Final Exam

Question 1

1. The direct analysis of the expression levels and post-translational status of an enzyme biomarker involved in a human disease would most likely involve which of the following tools?

A. An antibody microarray.
B. A DNA microarray.
C. A transcript microarray.
D. A gene microarray

Answer 1

A

Question 2

2. Which of the following limits the ability to accurately evaluate an individual’s genomic or proteomic profile in the context of a disease?

A. The quality of the isolated mRNA.
B. The availability of highly specific antibodies.
C. The ability to evaluate all combinations of post-translational modifications.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 2

D

Question 3

3. Which of the following molecules are found in the DNA double helix structure?

A. deoxyribose molecules, purine or pyrimidine bases, and phosphates.
B. amino acids, ribose molecules, and phosphates.
C. ribose molecules, peptide bonds, and phosphates.
D. hydrophobic carbon chains, acetyl groups, and glycosidic bonds.

Answer 3

A

Question 4

Mitotic DNA may contain which of the following components?

A. centromeres
B. telomeres
C. proteins
D. All of the above.

Answer 4

D

Question 5

Reactivating telomerase activity in a quiescent (non-dividing) cell may:

A. shorten telomeric DNA and cause the cell to start dividing.
B. lengthen telomeric DNA and cause the cell to start dividing.
C. shorten telomeric DNA and keep the cell in quiescence.
D. lengthen telomeric DNA and keep the cell in quiescence.

Answer 5

B

Question 6

6. DNA replication occurs:

A. in a 3’ to 5’ direction on only one strand of the DNA molecule.
B. in a 3’ to 5’ direction on both strands of the DNA molecule.
C. in a 5’ to 3’ direction on both strands of the DNA molecule
D. in a 5’ to 5’ direction on only one strand of the DNA molecule.

Answer 6

C

Question 7

7. Inhibition of DNA synthesis by targeting phosphodiester bond formation would involve which enzyme?

A. DNA primase
B. DNA ligase
C. DNA polymerase
D. DNA helicase

Answer 7

B

Question 8

8. A type II topoisomerase inhibitor such as Etoposide (brand names: Eposin, Etopophos, or Vepesid) would:

A. enhance relaxation of supercoiled DNA.
B. enhance cell proliferation.
C. inhibit double strand breaks in DNA.
D. inhibit single strand breaks in DNA.

Answer 8

C

Question 9

9. Conservative site specific recombination is used to alter gene sequences or regulate gene expression by:

A. excising a specific DNA sequences.
B. inverting a DNA sequences.
C. inserting a DNA sequences into other regions of the chromosome.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 9

D

Question 10

10. Deamination of cytosine is a common spontaneous mutation that:

A. results in loss of the base component of the nucleotide.
B. results in a deletion mutant if not repaired.
C. results in a substitution mutant if not repaired.
D. changes cytosine to guanine.

Answer 10

C

Question 11

11. A depurinated nucleotide, if not repaired, would result in which type of mutation:

A. deletion
B. substitution.
C. insertion.
D. All of the above.

Answer 11

A

Question 12

12. Which of the following is true about nucleotide excision repair that repairs a pyrimidine dimer?

A. A DNA glycosylase will remove the incorrect base.
B. DNA nucleases and helicases remove a nucleotide sequence surrounding the pyrimidine dimer.
C. An apurinic endonuclease facilitates the removal of the incorrect sugar phosphate.
D. All of the above.

Answer 12

B

Question 13

13. Which of the following is true about RNA molecules?

A. RNA is always a linear single-stranded sequence.
B. RNA synthesis occurs at the ribosomes in the cytoplasm.
C. RNA can form double-stranded secondary structures.
D. RNA requires 5’ capping for transport into the nucleus.

Answer 13

C

Question 14

14. Which of the following occurs during RNA splicing?

A. the exon regions are removed and intron regions are spliced together.
B. the intron regions are removed and exon regions are spliced together.
C. the exon and intron regions are removed.
D. the exon and intron regions are spliced together.

Answer 14

B

Question 15

15. An operon controls the expression of:

A. A single gene
B. Function-unrelated different genes
C. Function-related different genes
D. None of the above

Answer 15

C

Question 16

16. Why is eukaryotic gene regulation more complex than prokaryotic?

A. Eukaryotic genomes are larger.
B. Eukaryotic organisms are more complex.
C. Cells are differentiated in eukaryotic organisms.
D. All of the above.

