FINAL EXAM

Question 1

To whom is a health care worker’s primary responsibility to?

Answer 1

patient

Question 2

If the image produced during a patient’s procedure is not diagnostic or lacking information the radiologist needs to make an interpretation, is it an acceptable practice to repeat the image?

Answer 2

Definitely

Question 3

What is assault?

Answer 3

The threat of touching a person in a harmful manner

Question 4

What is battery?

Answer 4

Touching someone without permission

Question 5

Regarding the rights of patients, can a patient refuse an exam?

Answer 5

Yes, it is a tort if done after refusal

Question 6

Regarding the rights of patients, can an RT add images to a procedure because the patient requests it?

Answer 6

no

Question 7

Regarding patient’s rights, is the patient entitled to know the technologist’s name that is performing the procedure?

Answer 7

yes

Question 8

Regarding patient’s rights, is the technologist supposed to tell the patient if there are risks associated with the procedure to be performed?

Answer 8

yes

Question 9

Regarding ARRT sanctions, will they result from inadequate radiation protection by failing to shield the patient properly?

Answer 9

No, but it is unethical and a tort

Question 10

Regarding ARRT sanctions, will they result if a student or RT is convicted of a felony?

Answer 10

yes

Question 11

Regarding ARRT sanctions, if the RT attempts to interpret images or share any other information about the images to the patient?

Answer 11

No, but they could be fired because it is not in an RT’s scope of practice

Question 12

What information is required on an image?

Answer 12

Patient name/ID, date of exam, right or left marker, and institution’s ID

Question 13

What offense has an RT committed if s/he shares confidential information about a patient with a third party?

Answer 13

Invasion of privacy and a tort

Question 14

What does respondeat superior mean?

Answer 14

Let the master answer

Question 15

What are some of the common terms associated with the legal document that authorizes another to make health care decisions when the patient is unable to?

Answer 15

Advanced health care directive, living will, health care proxy

Question 16

When may a fax (facsimile) containing health information legally be sent?

Answer 16

When urgently needed for patient care, third party payer hospital certification

Question 17

What is slander and invasion of privacy categorized as?

Answer 17

Intentional misconduct

Question 18

Regarding patient consent, can unnecessary blanks be left empty on consent forms the patient signs?

Answer 18

No

Question 19

Regarding patient consent, must the physician who signs the consent form perform the procedure or can other physicians in the same practice perform the procedure too?

Answer 19

Only the physician who signs

Question 20

Regarding patient consent, is it necessary for a patient to sign before receiving sedation?

Answer 20

yes

Question 21

Accidents happen and sometimes an injury is just as much the fault of the patient as the health care provider, what is this called?

Answer 21

Contributory negligence

Question 22

What could an RT be charged with if the wrong part of the body is imaged?

Answer 22

battery

Question 23

An RT may be required to work under a variety of different circumstances and conditions that depend on their place of employment. One condition one must be ready for in this profession is working with all ___ and ___.

Answer 23

Cultures, religions

Question 24

Diagnostic procedures and their diagnosis are considered to be ___ and ___.

Answer 24

Privileged, confidential

Question 25

What type of consent occurs when a procedure that is necessary to save a life is performed without the patient’s agreement because the patient is incapable of giving permission?

Answer 25

implied

Question 26

What defines the role of the radiologic technologist (RT) and establishes the criteria used to evaluate performance?

Answer 26

Practice Standards

Question 27

What can a radiographer do to help maintain a high level of expertise in the health care profession?

Answer 27

Joining professional organizations

Question 28

What is ethics?

Answer 28

A set of moral principles that govern one’s course of action

Question 29

What would the mistake be considered if the wrong medication or contrast agent was administered to a patient?

Answer 29

Unintentional tort

Question 30

When can a patient have restraints applied?

Answer 30

By physician order only

Question 31

Which regulatory body is commonly referred by health care workers as that requiring evidence of a high quality of care?

Answer 31

Joint Commission

Question 32

Is it an acceptable procedure for a patient to withhold information from the radiographer concerning previous treatment for communicable disease/s?

Answer 32

no

Question 33

Name some of the aspects of a patient’s health assessed by a professional?

Answer 33

Cultural background, mental and physical state

Question 34

Define channel communication

Answer 34

A written page or spoken word

Question 35

Physiological needs are a person’s most basic needs according to what?

Answer 35

Maslow’s hierarchy

Question 36

What are the stages of grief and what occurs during each stage?

Answer 36

Denial, Anger, Bargaining, Depression, Acceptance

Question 37

Which stage of grief is a patient in when s/he begins to deal with the pain and other aspects of the illness?

Answer 37

Acceptance

Question 38

An informed consent form is necessary for invasive procedures and those requiring sedation. What is an example of a procedure performed in the imaging department requiring informed consent?

Answer 38

angiograms

Question 39

Barium sulfate is commonly administered for gastrointestinal procedures. It is a metallic salt suspension in water. The body will extract and excrete the water leaving the heavy metallic salt in the GI tract unless the patient receives proper instructions to follow. What are some of the common instructions?

Answer 39

Contact the physician if there is no bowel movement in 24 hours, changes in stool color will occur until all of the barium sulfate is evacuated, and increase fluid and fiber intake for several days

Question 40

What type of communication precautions should be taken with an unconscious patient?

Answer 40

Reassure the patient about what is being done, refer to the patient by name, make only those statements that would be made to a conscious patient

Question 41

What are the common elements of the patient’s medical chart apart from patient identification?

Answer 41

Medical history, diagnostic and therapeutic orders and results, informed consent

Question 42

What is veracity?

Answer 42

Sincerity and truthfulness

Question 43

What course of action should be followed if the imaging requisition differs from the patient’s description of the complaint or injury?

Answer 43

Verify with the referring physician

Question 44

Does a patient have the right to see his/her chart while in the RT’s possession? The answer is no, so what is the best response?

Answer 44

Inform the patient that s/he has the right to see the chart but that s/he should request to view it with his physician so that it is interpreted properly

Question 45

What is the difference between subjective and objective data?

Answer 45

Objective data is based on facts and concrete evidence and subjective data is based on judgment by an individual and personal opinion

Question 46

What abilities are required for critical thinking?

Answer 46

Interpretation and evaluation

Question 47

What is the first step in problem solving?

Answer 47

Collecting data

Question 48

When performing tasks that have been successfully performed before, what is the mode of thinking used?

Answer 48

Recall

Question 49

When does a radiographer consider the need for patient assistance for a particular patient?

Answer 49

During the implementation of a plan of care

Question 50

When are a patient’s customs and values considered?

Answer 50

During patient assessment

Question 51

What is an expectation a patient can have from his/her radiographer?

