is the symmetry of eumetazoans

A

radically or bilaterally

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13
Q

what are bilateria

A

bilaterally symmetrical animals

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14
Q

what does it mean to be bilateral

A

have cephalization, ventral and dorsal sides, and 3 germ sides.

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15
Q

What does it mean to be radial

A

oral and aboral sides, 2 germ sides.

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16
Q

what are radial animals called

A

radiata

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17
Q

what is the transverse plane

A

at the half, leaving the top and the bottom halves

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18
Q

what is the midsagittal plane

A

down the middle, leaving left and right sides

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19
Q

what is the frontal plane

A

in half through the side, splitting it into posterior and anterior sides

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20
Q

when do cell layers develop

A

during gastrulation

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21
Q

what is the endoderm

A

the innermost layer of cells or tissue of an embryo in early development

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22
Q

what is the ectoderm

A

the outermost layer of cells or tissue of an embryo in early development

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23
Q

what parts are derived from the ectoderm

A

epidermis and nervous tissue

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24
Q

what parts are derived from the endoderm

A

gut lining, respiratory tract, thymus

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25
Q

what is the mesoderm

A

the middle layer of the three germ layers that develops during gastrulation in the very early development of the embryo of most animals.

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26
Q

what is derived from the mesoderm

A

muscles, limbs, gonads, and kidneys

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27
Q

what happens at the 8 cell stage

A

animal becomes distinct

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28
Q

what is the morula

A

a solid ball of cells resulting from division of a fertilized ovum, and from which a blastula is formed.

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29
Q

what is a hollowed out morula called

A

blastula

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30
Q

what are the cells around the blastula called

A

trophoblasts

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31
Q

What happens in invagination (Step 1)

A

the process of a surface folding inward to form the archenteron. Happens at the vegetal pole. Consists of the folding of an area of the exterior sheet of cells towards the inside of the blastula.

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32
Q

What does invagination establish

A

the body plan

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33
Q

what happens during involution (step 2)

A

the inturning or inward movement of an expanding outer layer so that it spreads over the internal surface of the remaining external cells.

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34
Q

What happens during ingression (step 3)

A
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35
Q

what are the characteristics of a protosome

A

spiral and determinate cleavage; blastopore becomes mouth.

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36
Q

what happens if a cell(s) are lost during protostome development

A

development will stop

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37
Q

what are examples of bilateral protostomia

A

lophotrochozoa (worms)

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38
Q

what are the characteristics of a deutrostome

A

radial cleavage; indeterminate cleavage; pluripotent stem cells; blastopore become anus

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39
Q

what are examples of bilateral deutrostomia

A

chordata

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40
Q

why is using coelom presence/absence an unreliable way to construct animal phylogeny

A

coeloms may have been lost over evolutionary time/coelom may have arisen more than once.

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41
Q

what is a pseudocoelomate

A

organisms that have false body cavities.
has a endodermic cavity surrounded by mesoderm and ectoderm.
The cavity never makes contact with the endoderm.
There might be spaces within the mesoderm.
Cavities protect the inside; normally have fluid inside them.

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42
Q

what is a acoelomate

A

flatworms, no cavity

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43
Q

what are other methods of classification

A

possession of exoskeleton, development of notochord, presence or absence of segmentation

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44
Q

what are muscle tissues characteristics

A

movement by myofilaments within cells; excitability, contractility, extensibility and elasticity.

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45
Q

characteristics of nervous tissues

A

respond to stimuli (input and output), transmit electrical impulses and integration.

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46
Q

characteristics of epithelial tissue

A

polarity, specialized contact, supported by connective tissue, avascular but innervated and high regeneration capacity. Has specialized cell junctions and cytoskeleton.

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47
Q

characteristics of connective tissue

A

common origin, degrees of vascularity, and extracellular matrix.
Four classes: bones, blood, connective tissue proper, cartilage.
Mesenchyme tissue.