Answer 16

D

Question 17

17. What is the nucleosome?

A. The entire complex of the cell’s DNA and associated proteins.
B. Five histones wound together as dimers and tetramers.
C. A unit of chromatin made up of 200 bp of DNA and two copies of four of the histones.
D. 145 bp of DNA and two copies of four of the histones.

Answer 17

C

Question 18

18. The leucine zipper motif contains:

A. Two alpha helices in a coiled-coil fold.
B. Two beta sheets in an anti-parallel beta sheet
C. Both alpha helices and beta sheets.
D. Z-form DNA.

Answer 18

A

Question 19

19. The coactivators function through the following mechanisms.

A. direct binding to target gene DNA
B. bridge the enhancer-bound activator and the promoter-bound RNA polymerase II
C. recruit histone acetylase lead to the modification of chromatin structure.
D. Both B and C

Answer 19

D

Question 20

20. How does tamoxifen act to inhibit the function of the estrogen receptor protein?

A. It binds at the zinc finger domain and prevents DNA binding.
B. It binds in the pocket normally occupied by estrogen and it prevents conformational changes in the protein structure.
C. It completely unfolds the estrogen receptor protein.
D. It dimerizes with estrogen to form an oligomeric complex that then binds to DNA.

Answer 20

B

Question 21

21. Which of the following is NOT considered chromatin remodeling?

A. Binding of remodeling engine complex to acetylated lysine residues
B. Recruitment of a co-activator
C. Lysine acetylation
D. Cleavage of polypeptide bonds.

Answer 21

D

Question 22

22. Which of the following statements about Eukaryotic Transcription is FALSE?

A. DNA from eukaryotic chromosomes is bare.
B. DNA from eukaryotic chromosomes is associated with histones.
C. Histones are small, alpha helical proteins.
D. There are five types of histones.

Answer 22

A

Question 23

23. A typical nuclear receptor protein contains:

A. the DNA-binding domain which determines which target gene to bind with.
B. the ligand-binding domain which interacts with specific ligands
C. the ligand-binding domain which interacts with coactivators after agonistic ligand binding.
D. All of the above

Answer 23

D

Question 24

24. Which of the following statements concerning positive regulation is FALSE?

A. Positive regulation refers to both activator and repressor proteins.
B. Inducer molecules can act to either switch the gene on or off.
C. In positive regulation, an activator protein binds to the DNA and promotes transcription.
D. In positive regulation the activator protein binds to a different region of the DNA than RNA polymerase.

Answer 24

A

Question 25

33. Which of the following post-translational modifications could affect protein interactions with other molecules?

A. Phosphorylation
B. Acetylation
C. Glycosylation
D. All of the above.

Answer 25

D

Question 26

34. Similarities among different protein kinases include:

A. a region that binds ATP.
B. a region that binds GTP.
C. a region that binds CTP.
D. All of the above.

Answer 26

A

Question 27

35. Protein folding is monitored by associated heat shock (Hsp) proteins. Misfolded proteins may likely undergo which of the following fates?

A. Acetylation followed by targeting to the proteasome.
B. Glycosylation followed by targeting to the endoplasmic reticulum.
C. ubiquitination followed by targeting to the ribosome.
D. ubiquitination followed by targeting to the proteasome.

Answer 27

D

Question 28

36. Which of the following is true in regards to protein glycosylation?

A. Glycosylation occurs in the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) and Golgi complex.
B. Glycosylation involves adding and removing sugar molecules.
C. Glycosylation modifications may alter the charge of the protein.
D. All of the above.

Answer 28

D

Question 29

37. Proteins that are found only in the nucleus would likely have which of the following features?

A. Exposed leucine-rich amino acid residues.
B. Exposed lysine and arginine-rich amino acid residues.
C. The ability to be translated on ribosomes in the nucleus.
B. Tight interactions with heat shock proteins that block access to lysine and arginine-rich sequences

Answer 29

B

Question 30

38. I-cell disease is associated with defects in GlcNac (N-acetylglucosamine) transferases that lead to the accumulation of metabolic waste products in the lysosome. Which of the following is true about the cause of I-cell disease?

A. Decreased GlcNac transferase activity increases the pH of the lysosome.
B. Decreased GlcNac transferase activity in the lysosome causes a decreased pH in the lysosome.
C. Decreased GlcNac transferase activity in the Golgi causes a decrease in glysosylated lysosome enzymes.
D. Decreased GlcNac transferase activity increases enzyme transport to the lysosome.