Answer 51

person who is attentive to the patient’s needs

Question 52

What skill does a successful communicator possess?

Answer 52

Ability to listen

Question 53

When a patient makes a verbal statement to a radiographer it is important to repeat the idea to the patient to make sure everyone understands what is going on. What is this?

Answer 53

Restating the main idea

Question 54

A response to the patient that keeps the feeling and meaning of the patient’s verbal expression in mind is communicating in what manner?

Answer 54

Therapeutic manner

Question 55

What is the correct response for a patient who has suffered a serious loss?

Answer 55

Be supportive and allow the patient to retain hope

Question 56

Is there any action a radiographer should take if caring for a serious ill patient and there is no health care directive on the patient’s chart?

Answer 56

Yes, inform supervisor or patient’s physician

Question 57

What is ambulatory mean?

Answer 57

Able to walk; walking

Question 58

Which direction is a disabled patient turned on an x-ray table?

Answer 58

Turn the patient toward you

Question 59

In reference to the spine, what is important to remember when lifting a patient?

Answer 59

Keep back straight

Question 60

Describe the Fowler position.

Answer 60

Feet lower than head

Question 61

Describe how to move a heavy object.

Answer 61

Pull or drag it

Question 62

In addition to referring to a patient by name, how is the identity of a patient verified?

Answer 62

ID armband

Question 63

What is the placement of a wheelchair in relation to the x-ray table when transferring a patient?

Answer 63

Close to the table at approximately a 45 degree angle

Question 64

For a patient with a brain injury, what patient position should be maintained when being transferred?

Answer 64

Semi-erect

Question 65

Describe the Trendelenburg position.

Answer 65

Head lower than feet

Question 66

When assisting a patient from a wheelchair to the x-ray table and the patient has a stronger side, which side is closer to the table?

Answer 66

The stronger side is closer the table

Question 67

What method of moving is used for patients with suspected spinal injury?

Answer 67

Logrolling

Question 68

When assisting a patient in a wheelchair, what should be done with the footrests?

Answer 68

Move them aside, do not let the patient step on them or trip over them

Question 69

What is orthopnea?

Answer 69

The sensation of breathlessness in the recumbent position

Question 70

Describe the best way to reduce friction when moving a patient.

Answer 70

Place patient arms across chest and use a pull sheet

Question 71

What must be done when a patient is transported back to the room and assisted back into the bed?

Answer 71

Place side rails up, place bed in low position, place call button close at hand

Question 72

What is the best method to move a seriously ill and/or weak patient from a stretcher (gurney) to an x-ray table?

Answer 72

Move by smooth mover (smoothing board) and three assistants

Question 73

In reference to proper undressing, How should a patient in the x-ray department for a procedure be directed?

Answer 73

Escort patient to dressing room and give proper undressing instructions

Question 74

Is it necessary to know a patient’s HIV status in order to care for the patient?

Answer 74

No! we protect ourselves at all times using standard precautions all of the time

Question 75

Patients are physically immobilized when necessary. What is the most effective form of immobilization?

Answer 75

Communication

Question 76

Locate a person’s center of gravity.

Answer 76

Center of the pelvis

Question 77

What types of infections are increasing in development due to the increased resistance of microorganisms to antibiotics?

Answer 77

Hospital-acquired (nosocomial) infections

Question 78

What is the most common site of hospital-acquired infection to develop?

Answer 78

Urinary tract

Question 79

What is the most successful method of infection control?

Answer 79

Handwashing

Question 80

What were Standard precautions formerly known as?

Answer 80

Universal Precautions

Question 81

What practice is based on the assumption that all patients are potential sources of infectious disease?

Answer 81

Standard Precautions

Question 82

What is the institution that inspects work sites and protects employees and students from work-related injuries and illnesses?

Answer 82

OSHA

Question 83

In what manner are all used needles and syringes treated?

Answer 83

Never recap a needle!

Question 84

What precaution is acceptable to protect others in the area should a patient be coughing and sneezing in a waiting area?

Answer 84

Ask them to refrain from this near the others in the area

Question 85

What personal protection is required to enter a strict isolation unit with a portable machine?

Answer 85

Cassette covers,
cap,
gown,
at least 2 pairs of clean exam gloves

Question 86

What is the responsibility of a radiographer receiving a needle stick injury?

Answer 86

To repeat the injury and to receive treatment

Question 87

Before entering a strict isolation room for an imaging procedure, what are some items the radiographer should prepare?

Answer 87

Extra gloves

Question 88

A vascular access device may be the potential cause of what type of infection?

Answer 88

Nosocomial

Question 89

What type of bacteria are Staphylococci as it relates to the body as a potential source of disease?

Answer 89

Normal flora

Question 90

What causes influenza?

Answer 90

virus

Question 91

What causes hepatitis A?

Answer 91

virus

Question 92

What causes tuberculosis, streptococcal infections, Salmonella poisoning, gonorrhea, syphilis, staphylococci, bacilli, and tetanus?

Answer 92

bacteria

Question 93

What causes malaria and giardiasis?

Answer 93

bacteria

Question 94

What causes coccidioidomycosis and thrush?

Answer 94

yeast

Question 95

What precautions must a health care worker who has cold symptoms take before entering the newborn nursery?

Answer 95

The worker is not allowed in the area!

Question 96

The removal by mechanical and chemical processes of pathogenic microorganisms, but frequently not their spores is known as what?

Answer 96

Disinfection

Question 97

What is the method of pathogen spread when a person is coughing or sneezing?

Answer 97

droplet

Question 98

What method of disposal is used for discarded and disposable items after completing a radiographic procedure in a strict isolation area?

Answer 98

Discard items in biohazard bags

Question 99

What is the establishment and growth of microorganisms on or in a host?

Answer 99

infection

Question 100

What is the means of disease transmission when an animal or insect spreads pathogens?

Answer 100

vector

Question 101

What type of container is used for the disposal of needles, syringes, and other sharp items?

Answer 101

Puncture-resistant containers

Question 102

What means of disease transmission is kissing?

Answer 102

direct contact

Question 103

What type precaution is necessary for droplet transmission?

Answer 103

mask

Question 104

What types of precautions are used for a communicable disease?

Answer 104

Transmission-based precautions

Question 105

What type of transmission involves the spread of disease through contaminated water or food?

Answer 105

vehicle

Question 106

What is the term for any disease producing microorganism?

Answer 106

pathogen

Question 107

What is the practice used to retard the growth of pathogenic bacteria?

Answer 107

antiseptic

Question 108

An infectious agent and a reservoir of available organisms, an environment in which the pathogenic microbes can live and multiply a portal of exit from the reservoir, a means of transmission, and a portal of entry into a new host are all elements needed for the ___ of infection.