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48
Q

characteristics of skeletal muscles

A

voluntary.
Striated due to actin and myosin.
Multinucleated.
Cylindrical in shape.

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49
Q

characteristics of smooth muscle

A

involuntary.
Not striated.
Not multinucleated.
Spindle shaped; kind of like a net.
Surrounds all hollow cavities, like blood vessels.

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50
Q

characteristics of cardiac muscle

A

involuntary.
Semi-striated.
Not multinucleated.
Branched shaped, where it connects with other branched cells.
The cell that is contracting the fastest sets the pace.

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51
Q

what is nervous tissue made up of

A

neurons

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52
Q

where is the input of the neuron placed

A

dendrite

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53
Q

what is the dendrite

A

the branches off the soma

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54
Q

what is the axon

A

where electrical impulses from the neuron travel away to be received by other neurons.

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55
Q

what is the soma

A

he region of the neuron containing the nucleus is known as the cell body

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56
Q

what does the soma determine

A

determining whether or not a signal is strong enough to be transmitted; support the chemical processing of the neuron; the most important of which is the production of neurotransmitters.

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57
Q

what are the nodes of ranvier

A

specialized regions in the axonal membrane that are not insulated by myelin.

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58
Q

what do the nodes of ranvier do?

A

facilitate the rapid conduction of nerve impulses.

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59
Q

what are myelin sheaths

A

an insulating layer, or sheath that forms around nerves, including those in the brain and spinal cord.

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60
Q

what do myelin sheaths do

A

allows electrical impulses to transmit quickly and efficiently along the nerve cells.

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61
Q

what are myelin sheaths mades of

A

Schwann cells (body) and oligodendrites (brain and spinal chord)

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62
Q

what are microglial cells

A

parts of the myelin sheath that creates a barrier between the brain and the rest of the body; phagocytic; part of the immune system

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63
Q

what are astrocytes

A

parts of the myelin sheath that provide nutrients to the neuron.

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64
Q

what are the cell shapes of epithelial cells

A

squamous, cuboidal, and columnar

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65
Q

what are the arrangements of epithelial cells

A

layered, simple, pseudostratified, stratified.

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66
Q

what kind of arrangement does exchanges

A

simple

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67
Q

what are the two types of epithelial cells

A

epithelia (covering, layering) and glandular (endocrine and exocrine)

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68
Q

what does endocrine systems lead to

A

tissues and bloodstream

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69
Q

what does the exocrine systems lead to

A

sebaceous glands and sweat

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70
Q

what are the three elements of connective tissue

A

ground substance, fibers, cell types; all above are extracellular matrix.

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71
Q

what is ground substance include

A

nterstitial fluid (washes cells from the water that comes from the blood vessels), adhesion proteins (laminin (gives orientation to cells) and fibronectin), proteoglycans (large structures that are negatively charged, which brings in water to the tissue to maintain volume; made of sugar).

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72
Q

what are fibers made of

A

collagen (~23 different types in humans; sturdy, long protein that anchors cells), elastin (stretches), and reticular fibers (in between collagen and elastin; not abundant; found in immune parts of the body).

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73
Q

cell types of connective tissue

A

osteoblasts (bones), chondroblasts (cartilage), fibroblasts (collagen), hematopoietic cells (blood and its components), diplocytes (fats).

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74
Q

what are the two types of connective tissue proper

A

dense and loose

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75
Q

what is determinate cleavage

A

cleavage of an egg in which each division irreversibly separates portions of the zygote with specific potencies for further development

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76
Q

what is indeterminate cleavage

A

cleavage in which all the early divisions produce blastomeres with the potencies of the entire zygote

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77
Q

what are the 5 key innovation of animal evolution

A

tissues, cavities, symmetry, development, and segmentation

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78
Q

what animal only has one type of tissue

A

parazoa

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79
Q

Bilaterally symmetrical animals are divided into two lineages, what are they.