Answer 30

C

Question 31

38. I-cell disease is associated with defects in GlcNac (N-acetylglucosamine) transferases that lead to the accumulation of metabolic waste products in the lysosome. Which of the following is true about the cause of I-cell disease?

A. Decreased GlcNac transferase activity increases the pH of the lysosome.
B. Decreased GlcNac transferase activity in the lysosome causes a decreased pH in the lysosome.
C. Decreased GlcNac transferase activity in the Golgi causes a decrease in glysosylated lysosome enzymes.
D. Decreased GlcNac transferase activity increases enzyme transport to the lysosome.

Answer 31

C

Question 32

39. The generation of cardiovascular disease due to elevated plasma cholesterol levels could best be explained by:

A. Increased exocytosis of low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors bound to LDL.
B. Mutations in LDL receptors that fail to form clathrin coated pits.
C. Increased endocytosis of LDL receptors bound to LDL.
D. Decreased synthesis of LDL in the extracellular space.

Answer 32

B

Question 32

39. The generation of cardiovascular disease due to elevated plasma cholesterol levels could best be explained by:

A. Increased exocytosis of low density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors bound to LDL.
B. Mutations in LDL receptors that fail to form clathrin coated pits.
C. Increased endocytosis of LDL receptors bound to LDL.
D. Decreased synthesis of LDL in the extracellular space.

Answer 32

B

Question 33

40. Which of the following is a characteristic of an enzyme-linked receptor?

A. It is typically activated by extracellular ligands.
B. It contains hydrophobic regions that span the plasma membrane.
C. It has an intracellular domain that has catalytic activity or associates with a kinase.
D. All of the above.

Answer 33

D

Question 34

41. Which of the following sequence of events occurs during the activation of a receptor tyrosine kinase (RTK) by an extracellular ligand?

A. Ligand binds to the extracellular domain, which causes receptor dimerization, which leads to receptor autophosphorylation on tyrosine residues.
B. Ligand binds to the intracellular domain, which causes receptor dimerization, which leads to receptor autophosphorylation on threonine and serine residues.
C. Ligand binds to the extracellular domain, which causes receptor dimerization that leads to receptor autophosphorylation on threonine and serine residues.
D. Ligand binds to the intracellular domain, which causes receptor dimerization that leads to receptor autophosphorylation on tyrosine residues.

Answer 34

A

Question 35

42. G-protein coupled receptors:

A. autophosphorylate tyrosine residues.
B. are GTP hydrolyzing enzymes that produce cAMP.
C. mediate signaling cascades through intracellular heterotrimeric G-proteins.
D. have a single trans-membrane spanning domain

Answer 35

C

Question 36

43. Which of the following could explain the structural or functional characteristics of the heterotrimeric G-proteins?

A. The , and  subunits are all capable of hydrolyzing GTP.
B. The  subunit binds GTP and the  and  subunits are protein kinases.
C. The -subunit can regulate cAMP or intracellular calcium levels.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 36

C

Question 37

44. Steroid hormone receptors may contain which of the following features?

A. A DNA binding domain
B. Domains that facilitate interactions with other proteins.
C. A ligand binding domain.
D. All of the above.

Answer 37

D

Question 38

45. Which of the following is a characteristic of a non-genomic response induced by a steroid hormone?

A. Induction of transcription is the earliest response.
B. Protein synthesis is required.
C. A biological response can be observed within seconds.
D. All of the above.

Answer 38

C

Question 39

46. Which of the following may be involved in the direct coupling of signaling proteins to an activated receptor tyrosine kinase?

A. A scaffold protein that holds the signaling proteins in proximity to the intracellular domain of the receptor.
B. A scaffold protein that holds the signaling proteins in proximity to the extracellular domain of the receptor.
C. Endocytosis of the receptor tyrosine kinase and translocation to the nucleus.
D. A and C are correct.

Answer 39

A

Question 40

47. What is unique about the pleckstrin homology (PH) found on protein kinase B (PKB or Akt)?

A. It mediates protein interactions through coupling to phosphorylated tyrosine residues.
B. It can phosphorylate serine or threonine residues.
C. It can interact at the plasma membrane through recognition of phosphatidyl inositol molecules.
D. It can mediate protein-protein interactions through proline rich sequences.

Answer 40

C

Question 41

48. Activation of adenylate cyclase by G-protein coupled receptors causes:

A. increased cAMP, which directly phosphorylates and activates protein kinase A (PKA)
B. increased cAMP, which directly interacts with the regulatory subunits of PKA.
C. increased cAMP, which directly interacts with the catalytic subunits of PKA.
D. increased cAMP translocation to the nucleus and regulates gene expression.