Answer 108

transmission

Question 109

Are hand lotions an acceptable skin care regiment in a health care environment?

Answer 109

yes

Question 110

___ contact occurs when a susceptible person actually touches and infected or colonized person’s body surface in an area where infectious microbes are present, such as bodily fluids.

Answer 110

direct

Question 111

___ contact occurs when a susceptible person touches or comes into contact with an object that has been contaminated with infectious microorganisms, such as fomites and vectors.

Answer 111

indirect

Question 112

What is the type of isolation that protects an immune deficient patient having such conditions as tuberculosis, burns, and leukemia?

Answer 112

Protective (reverse) isolation

Question 113

Should contaminated areas be cleaned from the most contaminated to the least or the least to the most?

Answer 113

Least to most

Question 114

Should contaminated areas be cleaned from the bottom up or the top down?

Answer 114

Top down

Question 115

What are Clorox and Lysol examples of?

Answer 115

Disinfectants

Question 116

Are gloves generally indicated when caring for those with droplet precautions?

Answer 116

yes

Question 117

Are masks generally indicated when caring for those with MRSA precautions?

Answer 117

yes

Question 118

Are masks generally indicated when caring for those with airborne precautions?

Answer 118

yes

Question 119

Is isolation in negative pressure rooms generally indicated for MRSA patients?

Answer 119

no

Question 120

What personal protection items are required when entering an area with contact isolation?

Answer 120

Gown and gloves

Question 121

An angiogram is an invasive radiographic procedure requiring the introduction of contrast media via puncture and/or cutting into the skin and the vascular system. The splattering of blood and body fluids may occur. What type of protection should be in place for eye care?

Answer 121

Goggles or other special protective eyewear

Question 122

Biopsies and procedures where blood and body fluids are likely to splatter require what type of protective eye care?

Answer 122

goggles/special eyewear

Question 123

A common radiographic procedure involving the ingestion of barium or other contrast media is the upper gastrointestinal exam. What type of protective eye care is necessary for this type of noninvasive exam?

Answer 123

none usually

Question 124

During portable radiographic exams in a strict isolation area, one team member is considered the clean person and one is considered the “dirty” or contaminated person. In this type of relationship which one makes the exposure?

Answer 124

clean person

Question 125

What should occur if a health care worker has cracks or abrasions of the skin?

Answer 125

These should be properly cared for and kept covered

Question 126

The stages of infection are the incubation stage, the prodromal stage, the full disease stage, and the convalescent stage. Which stage is when the disease reaches its fullest extent?

Answer 126

Full disease stage

Question 127

The stages of infection are the incubation stage, the prodromal stage, the full disease stage, and the convalescent stage. Which stage is when the disease enters the body and may lie dormant for a short period and then begin to multiply?

Answer 127

Incubation stage

Question 128

The stages of infection are the incubation stage, the prodromal stage, the full disease stage, and the convalescent stage. Which stage is when the disease begins to disappear?

Answer 128

Convalescent stage

Question 129

The stages of infection are the incubation stage, the prodromal stage, the full disease stage, and the convalescent stage. Which stage is when the disease has the most specific symptoms?

Answer 129

Prodromal stage

Question 130

What is the reduction of microorganisms in the immediate environment?

Answer 130

Medical asepsis

Question 131

What should be done with cassettes after they are used for an isolation patient?

Answer 131

Disinfected before returning them to storage/use

Question 132

What is an infection caused by physician intervention?

Answer 132

Iatrogenic infection

Question 133

Is tuberculosis transmitted through blood infection?

Answer 133

no

Question 134

What are the general classifications for yeasts and molds?

Answer 134

Fungi

Question 135

What is considered to be the most effective medical aseptic technique?

Answer 135

Handwashing

Question 136

What is the cause of the common cold?

Answer 136

virus

Question 137

What response do white blood cells have to an invasion of the body by pathogens?

Answer 137

increase

Question 138

What is an item to which microorganisms cling?

Answer 138

fomite

Question 139

Mr. X received care from a radiographer who had respirtaory infection. Days after leaving hospital, he gets ill. what kind of infection is this?

Answer 139

nosocomial infection

Question 140

Mrs. Mary was in an accident and is on broad-spectrum antibiotics and now has severe diarrhea and shows C. difficile. This is:

Answer 140

Community-aquired infection

Question 141

First line of defense against infection:

Answer 141

hair, skin, acidic condition of the stomach

Question 142

Aquired immunity

Answer 142

results from active production or receipt of antibodies

Question 143

active aquired immunity

Answer 143

antibodies actually produced w/in a person’s body; usually long-term immunity

Question 144

passive aquired immunity

Answer 144

antibodies are received from another person or an animal; usually short-term immunity

Question 145

natural active acquired immunity

Answer 145

antibodies acquired by actually having anactual disease; reinfection may be short or long-term

Question 146

Artificial active acquired immunity

Answer 146

antibodies formed by vaccination that enable one to form antibodies against that particular pathogen

Question 147

natural acquired immunity

Answer 147

antibodies present in a mother’s blood or colostrum are passed to infant

Question 148

artificail passive acquired immunity

Answer 148

antibodies are transferred from an immune individual to a susceptible individualto give temporary immunity - usually by adminstering hyperimmune serum from blood fo many immune people

Question 149

incubation stage

Answer 149

pathogen enters the body and may lie dormant for a time then begins to produce nonspecific symptoms of disease

Question 150

prodromal stage

Answer 150

more specific symptoms of the disease show, disease becomes highly infectious

Question 151

full disease stage

Answer 151

disease reaches its fullest extent or in some cases, produces only vague sub-clinical symptoms, still highly infectious

Question 152

convalescent stage

Answer 152

symptoms diminish and eventually disappear; some disappear, some go into latent stage

Question 153

which infectious diseases go latent?

Answer 153

malaria
tb
herpes

Question 154

What is a fenestrated drape?

Answer 154

A drape with one or more openings

Question 155

The three zones of the surgical suite are Zone 1: An unrestricted zone, Zone 2: A semirestricted zone, and Zone 3: A restricted zone. In which zone must ALL persons wear scrub dress, shoe covers, and masks?

Answer 155

Zone 3

Question 156

Why is catheterization considered to be an invasive procedure?

Answer 156

Sterile technique must be observed

Question 157

What are Alcohol (70%), chlorine compounds, and glutaraldehyde considered to be?

Answer 157

Disinfectants

Question 158

What is the practice that helps reduce the number and spread of microorganisms?

Answer 158

Medical asepsis

Question 159

During the performance of radiographic procedures, everyone in the adjacent area (in the room) should be wearing protective radiation apparel, such as a lead apron. In the surgical suite during the operative procedure, which persons should be wearing protective radiation apparel?