A

protostomes and deuterostomes:

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80
Q

how are protostomes different from deuterostomes

A

blastopore opening becomes mouth; determinate cleavage; spiral cleavage

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81
Q

how are deuterostomes different from protostomes

A

radial cleavage; Cleavage is indeterminate – pluripotent stem cells; blastopore becomes anus.

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82
Q

What is segmentation and why is it advantageous?

A

Segmentation provides the means for an organism to travel and protect its sensitive organs from damage. The ability to divide functions into different portions of the body allows an organism to perform increasingly complex activities and use different segments to perform varying functions.

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83
Q

What phyla belong to the deuterostome lineage?

A

Echinodermata (e.g., starfish, sea urchins), Chordata (e.g., sea squirts, lancelets, and vertebrates), Chaetognatha (e.g., arrowworms), and Brachiopoda (e.g., lamp shells)

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84
Q

what is the common feature of muscle cells

A

Muscle tissue is composed of cells that have the special ability to shorten or contract in order to produce movement of the body parts.

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85
Q

what cells make up nervous tissue

A

neurons

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86
Q

what is the major function of nervous tissues

A

coordinating and controlling many body activities. It stimulates muscle contraction, creates an awareness of the environment, and plays a major role in emotions, memory, and reasoning.

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87
Q

why is blood a connective tissue

A

it consists of blood cells surrounded by a nonliving fluid matrix called blood plasma.

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88
Q

what features do all connective tissues have in common

A

Cells,
Large amounts of amorphous ground substance,
And protein fibers.

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89
Q

what is homeostasis

A

process of maintaining a relatively stable internal environment despite changes in external environment

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90
Q

what are conformers

A

These animals are also known as ectotherms as they cannot regulate their own internal temperature. It adapts its behaviour to the surroundings or migrates to environments with optimal temperatures. Conformers are referred to as cold-blooded animals.

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91
Q

what are regulators

A

The organisms are capable of controlling their internal environment irrespective of their external surroundings to an extent (warm blooded animals).

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92
Q

what is negative feedback regulation

A

the response will reverse or cause the opposite effect of the original stimulus.

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93
Q

Examples of negative feedback

A

insulin production and release

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94
Q

what is positive feedback regulation

A

when a change in a variable triggers a response. which causes more change in the same direction.

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95
Q

Examples of positive feedback

A

childbirth and when a body part is cut

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96
Q

Can an animal be both a conformer and a regulator?

A

yes, because some mammals engage in hibernation, a form of dormancy. In doing so, these regulators act as endothermic conformers.

97
Q

how is homeostasis controlled

A

Maintenance of homeostasis usually involves negative feedback loops. These loops act to oppose the stimulus, or cue, that triggers them. For example, if your body temperature is too high, a negative feedback loop will act to bring it back down towards the set point

98
Q

what is action potential

A

a rapid rise and subsequent fall in voltage or membrane potential across a cellular membrane with a characteristic pattern.

99
Q

what are graded potentials

A

are changes in membrane potential that vary in size, as opposed to being all-or-none.

100
Q

what are glial cells

A

cell which are non-neuronal and are located within the central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system that provides physical and metabolic support to neurons, including neuronal insulation and communication, and nutrient and waste transport.

101
Q

examples of glial cells in the CNS

A

oligodendrocytes, astrocytes, and microglia

102
Q

what do oligodendrocytes do

A

specialized glial cells that wrap themselves around neurons present in the CNS. Oligodendrocytes are primarily responsible for maintenance and generation of the myelin sheath that surrounds axons. They also participate in axonal regulation and the sculpting of higher order neuronal circuits

103
Q

what do microglial cells do

A

immune cells of the central nervous system and consequently play important roles in brain infections and inflammation; interconnected with bloodstream and filters.

104
Q

what do astrocytes do

A

regulate blood flow, but also transfer mitochondria to neurons, and supply the building blocks of neurotransmitters, which fuel neuronal metabolism; interconnected with bloodstream and filters.

