Chapt 6, 10, 9, 13 Flashcards
1
Q
What is the preferable site for taking a pulse?
A
Radial
2
Q
Which vital signs assessment is being performed when the patient is seated or lying supine, the chest is observed for movement symmetry, and skin color is noted?
A
Respiration
3
Q
A consistent diastolic reading greater than 90 mm Hg may be an indication for what condition?
A
Hypertension
4
Q
How does medically induced hypothermia affect the body’s need for oxygen?
A
It is decreased
5
Q
What is the highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricle?
A
Systole (systolic blood pressure)
6
Q
Why must oxygen use be ordered by a physician?
A
It may be toxic
7
Q
What is the normal oral body temperature for an adult?
A
98.6oF
8
Q
What is an abnfor adultsormally rapid heart rate over 100 beats per minute?
A
Tachycardia
9
Q
Which pulse site requires the proper use of a stethoscope?
A
Apical pulse
10
Q
Which device is used to measure the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen?
A
Pulse oximetry
11
Q
Why must sparks and flames be prevented when oxygen is in use?
A
Oxygen is combustible
12
Q
What is considered to be the most reliable and accurate site for taking a temperature?
A
Rectally, even though this method I usually only for infants and children
13
Q
What forms of taking a temperature are considered to be convenient, but unreliable?
A
Temperature sensitive patches on the abdomen or forehead
14
Q
Usually, if a patient’s pulse is rapid, then the blood pressure is ___.
A
Low
15
Q
Is the pulse rate for an infant faster or slower than that for an adult?
A
Much faster, approximately 115-130 beats per minute for infants and 70-80 beats per minute for adults
16
Q
What is the usual rectal temperature for an adult?
A
99.6oF
17
Q
A consistent systolic reading greater than 140 may be an indication for what condition?
A
Hypertension
18
Q
When writing blood pressure readings, which reading is the number on the top?
A
Systolic blood pressure (the contraction phase of the heart muscle)
19
Q
When writing blood pressure readings, which reading is the number on the bottom?
A
Diastolic blood pressure (the relaxation phase of the heart muscle)
20
Q
What is the normal average rate of respiration for an adult?
A
12-20 breaths per minute
21
Q
What vital sign is being prepared for when one gathers together a stethoscope, sphygmomanometer, and watch with a second hand?
A
Blood pressure
22
Q
What is the normal range of diastolic blood pressure for an adult?
A
60-90 mm Hg
23
Q
What are the units of measurement for blood pressure?
A
Mm Hg (millimeters of mercury)
24
Q
When taking a pulse, which blood vessels are best suited?
A
Superficial arteries
25
What do the symptoms retraction of the intercostal spaces, cyanosis, and dyspnea indicate?
Inadequate oxygen supply
26
What is the condition that is a metabolic disease resulting from a chronic disorder of carbohydrate metabolism?
Diabetes mellitus
27
Why is anaphylactic shock the type of shock most often seen in the diagnostic imaging department?
Water soluble iodinated contrast media is used for many of the imaging procedures
28
What is the medical term for fainting?
Syncope
29
What are the mild systemic reactions associated with the use of contrast agents?
Nasal congestion; periorbital swelling; itching; sneezing; tearing of eyes; peripheral tingling or itching at the site of injection; itching of palms or soles of feet; feeling of fullness or tightness of the chest, mouth, or throat; feeling of anxiety or nervousness
30
What is an abnormally high amount of glucose in the blood called?
Hyperglycemia
31
What is the term that means a heart rate of greater than 100 beats per minute?
Tachycardia
32
What is the result of an exaggerated hypersensitivity reaction?
Anaphylactic shock
33
What is an occlusion of one or more pulmonary arteries by a thrombus or thrombi?
Pulmonary embolus
34
What causes can be associated with pulmonary embolus?
Usually deep vein thrombus associated with trauma, orthopedic and surgical procedures, pregnancy, congestive heart failure, prolonged immobility, hypercoagulable states
35
What is a group of metabolic diseases resulting from a chronic disorder of carbohydrate metabolism?
diabetes mellitus
36
Which type of diabetes mellitus usually occurs in persons younger than 30 years of age, has an abrupt onset, and results from the body failing to produce insulin and the affected person must receive insulin by injection to control blood glucose levels in the body and prevent ketoacidosis?
Type I diabetes mellitus
37
What are the moderate systemic reactions of anaphylactic shock?
All mild systemic reactions plus flushing, feeling of warmth, itching, urticaria (hives), bronchospasm and edema of the airways or larynx, dyspnea, cough, hoarseness, and wheezing
38
What is the body’s pathologic reaction to illness, trauma, or severe physiologic or emotional stress?
Shock
39
Cold and clammy skin, pallor, nausea and dizziness, increased respirations from shortness of breath, anxiety level increases and possible uncooperativeness, blood pressure decrease, and pulse rate increase are indications of what disorder?
shock
40
Where might skin discoloration associated with cyanosis be observed?