Answer 159

Everyone who remains during x-ray exposures

Question 160

Generally, when radiographer/s are in the operating room, they are not scrubbed-in, but must follow general Zone 3 dress and what else?

Answer 160

Handwashing for 3 minutes plus scrub suit, shoe covers, cap, and mask (gloves are not usually needed)

Question 161

What is the complete removal of microorganisms and their spores?

Answer 161

Surgical asepsis

Question 162

In regards to surgical asepsis, what are the responsibilities of a radiographer?

Answer 162

Maintain a sterile field and perform skin prep, and perform surgical scrub

Question 163

What is the assumption when the sterility of an object is in question?

Answer 163

Do not use, it is considered contaminated

Question 164

Which corner of a sterile pack is opened first?

Answer 164

The corner farthest away

Question 165

When the sterile person begins placing the sterile drapes, which drapes are placed first?

Answer 165

The drapes closest to the sterile person

Question 166

How is the skin prepped for a sterile procedure?

Answer 166

Begin at the inside of the site and scrub in a circular motion to the outside

Question 167

A wet area on a sterile field is considered contaminated. If this occurs what should be done?

Answer 167

Place several thicknesses of sterile towels over the wet area

Question 168

What is the most effective sterilization technique

Answer 168

Moist heat

Question 169

When portable x-ray units are brought into the operating room, what is the essential preparation that must be performed?

Answer 169

Wipe the unit with disinfectant (just dusting it off is not enough)

Question 170

When preparing to pour liquids into a container on a sterile field, precautions must be taken to prevent the solution from splashing and drips from landing on the tray, what are some of these precautions?

Answer 170

Place lid face upward and well above the sterile tray and pour off a small amount before pouring remainder into the sterile container

Question 171

In designing an operating room, many possible hazards are considered and protections put into place, such as explosions and electrical shocks. What is the greatest hazard that cannot be placed into the physical design?

Answer 171

Contamination

Question 172

How should persons in sterile dress pass each other?

Answer 172

Back to back

Question 173

In order to prevent explosions in the operating room, what precautions are generally taken?

Answer 173

Use antistatic cleaners for equipment, use the specially designed electrical plugs, and wear apparel with antistatic/flame retardant materials (shoe covers and other garment have antistatic strips made in them

Question 174

Generally, what areas are considered sterile in the operating room?

Answer 174

Draped patient, surgeon and scrub nurse, and instrument table and instruments

Question 175

What is the complete removal of all microorganisms rom an object called?

Answer 175

Sterilization

Question 176

What does an autoclave use to sterilize objects placed inside?

Answer 176

Steam under pressure

Question 177

when entering a surgical suite and preparing to enter Zone 2, a radiographer must:

Answer 177

change into scrub suit, shoe covers and cover hair

Question 178

Disinfectants are categorized depending on their ability to disinfect. Alcohol is considered an intermediate-level disinfectant. This means that

Answer 178

may be used to disinfect thermometers adn medication vials

Question 179

the purpose of a surgical scrub is

Answer 179

to remove as many microorganisms as possible from the skin

Question 180

when sterile drapes are placed by the sterile person the drape is placed:

Answer 180

in area nearest sterile person first

Question 181

sterile technique must be used during a dressing change only if the dressing is not contaminated
true or false?

Answer 181

false: the changed dressing is always considered to be contaminated

Question 182

list 3 responsibilities of the radiographer in the OR or special procedures room:

Answer 182

1. for protecting everyone in the room from radiation exposure
2. to be knowledgeable about the areas that are sterile
3. to make sure any radiation equipment used is clean and dust free

Question 183

list 3 things that contaminate a surgical suite or OR:

Answer 183

1. contaminated gloves/surgical instruments
2. wet/damp sterile field
3. microorganisms blown onto a surgical site

Question 184

What is the preferable site for taking a pulse?

Answer 184

Radial

Question 185

Which vital signs assessment is being performed when the patient is seated or lying supine, the chest is observed for movement symmetry, and skin color is noted?

Answer 185

Respiration

Question 186

A consistent diastolic reading greater than 90 mm Hg may be an indication for what condition?

Answer 186

Hypertension

Question 187

How does medically induced hypothermia affect the body’s need for oxygen?

Answer 187

It is decreased

Question 188

What is the highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricle?

Answer 188

Systole (systolic blood pressure)

Question 189

Why must oxygen use be ordered by a physician?

Answer 189

It may be toxic

Question 190

What is an abnfor adultsormally rapid heart rate over 100 beats per minute?

Answer 190

Tachycardia

Question 191

Which pulse site requires the proper use of a stethoscope?

Answer 191

Apical pulse

Question 192

Which device is used to measure the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen?

Answer 192

Pulse oximetry

Question 193

What forms of taking a temperature are considered to be convenient, but unreliable?

Answer 193

Temperature sensitive patches on the abdomen or forehead

Question 194

Usually, if a patient’s pulse is rapid, then the blood pressure is ___.

Answer 194

low

Question 195

Is the pulse rate for an infant faster or slower than that for an adult?

Answer 195

Much faster, approximately 115-130 beats per minute for infants and 70-80 beats per minute for adults

Question 196

A consistent systolic reading greater than 140 may be an indication for what condition?

Answer 196

Hypertension

Question 197

When writing blood pressure readings, which reading is the number on the top?

Answer 197

Systolic blood pressure (the contraction phase of the heart muscle)

Question 198

When writing blood pressure readings, which reading is the number on the bottom?

Answer 198

Diastolic blood pressure (the relaxation phase of the heart muscle)

Question 199

What is the normal average rate of respiration for an adult?

Answer 199

12-20 breaths per minute

Question 200

What is the normal range of diastolic blood pressure for an adult?

Answer 200

60-90 mm Hg

Question 201

What are the units of measurement for blood pressure?

Answer 201

Mm Hg (millimeters of mercury)

Question 202

When taking a pulse, which blood vessels are best suited?

Answer 202

Superficial arteries

Question 203

What do the symptoms retraction of the intercostal spaces, cyanosis, and dyspnea indicate?

Answer 203

Inadequate oxygen supply

Question 204

Why is anaphylactic shock the type of shock most often seen in the diagnostic imaging department?

Answer 204

Water soluble iodinated contrast media is used for many of the imaging procedures

Question 205

What is the medical term for fainting?

Answer 205

Syncope

Question 206

What is an abnormally high amount of glucose in the blood called?

Answer 206

Hyperglycemia

Question 207

What is the term that means a heart rate of greater than 100 beats per minute?