Answer 41

B

Question 42

49. NF-AT is a transcription factor that is activated by phosphatases during inflammation through which of the following processes?

A. Dephosphorylation by calcineurin exposes a nuclear localization sequence in NF-AT.
B. Phosphorylation by calcineurin exposes a nuclear export sequence in NF-AT.
C. Dephosphorylation inactivates NF-AT by preventing DNA interactions.
D. Phosphorylation activates NF-AT by translocating it out to the cytoplasm.

Answer 42

A

Question 43

50. Regulation of the Raf, MEK1, and ERK2 proteins kinases include:

A. ATP loading.
B. phosphorylation events.
C. dephosphorylation events.
D. All of the above.

Answer 43

D

Question 44

51. Which of the following could explain the movement of a phosphorylated signaling protein from the cytoplasm to the nucleus?

A. A structural change that exposes a nuclear localization sequence in the protein.
B. A structural change that blocks a nuclear export sequence in the protein.
C. Increased interactions with importin proteins.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 44

D

Question 45

52. The interactions between a SH2 domain containing protein and another protein is determined by:

A. The SH2 domain interactions with glycosylated amino acids.
B. Interactions between the SH2 domain and proline rich regions.
C. Interactions between the SH2 domain and a phosphorylated tyrosine residue and adjacent amino acids.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 45

C

Question 46

53. Which of the following is common to the receptors that utilize the JAK/STAT and TGF- signaling proteins?

A. The receptors that regulate these signaling proteins have tyrosine kinase activity.
B. The receptors that regulate these signaling proteins directly interact with transcription factors.
C. The receptors that regulate these signaling proteins are activated by the same extracellular ligands.
D. The receptors that regulate these signaling protein are non-membrane tyrosine kinases.

Answer 46

B

Question 47

56. When -catenin is phosphorylated:

A. ubiquitin-mediated proteolytic degradation of -catenin occurs.
B. Wnt signaling has engaged its receptor.
C. Hsp90 interactions help enhance the stability of -catenin.
D. -catenin interactions with DNA are enhanced and gene expression can occur.

Answer 47

A

Question 48

64. The active ingredients found in curare helped demonstrate the mechanism of drug action by showing that:

A. specific signaling molecules used to transfer information from one cell to another are affected.
B. both neurons and muscle cells are directly affected by curare.
C. Drugs are always safe.
D. All of the above.

Answer 48

A

Question 49

65. A protein kinase inhibitor that competes with the natural substrates would likely target:

A. the ATP binding site.
B. the GTP binding site.
C. the CTP binding site.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 49

A

Question 50

66. Which of the following could be targeted to inhibit PI3K activation of the pro-survival Akt/PKB kinase during cancer therapy?

A. The pleckstrin homology domain that binds to phosphatidylinositols.
B. The ATP binding domains on PI3K or Akt.
C. The phosphatidylinositol molecules.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 50

D

Question 51

67. Which of the following would likely be affected by a small molecule inhibitor of the intracellular kinase domain of the vascular endothelial growth factor (VEGF) receptor?

Answer 51

D

Question 52

68. Fusion of the bcr and abl genes results in a constitutively active fusion protein that is responsible for the development of chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML). The Bcr-Abl fusion protein:

A. is a non-receptor tyrosine kinase.
B. promotes CML by activating the pro-survival Akt signaling pathway.
C. activates ERK and Jak/Stat growth promoting proteins.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 52

D

Question 53

69. The cause for the development of resistance to imatinib mesylate (Gleevec) in CML patients involves:

A. mutations in the Bcr tyrosine kinase portion of the fusion protein.
B. mutations in the Bcr serine kinase portion of the fusion protein.
C. mutations in the Abl tyrosine kinase portion of the fusion protein.
D. mutations in the Abl serine kinase portion of the fusion protein.

Answer 53

C

Question 54

70. UCN-01 is a relatively non-specific kinase inhibitor that is used to improve the effects of other anti-cancer drugs by initiating cell cycle arrest at Go or G1 phase by:

A. inhibiting cyclin dependent kinases.
B. decreasing expression of cyclin D.
C. activating cyclin dependent kinase inhibitors
D. All of the above.

Answer 54

D

Question 55

71. On way to block kinase activity is to inhibit it’s interactions with proteins that maintain the proper folding and structure of the kinase. Which of the following best describes the inhibitory effect on a kinase due to a drug, such as geldanamycin, that blocks interactions with the chaperone protein Hsp90?