105
Q

which glial cells are only found in the PNS

A

Schwann cells

106
Q

what do schwanns cells do

A

insulating (myelinating) and supplying nutrients to individual nerve fibers (axons) of the PNS neurons.

107
Q

what is the central nervous system

A

The central nervous system is made up of the brain and spinal cord: The brain controls how we think, learn, move, and feel. The spinal cord carries messages back and forth between the brain and the nerves that run throughout the body.

108
Q

what is the peripheral nervous system

A

part of your nervous system that lies outside your brain and spinal cord. It plays key role in both sending information from different areas of your body back to your brain, as well as carrying out commands from your brain to various parts of your body.

109
Q

how is resting membrane potential established

A

determined by concentration gradients of ions across the membrane and by membrane permeability to each type of ion.

110
Q

What would happen to the resting membrane potential if you increased the extracellular
concentration of K+?

A

resting potential of the membrane will be less negative, depolarizing.

111
Q

What are inhibitory and excitatory signals on a neuron?

A

Excitatory currents are those that prompt one neuron to share information with the next through an action potential, while inhibitory currents reduce the probability that such a transfer will take place.

112
Q

what are the pumps and gates neurons use

A

leaky Na+/K channels, Na+/K+ and ATPase pump, voltage gated channels, ligand gated ion channel

113
Q

how do Na/K channels function

A

llow ions to pass through the channel without any impedance. This means that there is no gating mechanism, and ions are free to flow through the channel along the concentration gradient.

114
Q

how does the sodium potassium pump work

A

moves sodium and potassium ions against large concentration gradients. It moves two potassium ions into the cell where potassium levels are high, and pumps three sodium ions out of the cell and into the extracellular fluid.

115
Q

how do voltage gate ion channels work

A

sensitive to the outside positive and inside negative; when receiving an electric current (a change in charge inside and outside), the channels open up; specific to Na and K.
It can be an open gate, but be inhibited by the inhibitor attachment on the channels.
Closed fully again when the charge goes back to normal.

116
Q

how do ligand gate channels work

A

open and close in response to
ligands or chemical

117
Q

what is a saltatory signal

A

Action potentials traveling down the axon “jump” from node to node. This is called saltatory conduction which means “to leap.” Saltatory conduction is a faster way to travel down an axon than traveling in an axon without myelin.

118
Q

what happens to the RMP when Na increases?

A

Na+ depolarizes, which makes the stimulus strong; making it more positive.

119
Q

what is depolarization

A

In neurons, the rapid rise in potential, depolarization, is an all-or-nothing event that is initiated by the opening of sodium ion channels within the plasma membrane.

120
Q

what happens when a cell is depolarized

A

the gated sodium ion channels on the neuron’s membrane suddenly open and allow sodium ions (Na+) present outside the membrane to rush into the cell. As the sodium ions quickly enter the cell, the internal charge of the nerve changes from -70 mV to -55 mV.

121
Q

what is hyperpolarization

A

when the membrane potential becomes more negative at a particular spot on the neuron’s membrane

122
Q

what is equilibrium potential

A

opposing forces of chemical and electrical gradients can create equilibrium when there is not net movement.

123
Q

what is the charge of DNA

A

very negative

124
Q

what is synaptic integration

A

integrates multiple input to single neurons.

125
Q

what is spatial summation

A

when two or more EPSPs or IPSPs are generated at one time along different regions of the dendrites and cell body, their effects sum together.

126
Q

what is temporal summation

A

two or more EPSPs arrive at the same location in quick succession.

127
Q

what does it mean to inhibit

A

To inhibit is to make it more negative, like sodium/potassium pump and chloride (Cl-).

128
Q

what does it mean to excite

A

to be more positve

129
Q

what is the presynaptic cell

A

the cell sending the signal

130
Q

what is the postsynaptic cell

A

the cell receiving the cell

131
Q

what is the synaptic cleft

A

the gap between two neurons

132
Q

what is the process of receiving a signal

A

Neurotransmitters being secreted by the presynaptic cell might bind to proteins on the postsynaptic cell or there might be enzymes that degrade the neurotransmitter. They also might be reabsorbed back into the presynaptic cell. It may also just go away, which might affect other surrounding neurons.