Answer 207

Tachycardia

Question 208

What is the result of an exaggerated hypersensitivity reaction?

Answer 208

Anaphylactic shock

Question 209

What is an occlusion of one or more pulmonary arteries by a thrombus or thrombi?

Answer 209

Pulmonary embolus

Question 210

What causes can be associated with pulmonary embolus?

Answer 210

Usually deep vein thrombus associated with trauma, orthopedic and surgical procedures, pregnancy, congestive heart failure, prolonged immobility, hypercoagulable states

Question 211

What is the body’s pathologic reaction to illness, trauma, or severe physiologic or emotional stress?

Answer 211

shock

Question 212

Cold and clammy skin, pallor, nausea and dizziness, increased respirations from shortness of breath, anxiety level increases and possible uncooperativeness, blood pressure decrease, and pulse rate increase are indications of what disorder?

Answer 212

shock

Question 213

Which condition is associated with the pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the heart?

Answer 213

Angina pectoris

Question 214

Which position should a patient experiencing fainting be placed in?

Answer 214

Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated (Trendelenburg)

Question 215

Which type of shock is often associated with pulmonary embolism?

Answer 215

Cardiogenic shock

Question 216

Which type of shock is often associated with myocardial infarction?

Answer 216

Cardiogenic shock

Question 217

Severe hemorrhaging from an injury requires which type of immediate emergency response?

Answer 217

Call for assistance from the ER and apply pressure to the site of the bleeding

Question 218

What does a patient need if s/he has taken insulin but not eaten and becomes weak?

Answer 218

Something with sugar

Question 219

A defibrillator is the mechanical device used to correct what condition?

Answer 219

Ineffectual cardiac rhythm

Question 220

What is the term associated with difficulty of swallowing?

Answer 220

Dysphagia

Question 221

What condition is cerebral vascular accident (CVA) associated with?

Answer 221

stroke

Question 222

When will brain damage begin to occur from a lack of oxygen?

Answer 222

1-3 minutes

Question 223

What type of shock is associated with a loss of body fluids or blood?

Answer 223

Hypovolemic shock

Question 224

What can be the result of a patient taking his/her regular dose of insulin when having food and water restricted for a radiologic procedure?

Answer 224

Insulin shock

Question 225

What is a radiographer’s first response to a patient having a seizure in the diagnostic imaging department?

Answer 225

Prevent injury to the patient

Question 226

What can insufficient blood supply to the brain from heart disease, hunger, poor ventilation, extreme fatigue, and emotional trauma cause?

Answer 226

Syncope

Question 227

What immediate treatment can be given to a patient in insulin shock that is still conscious?

Answer 227

Something with sugar

Question 228

What type of shock is associated with a failure of the heart to pOpen fracturesump enough blood to the vital organs?

Answer 228

Cardiogenic shock

Question 229

When a mobile radiograph of the seven cervical vertebrae is performed in the lateral projection for a trauma patient how many of the cervical vertebrae must be included on the image?

Answer 229

All 7

Question 230

Which diagnostic image is quite often performed as a routine oder for trauma patients?

Answer 230

Chest because it provides so much information

Question 231

When performing trauma radiography of the bones, a minimum of two images is required with the images at what angle to each other?

Answer 231

90 degrees

Question 232

What type of fracture has the bone fragments exposed?

Answer 232

Open fractures

Question 233

What type of force results in traumatic injury?

Answer 233

External

Question 234

What is a CVP?

Answer 234

Central venous pressure

Question 235

Where should a CVP line be inserted?

Answer 235

Subclavian vein

Question 236

What should be placed in the chest cavity to evacuate fluid from the pleural cavity?

Answer 236

Chest tube

Question 237

What is the term describing the presence of blood in the pleural cavity?

Answer 237

Hemothorax

Question 238

When involved with traumatic injuries that have the possibility of blood and body fluids spraying the face, in addition to the exam gloves needed for contact, what other PPE will be needed?

Answer 238

mask

Question 239

When head and cervical spine injuries are to be treated for a trauma patient, what type of fracture must be ruled out before a patient may be allowed to move without immobilization?

Answer 239

Cervical spine, always at least a cross table lateral

Question 240

What types of lines may be demonstrated by mobile chest images to verify proper placement?

Answer 240

PICC, Hickman, and CVP lines (catheters)

Question 241

What is the most common type of mechanical ventilator used in hospitals?

Answer 241

Positive pressure ventilator

Question 242

How is total parenteral nutrition (TPN) delivered to the patient?

Answer 242

Central venous route

Question 243

Who should be called to perform emergency suctioning if profuse vomiting occurs in a patient who cannot voluntarily change position, if audible rattling or gurgling sounds coming form the patient’s throat, or if signs of respiratory distress occur?

Answer 243

The physician or RN

Question 244

What might be the result of an endotracheal tube being placed too high in the trachea?

Answer 244

Air may enter the stomach

Question 245

What might be the result of an endotracheal tube being placed too low in the trachea?

Answer 245

The tube may enter the right main bronchus which would result in the collapse of the the left lung

Question 246

How is the proper position of an endotracheal tube confirmed?

Answer 246

Chest x-ray

Question 247

What is the correct placement of an endotracheal tube?

Answer 247

5 to 7 cm above the tracheal bifurcation (carina)

Question 248

What are some of the uses for central venous catheters?

Answer 248

Parenteral nutrition, frequent blood transfusions, hyperosmolar solutions, and long term medication administration

Question 249

What are some of the more common types of nasogastric tubes?

Answer 249

Levin, Sump, Nutriflex, Moss, and Sengstaken-Blakemore

Question 250

What is the purpose of nasogastric tubes?

Answer 250

Administration of medications and feeding

Question 251

whatich are essential parts of the initial assessment of a patient who is in the diagnostic imaging department for an invasive procedure?

Answer 251

taking vitals: 
blood pressure
pulse
respiration rate
temp

Question 252

what range of breaths per minsute is the normal adult respiratory rate?

Answer 252

15-20

Question 253

an adult patient is considered to be hypertensive or to have hypertension if the systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure are consistently greater than:

Answer 253

140 systolic and 90diastolic

Question 254

a patient may be considered to have tachycardia if the pulse rate is higher than:

Answer 254

over 100 beats/min

Question 255

which of the following items must be in the diagnostic imaging dept and in working order?

Answer 255

oxygen delivery system

blood pressure monitoring equipment

Question 256

name 2 of the most commonly used oxygen delivery systems

Answer 256

nasal cannula

face mask

Question 257

measures apical pulse

Answer 257

stethoscope

Question 258

point where the blood pressure is most often measured

Answer 258

brachial artery

Question 259

measures blood pressure

Answer 259

sphygmomanometer

Question 260

insufficient insulin (type 1) causes the liver to produce more glucose (results in hyperglycemia) and the kidneys attempt to compensate by excreting glucose with water and electrolytes. Excessive urination and dehydration

Answer 260

Ketoacidosis

Question 261

True or False:

Never attempt chest compressions on a patient whose heart is beating.