A. Inhibition of Hsp90 exposes a nuclear localization and targets the kinase to the nucleus.
B. Inhibition of Hsp90 function destabilizes the kinase marking it for proteolytic degradation by the proteasome.
C. Inhibition of Hsp90 prevents ATP binding to the catalytic site of the kinase.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 55

D

Question 56

72. A single point mutation in the B-Raf kinase is found in most malignant melanomas and leads to constitutive activation of which of the following signaling molecules that promote cell growth and survival?

A. Protein kinase A and cAMP.
B. Phoshatidylinositol-3 kinase and Akt.
C. MAP kinase kinase (MKK) and MAP kinase.
D. Phospholipase C and inositol triphosphate and calcium.

Answer 56

C

Question 57

73. The conversion of a valine to a glutamate within the catalytic site of B-Raf in malignant melanomas has which of the following effects on B-Raf?

A. The glutamate mimics the negative charge of phosphorylation, which changes B-Raf structure and activity.
B. The glutamate mimics the positive charge of phosphorylation, which changes B-Raf structure and activity.
C. The glutamate eliminates the negative charge of the valine, which changes B-Raf structure and activity.

Answer 57

A

Question 58

74. Ras G-protein activation in cancer cells may involve:

A. a point mutation that inhibits GTP hydrolysis.
B. attachment of prenyl groups to a C-terminal cysteine.
C. proteolysis of C-terminal amino acids.
D. All of the above.

Answer 58

D

Question 59

75. Which of the following post-translational modifications would directly regulate Ras function and activity?

A. Tyrosine phosphorylation
B. Farnesylation or isoprenylation
C. Threonine phosphorylation
D. Acetylation

Answer 59

B

Question 60

76. Activation of the mixed lineage kinase (MLK) proteins may mediate neuronal cell death associated with Parkinsons diseases. Which describes the signals that are involved in MLK-mediated cell death?

A. MLK activates extracellular signal-regulated kinases (ERK), caspases, and neuronal cell proliferation.
B. MLK activates c-Jun N-terminal kinases (JNK), caspases, and neuronal cell death.
C. MLK inhibits JNK, caspases, and neuronal cell death.
D. MLK inhibits JNK, caspases, and neuronal cell survival.

Answer 60

B

Question 61

77. -dystroglycan is a membrane protein that is under-glycosylated in muscular dystrophy (MD) and contributes to muscle degeneration. Which therapeutic approach might benefit MD patients?

A. a small molecular weight non-specific kinase inhibitor.
B. a small molecular weight compound that inhibits N and O-linked glycosylation events.
C. a gene therapy approach that overexpresses a glycosyl transferase enzyme.
D. an antibody approach that binds to -dystroglycan.

Answer 61

C

Question 62

78. Breast cancers that are no longer responsive to tamoxifen treatment are characterized by:

A. elevated expression of EGF-like receptor tyrosine kinases.
B. decreased expression or function of estrogen receptors.
C. elevated activation of mitogen activated protein kinase signaling pathways.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 62

D

Question 63

79. Treatment for breast cancer cells that are no longer responsive to estrogens may involve:

A. tyrosine kinase inhibitors such as Gleevec that bind extracellular domains on receptors.
B. monoclonal antibodies such as Herceptin that bind extracellular domains on receptors.
C. monoclonal antibodies such as Herceptin that bind intracellular domains on receptor.
D. farnesyl transferase inhibitors, which block EGF receptor kinase activity.

Answer 63

B

Question 64

80. Kinase inhibitors of ATP binding often have undesirable toxic side effects, which are due to:

A. the specific nature of the ATP binding sites that are unique to each kinase.
B. the non-specific nature of the ATP binding site, which is structurally similar between many kinases.
C. the inability to synthesize ATP analogs that block endogenous ATP binding.
D. All of the above.

Answer 64

B

Question 65

81. Which of the following is a potential alternative to ATP competition for developing kinase inhibitors?

A. Develop molecules that bind substrate docking sites and prevent kinase interactions.
B. Develop molecules that bind kinase docking sites and prevent substrate interactions.
C. Develop molecules that interact with consensus phosphorylation sites on substrates.
D. All of the above.

Answer 65

D

Question 66

87. Which of the following methods can be used to detect proteins separated on a SDS-polyacrylamide gel?

A. A dye such as coomassie blue.
B. A protein specific antibody.
C. Silver nitrate (silver staining)
D. All of the above.