Earlobes and gums
41
Which condition is associated with the pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the heart?
Angina pectoris
42
Which position should a patient experiencing fainting be placed in?
Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated (Trendelenburg)
43
Sweet smelling breath, increased urination, and extreme thirst are associated with what diabetic condition?
Impending coma
44
Which type of shock is often associated with pulmonary embolism?
Cardiogenic shock
45
What life saving technique is used for choking?
Heimlich maneuver
46
Which type of shock is often associated with myocardial infarction?
Cardiogenic shock
47
Severe hemorrhaging from an injury requires which type of immediate emergency response?
Call for assistance from the ER and apply pressure to the site of the bleeding
48
If a patient is placed on the x-ray table in the Trendelenburg patient because s/he feels faint should the patient be left alone to call for help?
Do not leave on the table unattended
49
What medication is essential for a patient in a diabetic coma?
Insulin
50
What does a patient need if s/he has taken insulin but not eaten and becomes weak?
Something with sugar
51
A defibrillator is the mechanical device used to correct what condition?
Ineffectual cardiac rhythm
52
What is the term associated with difficulty of swallowing?
Dysphagia
53
In performance of CPR for infants, how do the number of chest compressions for infants compare to those for adults?
They are the same
54
What condition is cerebral vascular accident (CVA) associated with?
Stroke
55
What is the term for the most severe form of seizure?
Grand mal
56
What is the term for a less severe form of seizure?
Petit mal
57
When will brain damage begin to occur from a lack of oxygen?
4-5 minutes
58
What type of shock is associated with a loss of body fluids or blood?
Hypovolemic shock
59
What can be the result of a patient taking his/her regular dose of insulin when having food and water restricted for a radiologic procedure?
Insulin shock
60
What is a radiographer’s first response to a patient having a seizure in the diagnostic imaging department?
Prevent injury to the patient
61
What is the first response for a radiographer caring for a patient who feels dizzy or faint?
Have patient lie down
62
What is another term for a myocardial infarction (MI)?
Heart attack
63
What can insufficient blood supply to the brain from heart disease, hunger, poor ventilation, extreme fatigue, and emotional trauma cause?
Syncope
64
What immediate treatment can be given to a patient in insulin shock that is still conscious?
Something with sugar
65
What type of shock is associated with a failure of the heart to pOpen fracturesump enough blood to the vital organs?
Cardiogenic shock
66
What is the first immediate response for a severe laceration of the skull that is bleeding profusely?
Direct application of pressure to the wound
67
When a mobile radiograph of the seven cervical vertebrae is performed in the lateral projection for a trauma patient how many of the cervical vertebrae must be included on the image?
All 7
68
Which diagnostic image is quite often performed as a routine oder for trauma patients?
Chest because it provides so much information
69
What are some of the types of conditions usually considered to be the cause of traumatic injury?
Choking, falling, drowning, vehicle accidents, assaults, sports injuries
70
When performing trauma radiography of the bones, a minimum of two images is required with the images at what angle to each other?
90 degrees
71
What type of fracture has the bone fragments exposed?
Open fractures
72
What type of force results in traumatic injury?
External
73
When performing mobile diagnostic imaging for traumatic injuries, various equipment is required, but at a minimum what are some usual equipment needs?
IR, grid, radiation detection monitor for radiographers, lead aprons, R and L markers
74
What is a CVP?
Central venous pressure
75
Where should a CVP line be inserted?
Subclavian vein
76
What should be placed in the chest cavity to evacuate fluid from the pleural cavity?
Chest tube
77
What is the term describing air in the pleural cavity?
Pneumothorax
78
What is the term describing the presence of blood in the pleural cavity?
Hemothorax
79
When involved with traumatic injuries that have the possibility of blood and body fluids spraying the face, in addition to the exam gloves needed for contact, what other PPE will be needed?
Mask
80
All patients with head injuries should always be considered to have what other type of injury until radiography rules it out?
Cervical spine
81
When head and cervical spine injuries are to be treated for a trauma patient, what type of fracture must be ruled out before a patient may be allowed to move without immobilization?
Cervical spine, always at least a cross table lateral
82
When moving a patient with an injury to an extremity how should the part be supported?
The entire limb and both joints above and below the fracture site
83
Trauma is the leading cause of death for what age group?
Groups under 44 years of age
84
What types of lines may be demonstrated by mobile chest images to verify proper placement?
PICC, Hickman, and CVP lines (catheters)
85
Which life threatening conditions may be suspected when performing acute abdominal radiography?
Blunt or penetrating trauma, appendicitis, bleeding ulcers, ectopic pregnancy, cholecystitis, pancreatitis, and bowel obstruction
86
When may trauma patients with suspected cervical spine fracture have the cervical collar removed?
When the patient’s primary physician or the physician in charge has viewed and cleared the cervical spine radiographic image
87
What is the most common type of mechanical ventilator used in hospitals?