Answer 261

true

Question 262

True or False:

Attempting to do abdominal or chest thrust on a patient whose airway is not obstructed is ok.

Answer 262

false

Question 263

strong, irregular pulse
respiration increased (shortness of breath)
skin is cold and clammy
mental status changes and could end up in coma
rapid heartbeat

Answer 263

general signs/indicators of shock`

Question 264

labored noisy breathing, wheezing, use of neck muscles to assist with breathing

Answer 264

symptoms of partially obstructed airway

Question 265

16 year old comes to DI ofr a CT scan. He is lying on table in supine position. He suddenly seems to lose consciousness and begins to move violently with jerking motions. You realize that he is having a generalized seizure. What is the most appropriate action to do?

Answer 265

call for help and make sure patient does not injure himself

Question 266

16 year old comes to DI ofr a CT scan. He is lying on table in supine position. He suddenly seems to lose consciousness and begins to move violently with jerking motions. You realize that he is having a generalized seizure. What is the LEAST appropriate action to do?

Answer 266

Place patient on floor and begin CPR

Question 267

Mrs. Glucose, age 35, had an open reduction of her left femur 3 days earlier and has been trasnported to the DI dept by gurney from her hospital room for radiographs. As you prepare her for it she suddenly begins to complain of pain in her midchest and appears to be out of breath. You stop and take her pulse/BP. You find out that her BP is 120/80 and her raidal pulse is 120/min and is very difficult to palpate b/c it is so weak and thready. You quickly notificy the physician and he directs you to call the emergency team (but not a Code Blue) You do this and make other emergency preperations.. You believe this may be:

Answer 267

pulmonary embolus

Question 268

Fainting is a common medical emergency in the DI dept. If a patient appears to be fainting, what is the first thing to do?

Answer 268

assist the patient to a safe position and then call for help

Question 269

difficult speech, severe headache, on sided, drooping eye and face, loss of consciousness

Answer 269

CVA aka stroke

Question 270

choking, inability to speak, eventual loss of consciousness

Answer 270

airway obstruction

Question 271

itching of eyes, apprehensiveness, wheezing, choking

Answer 271

anaphylactic shock

Question 272

loss of consciousness, decreased blood pressure, weak, rapid pulse

Answer 272

hypovolemic shock

Question 273

pallor; slow irregular pulse, cool, clammy skin, restlessness

Answer 273

cardiogenic shock

Question 274

when called to the emergency room, supplies needed may include:

Answer 274

ALL:

gloves, mask, protective gown, goggles

Question 275

This tube is inserted through the nasopharynx into the stomach, the duodenum, or the jejunum
Contains a radiopaque tip to allow its visualization on images and fluoroscopy

Answer 275

NG tube

Question 276

To keep the stomach free of gastric contents and air
For healing purposes before or after surgery
For diagnostic examinations
Administration of medications, feedings, treat intestinal obstruction, and control bleeding

Answer 276

purpose of NG tube:

Question 277

Most Commonly Seen NG Tubes

Answer 277

levin

sump

Question 278

This tube passes into the duodenum and small intestine by means of peristalsis
Made up of the same material as NG tubes
Decompress the intestine

Answer 278

NE tube

Question 279

True or false?

Radiographers are not responsible for inserting or removing NG or NE tubes

Answer 279

true

Question 280

_____ is an opening into the stomach, usually through the abdominal wall

Answer 280

Gastrostomy tube

Question 281

A wall outlet or a working portable suction machine
Adapters for wall outlets
Clean gloves
Tubing

Answer 281

Items Necessary for Suctioning

Question 282

A tracheostomy is an opening into the trachea through the neck, created surgically to relieve _____distress caused by an obstruction.

Answer 282

respiratory

Question 283

what ventilator is seen most often in the home

Answer 283

negative pressure

Question 284

This is a tube inserted through the mouth into the trachea as a means of establishing or opening an airway on patients

Answer 284

Endotracheal Tubes

Question 285

Fluid build up in the pleural cavity

Answer 285

Pleural Effusion

Question 286

The trauma patient presents a wide variety of challenges for the radiographer:

Answer 286

Patient’s condition
Technical factors
Critical thinking
Quality images

Question 287

true or false?

remove pneumatic anti-shock garments.

Answer 287

false, NEVER remove

Question 288

what does Fx stand for?

Answer 288

fracture

Question 289

what is a crash cart?

Answer 289

A cart that contains medications and equipment that are needed when a patient’s condition suddenly becomes critical.
Every department has one or more.
KNOW where they are located

Question 290

abnormally low blood pressure occurring when a person stands up before the blood in the extremities has time to circulate to the upper body.

Answer 290

Orthostatic hypotension

Question 291

what is another name for fever?

Answer 291

pyrexia

Question 292

how many location to measure a pulse?

Answer 292

9

Question 293

where is radial?

Answer 293

at the wrist at the base of the thumb

Question 294

where is Carotid

Answer 294

neck

Question 295

where is temporal?

Answer 295

front of ear

Question 296

where is brachial?

Answer 296

groove of elbow

Question 297

Most Common Locations for Pulse

Answer 297

radial

carotid

Question 298

When a patient is using more than the normal effort to breathe

Answer 298

dyspnea

Question 299

Which age group is the “age of initiative”?

Answer 299

Preschooler (3 to 6 years)

Question 300

Which age group is the “age of identity”?

Answer 300

Adolescents (12 to 19 years)

Question 301

Which age is fearful of strangers?

Answer 301

Toddlers (1 to 3 years)

Question 302

Which age group is not fearful of strangers?

Answer 302

Infants (1 to 12 months)

Question 303

How may a sheet be used as a form of immobilization?

Answer 303

Properly folded or as a mummy-style wrap

Question 304

How might sandbags be used as a form of immobilization?

Answer 304

Place beside the area to prevent movement towards the sides; do not place on the patient or in the field to be x-rayed

Question 305

Besides checking for the possibility of pregnancy and the proper use of lead aprons and other radiation protection equipment, what is necessary to use the mother of a child for immobilization purposes?

Answer 305

Communication and detailed instructions

Question 306

What is the usual length of time for handwashing before entering the NICU?

Answer 306

At least 2 minutes or the hospital’s protocol

Question 307

Due to the fact that the cells in the body of a child are rapidly growing, rapidly changing, easily damaged, and very radiosensitive, what precautions should be strictly adhered to?