133
Q

what is the process of calcium voltage gate channels

A

Calcium voltage gated channels open; calcium rushes into cell; calcium binds to the vesicles (full of neurotransmitters); the binding causes the vesicles to fuse with the plasma membrane, which releases neurotransmitters into the cleft and to the next neuron.

134
Q

how do neurons get rid of calcium

A

mitochondria within the axon terminal will reabsorb the calcium.

135
Q

what are metabotropic receptors

A

has a G-protein coupled receptor to start the cascade once a ligand binds.

136
Q

what are the two types of ligand channels called

A

ionotropic and metabotropic

137
Q

what is acetylcholine

A

released at neuromuscular junctions.
Excitatory in brain and skeletal muscles but inhibitory in cardiac muscles.
Very widespread.

138
Q

what are biogenic amines

A

widespread physiological effects and psychoactive.
Abnormally high or low levels associated with a variety of mental illnesses.
Catecholamines: Dopamine, epinephrine.

139
Q

what are amino acids

A

Glutamate: most widespread excitatory neurotransmitter.
GABA: most common inhibitory neurotransmitter.

140
Q

what are neuropeptides

A

Often called neuromodulators; can alter the response of a postsynaptic neuron to other neurotransmitters.
Example: Opiate peptides

141
Q

what are gaseous neurotransmitters

A

Nitric oxide.
Carbon monoxide
Not sequestered into vesicles
Produced locally as required

142
Q

what are the functions of the skeleton

A

support, protection, source of stem cells, storage for triglycerides, stores different ions (calcium and phosphate), hormone production (osteocalcin), and locomotion.

143
Q

what are the three types of skeletons

A

hydrostatic, exoskeleton, endoskeleton

144
Q

describe hydrostatic skeleton

A

combination of muscle and water; examples include worms; when muscles relax, they extend, when contracted water is pushed, which pushes forward.

145
Q

describe exoskeleton

A

uses chitin; examples include insects, spinder, fungi, crustaceans (arthropods); crustaceans go through molting for growth and the shell is segmented.

146
Q

describe endoskeleton

A

internally based; examples include sponges, echinoderms (calcium carbonate), and vertebrates (calcium phosphate); attached to muscle.

147
Q

what are the 2 parts of the skeleton

A

axial and appendicular

148
Q

what is the axial skeleton

A

main longitudinal axis (skull, vertebral column, ribs); 80 bones.

149
Q

what is the appendicular skeleton

A

limb bones and girdles; 126 bones.

150
Q

how many bones are the human body approx

A

206

151
Q

what is the function of bones

A

stem cells to red and white blood cells, storage of minerals, fat storage in the form of triglycerides.

152
Q

what is a joint

A

where two or more bones come together

153
Q

what are the 3 types of bones

A

Immovable
Slightly moveable
Freely moveable

154
Q

what are the three types of cartilage

A

hyaline, elastic, and fibrocartilage

155
Q

describe hyaline cartilage

A

Glass-like; most abundant; provides support through flexibility.
Examples: trachea, larynx, ends of bones.

156
Q

describe elastic cartilage

A

Contains many elastic fibers; able to tolerate repeated bending; not much in the body.
Examples: epiglottis.

157
Q

describe fibrocartilage

A

resists strong compression between hyaline and elastic cartilage.
Examples: in between vertebrae; meniscus.

158
Q

examples of immovable joints

A

sutures/ gophers

159
Q

examples of freely movable joints

A

synovial joints and fluid

160
Q

examples of slightly movable joints

A

cartilaginous joints; between vertebrae.

161
Q

what are the types of movable joints

A

pivot, hinge, ball-and-socket

162
Q

what is the organic composition of bones

A

collagen and bone cells

163
Q

what is the inorganic composition of bones

A

Calcium, phosphate, hydroxides.