Answer 66

D

Question 67

88. Which of the following is the best way to separate two proteins (one protein is phosphorylated, the other is unphosphorylated) that happen to have the same molecular weight?

A. a one-dimensional polyacrylamide gel that separates proteins primarily according to their mass.
B. a one-dimensional gel followed by analysis with an antibody that equally recognizes both proteins.
C. two-dimensional gel that separates proteins according to their mass and charge.
D. All of the above.

Answer 67

C

Question 68

89. Fluorescent dyes have the following characteristics:

A. They can be excited at a low wavelength of light and emit light at higher wavelength.
B. They can be excited at a high wavelength of light and emit light at lower wavelength.
C. They only emit light in the green and red wavelengths of light.
D. They only fluoresce if they are bond to proteins.

Answer 68

A

Question 69

90. Some of the uses for fluorescence microscopy include:

A. the examination of protein location within cells or tissue.
B. diagnostic testing of infections such as malaria.
C. evaluation of changes in chromosomes.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 69

D

Question 70

91. To study new proteins, one can use genetic and molecular biology methods to make wild type protein and various mutant versions that affect the protein function. If you were studying the function of a new kinase involved in cancer, what type of mutation would you generate and compare to the wild type protein in order to understand the kinase’s function?

A. A mutation that makes the kinase catalytically inactive.
B. A mutation that makes the kinase constitutively active.
C. A mutation that changes the activating phosphorylation sites.
D. All of the above.

Answer 70

D

Question 71

92. 6-mercaptopurine (6-MP) is an anticancer drug that ________________ and is less effective in some cancer patients because ________________________.

A. binds to amino acids, of a single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) that inhibits drug uptake.
B. acts as an amino acid, of a SNP that reduces the activity of a 6-MP metabolizing enzyme.
C. incorporates into DNA, of a SNP that enhances the activity of a 6-MP inactivating enzyme.
D. induces post-translational modifications of DNA polymerase, of a lack of DNA polymerase in some patients.

Answer 71

C

Question 72

93. A DNA mobility shift assay evaluates transcription factor function and is based on:

A. the ability for protein to bind to specific DNA sequences.
B. the ability for DNA to be exported out of the nucleus.
C. measuring mRNA transcription and protein translation.
D. measuring endocytosis and lysosome targeting.

Answer 72

A

Question 73

94. A patient fails to obtain the analgesic effects of codeine. Pharmacogenomic and single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP) analysis of CYP2D6, a cytochrome p450 enzyme involved in metabolizing codeine, would likely reveal:

A. a mutation that causes activation pf CYP2D6.
B. a mutation that causes inactivation of CYP2D6.
C. a mutation that increases expression of CYP2D6.
D. a mutation that increases phosphorylation of CYP2D6.

Answer 73

B

Question 74

95. Some of the limitations of pharmacogenomic information include:

A. Understanding the complexity of the genetic variations and how it affects a drug response.
B. The use of the pharmacogenomic information by a third party (eg. insurance company)
C. The inability to predict whether changes in gene expression correlate with protein changes.
D. All of the above.

Answer 74

D

Question 75

96. By definition, a pluripotent can develop into which of the following tissue types?

A. ectoderm that forms epidermal and nervous tissue.
B. mesoderm that forms muscles and bones.
C. endoderm that forms epithelial cells that line the gastrointestinal tract.
D. All of the above.

Answer 75

D

Question 76

97. Which of the following defines a characteristic of an effective stem cell?

A. Limited proliferation capabilities and the ability to differentiate into one cell type.
B. Unlimited proliferation capabilities and the ability to differentiate into a desired cell type.
C. Following differentiation, the ability to function only for a brief period of time in the recipient.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 76

B

Question 77

98. The process of somatic cell nuclear transfer (SCNT) is used to generate embryonic stem cells without having to fertilize an egg with sperm. Which of the following is required for SCNT?

A. An unfertilized egg that has the nucleus removed.
B. A nucleus containing haploid DNA from a sperm cell.
C. A fertilized egg containing diploid DNA from the egg and sperm.
D. All of the above are correct.

Answer 77

A

Question 78

99. Induction of stem cell pluripotency appears to involve transcription factors, such as Oct4, SOX2, and NANOG, and translation regulators, such as Lin28. Which of the following is true?

A. NANOG, Oct4, and SOX2 are only expressed in adult tissue.
B. Lin28 interacts with DNA and regulates gene expression.
C. Oct4 and Sox2 interact with DNA and regulate gene expression.
D. All of the above.

Answer 78

C