Answer 307

Radiation protection

Question 308

Regardless of the type of examination being performed, what should be communicated to a child if the procedure will be painful or very uncomfortable?

Answer 308

Tell the truth but also reassure the patient by being honest, concise, and friendly

Question 309

What type of immobilizer may be used for upright radiography of the chest and abdomen of an infant or small toddler?

Answer 309

Pigg-O-Stat

Question 310

Which age group should be allowed to confirm his or her own identity, have the procedure explained directly to him or her, and have a concern for the patient’s privacy?

Answer 310

Adolescents

Question 311

All patients are to have maximum radiation protection used for them. What is a major concern that must be addressed with adolescent patients?

Answer 311

Addressing the possibility of pregnancy for female patients

Question 312

what is age of pediatric patient?

Answer 312

infant - 15

Question 313

_____________ is a campaign dedicated to radiation protection for children

Answer 313

image gently

Question 314

Elderly patients are burdened with _____ illness rather than acute

Answer 314

chronic

Question 315

Symptoms of depression in the elderly person are often confused with “______.”

Answer 315

dementia

Question 316

There are three categories of elder abuse:

Answer 316

1. Domestic elder abuse
2. Institutional elder abuse
3. Self-neglect or Self-abuse

Question 317

_____ is radiography of the bladder

Answer 317

Cystography

Question 318

________ are catheters from the kidney to the bladder

Answer 318

Ureteral stents

Question 319

Establish what type of catheter to use:

Answer 319

Straight

Indwelling

Question 320

is a catheter which is inserted and left in place to allow continuous drainage of urine (most commonly used in radiology).

Answer 320

indwelling

Question 321

Is used to obtain a specimen or to empty the bladder and then removed.

Answer 321

straight

Question 322

Two common methods, could be temporary or permanent catheters:

Answer 322

Suprapubic catheter

Condom catheter

Question 323

Catheter placed directly into bladder through abdominal incision.
Reduce risk of infection as a long-term method of bladder drainage and facilitate normal urination after surgery.

Answer 323

Suprapubic Catheter

Question 324

Externally applied drainage used for males who are susceptible to UTIs or are incontinent or comatose
A soft rubber sheath that is placed over the penis and secured with adhesive material

Answer 324

condom catheter

Question 325

Radiographic imaging of the bladder. Using fluoroscope and radiography, the urinary bladder is visualized as it fills with contrast media and empties

Answer 325

Cystography

Question 326

Radiographic technique performed to visualize the proximal ureters and the kidneys after injection of an iodinated contrast agent through the ureter. This is done with a scope by a urologist

Answer 326

Retrograde Pyelogram

Question 327

There are two types of radiographic contrast agents:

Answer 327

Positive and Negative

Question 328

decreases organ density to produce contrast

Answer 328

Negative

Question 329

2 types of Negative:

Answer 329

Carbon dioxide

Air

Question 330

Negative contrast gives a ____(like air) appearance on an image

Answer 330

black

Question 331

increases organ density and improves radiographic visualization. Positive contrast agents create a density difference such as white or opaque appearance on the image.

Answer 331

Positive

Question 332

2 types of Positive:

Answer 332

Barium

Iodinated contrasts

Question 333

true or false?

All exams that do not require contrast media should be imaged first

Answer 333

true

Question 334

true or false?

Ultrasound should not be imaged prior to any GI studies

Answer 334

false: should be b/c of the contrast blocking views

Question 335

true or false?

BE study should be imaged first then the UGI to follow

Answer 335

true

Question 336

Hyperosmolar

Answer 336

can create dehydration

Question 337

Hyposmolar

Answer 337

can create fluid toxicity

Question 338

A ____is created by bringing a loop of bowel to the skin surface of the abdomen.

Answer 338

stoma

Question 339

____is Named by the Area of Surgery

Answer 339

ostomy

Question 340

What is the most commonly seen complication that occurs after hip arthroplasty in geriatric patients?

Answer 340

dislocation

Question 341

What may the appearance of a new “best friend” assisting with bill paying in secret for an elderly patient indicate?

Answer 341

financial abuse

Question 342

Are symptoms of dementia, including disorientation, confusion, gross memory deficits, paranoid ideation, hallucinations, and depression part of the normal aging process?

Answer 342

no

Question 343

Which site is the most common for athroplastic surgery?

Answer 343

hip

Question 344

Hypertension, arthritis, diabetes mellitus, pulmonary disease, and visual and hearing impairments are common conditions requiring what type of care?

Answer 344

long term care

Question 345

When should elderly patients be scheduled for difficult diagnostic examinations?

Answer 345

early am

Question 346

What is an abnormally increased convexity in the thoracic spine curvature?

Answer 346

kyphosis

Question 347

What is a radiographic technique performed by a radiologist or urologist to visualize the proximal ureters and the kidneys for obstruction after injection of an iodinated contrast medium?

Answer 347

Retrograde pyelography

Question 348

What is a radiological procedure used to visualize abnormalities of the urinary system, including the kidneys, ureters, and bladder?

Answer 348

Intravenous pyelography (IVP)

Question 349

What is radiography of the urinary bladder and urethra?

Answer 349

Cystourethrography

Question 350

What is radiography of the urethra studied as the patient voids upon removal of the catheter?

Answer 350

Voiding cystourethrography

Question 351

What type of catheter is used after surgery to allow the patient urinary emptying?

Answer 351

Indwelling catheter

Question 352

Which catheter is used to obtain a specimen or to empty the bladder and then removed?

Answer 352

straight

Question 353

Why is a strict surgical aseptic technique In maintained during catheterization of the urinary bladder?

Answer 353

To prevent urinary tract infections

Question 354

In what patients is cystography generally contraindicated?

Answer 354

pregnancy

Question 355

What type of catheter is placed directly into the bladder by means of an abdominal incision?

Answer 355

Suprapubic catheter

Question 356

What are some of the conditions that may be treated by the creation of a stoma through which the contents of the bowel can be eliminated?

Answer 356

Cancer, diverticulitis, and ulcerative colitis

Question 357

How does a negative contrast agent affect organ density?

Answer 357

Decreases it

Question 358

Is a negative contrast agent radiolucent or radiopaque?

Answer 358

Radiolucent

Question 359

How does a positive contrast agent affect organ density?

Answer 359

Increases it

Question 360

Is a positive contrast agent radiolucent or radiopaque?

Answer 360

Radiopaque

Question 361

What are the two contrast agents used in a double-contrast radiographic study of the gastrointestinal system?

Answer 361

Barium and air

Question 362

Which positive contrast agent is contraindicated when a patient has a suspected bowel obstruction?