164
Q

describe long bones

A

characterized by being long.
Examples: humerus.

165
Q

describe short bones

A

short.
Examples: wrist and ankle bones.

166
Q

describe flat bones

A

sternum and skull sometimes.

167
Q

describe irregular bones

A

vertebrae

168
Q

what is the shaft of the bone called

A

diaphysis

169
Q

what are the ends of the bone called

A

proximal and distal

170
Q

what is the spongy bone

A

honeycomb-shaped; inside the bone at the ends; holes arranged specifically for structural support due to pressures the body is put under.

171
Q

what is the outside of the bone called

A

compact

172
Q

what is the trabeculae

A

the small ‘beams’ the spongy bone.

173
Q

what is the osteoblast

A

makes the collagen/matrix, which makes the bone.

174
Q

what are gap junctions

A

aggregates of intercellular channels that permit direct cell–cell transfer of ions and small molecules.

175
Q

describe the process that osteoblasts go through

A

Osteoblasts stay linked when they divide through gap junctions. The cells will link together to form concentric rings. If one cell dies in the link, they all die because they are connected.

176
Q

what are osteocytes

A

cells surrounded by bone matrix

177
Q

what are osteoclasts

A

breaks down the bone in order to absorb bone to remodel it.

178
Q

what happens when there is not enough calcium

A

osteoclasts will break down bone in order to supply the entire body with calcium. Osteoclasts will slow or shut down when calcium is taken in.

179
Q

what is the reasoning behind osteoporosis

A

osteoclasts working too much or osteoblasts working too little.

180
Q

what is the lacunae

A

small, spindle-shaped spaces, each containing an osteocyte that is left behind by osteoblasts during the process of remodeling.

181
Q

what do lacunae do

A

provide housing to the cells it contains and keeps the enclosed cells alive and functional.

182
Q

what are canaliculi

A

small canals running through the bone solid matrix, hosting osteocyte’s dendrites, and saturated by an interstitial fluid rich in ions.

183
Q

what is the function of canaliculi

A

supply nutrients via blood vessels, remove cellular wastes, and provide a means of communication between osteocytes.

184
Q

what are the three types of muscle

A

cardiac, smooth, skeletal

185
Q

how many muscles are in a human body

A

600

186
Q

what do tendons do

A

link muscle to the bone

187
Q

what is a fascicle

A

bundle of muscle fibers

188
Q

why are fascicles built in bundles

A

for motor recruitment

189
Q

what is the order of muscle organization big to small

A

muscle, fascicle, muscle fibers

190
Q

what are myofibrils

A

long contractile fibers, groups of which run parallel to each other on the long axis of the myocytes

191
Q

how much volume do myofibrils take up in a muscle cells

A

80%

192
Q

what is found in higher concentrations in muscles

A

glycogen

193
Q

what are myofibrils considered

A

organelles made of myofilaments

194
Q

what is the sarcoplasm

A

cytoplasm of muscle cells

195
Q

what is the sarcolemma

A

plasma membrane of muscle cell

196
Q

what is the sarcoplasmic reticulum

A

the ER of the muscle cell

197
Q

what are muscle cells surrounded by

A

endomysium

198
Q

what is the fascicle surrounded by

A

perimysium

199
Q

what is the entire muscle surrounded by

A

epimysium

200
Q

what is myosin

A

a fibrous protein that forms the contractile filaments of muscle cells; 2 heavy chains, 4 light chains; THICK LINES; in the middle

201
Q

what is actin

A

a protein that forms the contractile filaments of muscle cells; THIN LINES; composed of long chains of globular heads (G-actin proteins), troponin, and tropomyosin

202
Q

what is tropomyosin

A

laced with the G-Actin proteins of the actin filaments.
Blocks actin and myosin binding.