Answer 362

Barium

Question 363

What element is in contrast media used in radiology that is injected intravenously?

Answer 363

Iodine

Question 364

What is the technologist’s response to swelling around an IV site in addition to calling for a nurse?

Answer 364

Clamp off the IV and apply warm compress to the site

Question 365

What is administration of a drug by penetrating the skin?

Answer 365

Parenterally

Question 366

How far above the vein should the solution for an IV infusion be kept?

Answer 366

18 to 20 inches

Question 367

What is the usual flow rate for an adult’s IV?

Answer 367

20 drops per minute

Question 368

What is it called when solution is leaking into the tissues?

Answer 368

Infiltration

Question 369

Is nitroglycerin a vasodilator or vasoconstrictor?

Answer 369

Vasodilator

Question 370

Where is the basilic vein located that is commonly used as the injection site for intravenous urography (IVU) or intravenous pyelography (IVP) studies?

Answer 370

Antecubital space

Question 371

In what group of drugs is penicillin found?

Answer 371

Antibiotics

Question 372

In what group of drugs is Dilantin found?

Answer 372

Antiepileptics

Question 373

In what group of drugs is epinephrine found?

Answer 373

Bronchodilators

Question 374

In what group of drugs is heparin found?

Answer 374

Anticoagulants

Question 375

In what group of drugs is Demerol found?

Answer 375

Analgesics

Question 376

What is the most common use for Aminophylline?

Answer 376

Asthma

Question 377

What is the most common use for Digoxin?

Answer 377

Heart failure

Question 378

How is nitroglycerin administered?

Answer 378

Sublingually

Question 379

In what group of drugs is Benadryl found?

Answer 379

Antihistamines

Question 380

What is one of the primary steps to take before administering drugs by IV?

Answer 380

Check patient identification

Question 381

What is the escape of fluid from a vessel into the surrounding tissue?

Answer 381

Extravasation

Question 382

What is an injection of a large amount of a pharmaceutical preparation?

Answer 382

Bolus

Question 383

What is generally considered to be a low flow rate for a drip IV infusion?

Answer 383

10 to 20 drops/minute

Question 384

What is the appearance of a negative contrast agent on a finished radiographic image?

Answer 384

A greater density than the surrounding tissue

Question 385

What type of positive contrast agent does not dissolve into charged particles?

Answer 385

Non-ionic water-soluble iodinated contrast media

Question 386

What does a high osmolality for water soluble iodinated contrast media mean in terms of adverse reactions?

Answer 386

has more particles in solution and increased adverse reactions

Question 387

What is considered to be the reason allergic reactions to water soluble iodinated contrast media occur?

Answer 387

The release of histamine by the cells of the body

Question 388

What is the term for the number of particles in solution per kilogram of water?

Answer 388

Osmolality

Question 389

What must be included on the chart about drugs administered?

Answer 389

Time of day, drug name, dose, and route of administration

Question 390

What are some of the more common patient factors to be considered before administering contrast media?

Answer 390

The history or presence of renal disease, presence of hypertension, age

Question 391

What is the greatest disadvantage of oil based iodinated contrast media?

Answer 391

It is not water soluble so the body does not absorb it

Question 392

What is the degree of angle for administering IM injections?

Answer 392

90 degrees

Question 393

What does the abbreviation hs mean?

Answer 393

At bedtime

Question 394

What does the abbreviation prn mean?

Answer 394

As necessary

Question 395

What does the abbreviation qd mean?

Answer 395

Every day

Question 396

What assessments must the radiographer make for the site of an intravenous infusion while it is in place?

Answer 396

Coldness and swelling

Question 397

What are the primary parenteral routes of drug administration?

Answer 397

Subcutaneous, intramuscular, intradermal, intravenous

Question 398

What is are enteral routes of drug administration?

Answer 398

Oral,
sublingual,
buccal,
rectal

Question 399

What are the five rights of drug administration?

Answer 399

PDART-
The right patient (P), 
the right drug (D), 
the right amount or dose (A),
 the right route (R), 
the right time (T)

Question 400

What is hypotension?

Answer 400

Low blood pressure

Question 401

What is dyspnea?

Answer 401

Shortness of breath (SOB)

Question 402

What happens with many drugs that when combined with another drug can become inactivated or form a toxic compound or when two drugs are combined they increase the effect of each drug when given alone? An example of this is when a dose of heparin given with alcohol increases bleeding.

Answer 402

An additive reaction

Question 403

After administration of iodinated contrast media, how are itching and difficulty breathing classified?

Answer 403

Adverse reactions

Question 404

What determines the rate and extent of distribution of a drug to its intended site of action after it is absorbed into the body?

Answer 404

Adequate blood circulation

Question 405

What are the actions of a drug on living tissues in the body?

Answer 405

Pharmacokinetics

Question 406

Which drugs bear the legend “Caution: Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription?

Answer 406

Those administered parenterally

Question 407

What must the professional administering drugs know about the drug?

Answer 407

Potential side effects and adverse reactions to the drug

Question 408

What is a venous device used for intravenous injections at frequent or regular intervals?

Answer 408

Heparin lock

Question 409

What vasopressor drug is generally used for cardiac arrest or anaphylactic reactions?

Answer 409

Epinephrine

Question 410

What drug is generally used to treat dysrhythmias?

Answer 410

Lidocaine

Question 411

How does the gauge relate to the diameter of the needle?

Answer 411

The greater the gauge, the smaller the diameter

Question 412

What are primary advantages of using non ionic water soluble contrast media?

Answer 412

Low toxicity and fewer adverse reactions

Question 413

What is a primary disadvantage to using non ionic water soluble contrast media?

Answer 413

High cost

Question 414

What is a quantity of medication introduced over a period of time?

Answer 414

An infusion

Question 415

What is considered a normal range for blood urea nitrogen (BUN)?

Answer 415

8 to 25 mg/100 ml

Question 416

What is used to relieve pain from angina pectoris?

Answer 416

Nitroglycerin

Question 417

the extent to which a fluid resists a tendency to flow

Answer 417

Viscosity

Question 418

What is the usual needle angle recommended for intravenous injections?

Answer 418

15 degrees

Question 419

How is the best venipuncture site chosen?

Answer 419

The most distal site in which the desired size needle can be used and the amount to be administered

Question 420

How should an IV for contrast media administration be discontinued?

Answer 420

Place gauze over injection site; quickly, smoothly, and gently remove the cannula from the vein, elevate extremity and apply pressure until all bleeding stops

Question 421

What is the radiographic study that is still performed and oil based iodinated contrast is still used

Answer 421

Sialograms

Question 422

what does ionic mean?

Answer 422

meaning they come apart in the bloodstream and fuse with other things