203
Q

what is troponin

A

composed of 3 different things and link myosin, actin, and troponin.
When bound by calcium, it changes shape and moves tropomyosin out of the way.

204
Q

what is titin

A

connects the myosin to the Z Line; transverses the myosin.

205
Q

what is dystrophin

A

anchors filaments to the plasma membrane

206
Q

what are prime movers

A

flexors and extensors

207
Q

what are antagonists

A

pull muscles back to original position

208
Q

what are synergists

A

other muscles surrounding the prime movers to facilitate and isolate movement.

209
Q

what is the sarcomere

A

the contractual subunit of myofilaments.

210
Q

What is the A Band

A

the dark area in the center of the sarcomere where thick and thin filaments overlap.

211
Q

what is the H Line

A

the center of the A band where there is no overlap between the thick and the thin filaments. Disappears muscle contracts

212
Q

What is the I region

A

the region of a striated muscle sarcomere that contains thin filaments.

213
Q

what is the Z line

A

a dense fibrous structure made of actin, α-actinin, and other proteins. defines the lateral boundaries of the sarcomere and anchors thin, titin and nebulin filaments.

214
Q

what is the first step of muscle contraction

A

Calcium binds to troponin, moving tropomyosin out of the way of the active sites.

215
Q

what is the 2nd step of muscle contraction

A

ATP binds to the myosin globular head, which is split into ADP+P.

216
Q

what is the 3rd step of muscle contraction

A

The globular head is then put in an up-right position, which binds to the actin.

217
Q

what is the 4th step of muscle contraction

A

The head then pushes actin, creating a contraction.

218
Q

what is the fifth step of muscle contraction

A

When ADP+P is lost, myosin is released from actin, stopping power strokes/contractions.

219
Q

first step of EC coupling

A

Action potential generated and propagated along sarcolemma to T-Tubules

220
Q

second step of ec coupling

A

Action potential triggers Ca2+ release.

221
Q

third step of ec coupling

A

Ca++ binds to troponin; blocking action of tropomyosin released.

222
Q

fourth step of ec coupling

A

Contraction via crossbridge formation; ATP hydrolysis.

223
Q

fifth step of ec coupling

A

Removal of Ca2+ by active transport.

224
Q

sixth step of ec coupling

A

Tropomyosin blockage restored; contraction ends.

225
Q

what is action potential described as

A

depolarization of the axon

226
Q

what does EC coupling cause for calcium

A

rise is cytosolic Ca2+ released from sarcoplasmic reticulum.

227
Q

where is calcium stored in the muscle cell

A

the SR

228
Q

what do T-tubules in the muscle do

A

invaginations of PM that conduct the action potential from outer surface to inside.

229
Q

what needs to be done for muscle to stop contracting

A

Ion pumps will return calcium to SPM, troponin, and tropomyosin back in place, and contraction stops.

230
Q

what is the motor unit described as

A

1 motor neuron plus all of its muscle fibers

231
Q

what is acetylcholinesterase

A

enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine in the presynaptic cell.

232
Q

what kind of channels do the SR have

A

voltage gated

233
Q

what are fast fibers

A

contain myosin with high ATPase activity.

234
Q

what are slow fibers

A

have myosin with a lower ATPase activity.

235
Q

how is maximal force produced

A

produced by each is the same, only speed varies.

236
Q

what are slow oxidative fibers

A

low rates of myosin ATP hydrolysis but makes large amounts of ATP.
Used for prolonged, regular activity.
High levels of mitochondria.
Examples: standing.

237
Q

what are fast oxidative fibers

A

High myosin activity, makes large amounts of ATP.
Suited for rapid actions.
Examples: 400 meter dash.

238
Q

what are fast glycolytic fibers

A

high myosin activity but cannot make as much ATP.
Suited for rapid, intense actions but fatigues quickly.
Examples: fast twitch actions.
Creatine can get phosphorylated easily, which will donate it’s phosphorous to ADP to make ATP

Bio 152 (5 decks)

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