Positive pressure ventilator
88
How is total parenteral nutrition (TPN) delivered to the patient?
Central venous route
89
Who should be called to perform emergency suctioning if profuse vomiting occurs in a patient who cannot voluntarily change position, if audible rattling or gurgling sounds coming form the patient’s throat, or if signs of respiratory distress occur?
The physician or RN
90
What might be the result of an endotracheal tube being placed too high in the trachea?
Air may enter the stomach
91
What might be the result of an endotracheal tube being placed too low in the trachea?
The tube may enter the right main bronchus which would result in the collapse of the the left lung
92
How is the proper position of an endotracheal tube confirmed?
Chest x-ray
93
What is the correct placement of an endotracheal tube?
5 to 7 cm above the tracheal bifurcation (carina)
94
What is an opening into the windpipe called?
Tracheostomy
95
What are some of the uses for central venous catheters?
Parenteral nutrition, frequent blood transfusions, hyperosmolar solutions, and long term medication administration
96
What are some of the more common types of nasogastric tubes?
Levin, Sump, Nutriflex, Moss, and Sengstaken-Blakemore
97
What is the purpose of nasogastric tubes?
Administration of medications and feeding
98
whatich are essential parts of the initial assessment of a patient who is in the diagnostic imaging department for an invasive procedure?
```
taking vitals:
blood pressure
pulse
respiration rate
temp
```
99
systolic blood pressure can be defined as:
highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricle
100
what range of breaths per minsute is the normal adult respiratory rate?
15-20
101
an adult patient is considered to be hypertensive or to have hypertension if the systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure are consistently greater than:
140 systolic and 90diastolic
102
a patient may be considered to have tachycardia if the pulse rate is higher than:
over 100 beats/min
103
which of the following items must be in the diagnostic imaging dept and in working order?
oxygen delivery system
| blood pressure monitoring equipment
104
name 2 of the most commonly used oxygen delivery systems
nasal cannula
| face mask
105
measures apical pulse
stethoscope
106
measures body temp
clinical thermometer
107
point where the blood pressure is most often measured
brachial artery
108
measures blood pressure
sphygmomanometer
109
point where the pulse is most often measured
radial artery
110
Has a total of 15 points and gives points based on eyes open, motor response and verbal response:
Glasgow Coma Scale
111
insufficient insulin (type 1) causes the liver to produce more glucose (results in hyperglycemia) and the kidneys attempt to compensate by excreting glucose with water and electrolytes. Excessive urination and dehydration
Ketoacidosis
112
True or False:
| Never attempt chest compressions on a patient whose heart is beating.
TRUE
113
True or False:
| Attempting to do abdominal or chest thrust on a patient whose airway is not obstructed is ok.
FASE:
| Never do it b/c you can cause serious injury to the patient's diaphragm and lungs
114
What is a seizure?
unsystematic discharge of neurons of the cerebrum that results in an abrupt alteration in brain function
115
general signs and symptoms that the RT must learn to recognize as probable indicators that the patient is in shock include:
strong, irregular pulse
respiration increased (shortness of breath)
skin is cold and clammy
mental status changes and could end up in coma
rapid heartbeat
116
symptoms of partially obstructed airway may include:
labored noisy breathing, wheezing, use of neck muscles to assist with breathing
117
16 year old comes to DI ofr a CT scan. He is lying on table in supine position. He suddenly seems to lose consciousness and begins to move violently with jerking motions. You realize that he is having a generalized seizure. What is the most appropriate action to do?
call for help and make sure patient does not injure himself
118
16 year old comes to DI ofr a CT scan. He is lying on table in supine position. He suddenly seems to lose consciousness and begins to move violently with jerking motions. You realize that he is having a generalized seizure. What is the LEAST appropriate action to do?
Place patient on floor and begin CPR
119
Mrs. Glucose, age 35, had an open reduction of her left femur 3 days earlier and has been trasnported to the DI dept by gurney from her hospital room for radiographs. As you prepare her for it she suddenly begins to complain of pain in her midchest and appears to be out of breath. You stop and take her pulse/BP. You find out that her BP is 120/80 and her raidal pulse is 120/min and is very difficult to palpate b/c it is so weak and thready. You quickly notificy the physician and he directs you to call the emergency team (but not a Code Blue) You do this and make other emergency preperations.. You believe this may be:
pulmonary embolus
120
Fainting is a common medical emergency in the DI dept. If a patient appears to be fainting, what is the first thing to do?
assist the patient to a safe position and then call for help
121
difficult speech, severe headache, on sided, drooping eye and face, loss of consciousness
CVA aka stroke
122
choking, inability to speak, eventual loss of consciousness
airway obstruction
123
itching of eyes, apprehensiveness, wheezing, choking
anaphylactic shock
124
loss of consciousness, decreased blood pressure, weak, rapid pulse
hypovolemic shock
125
pallor; slow irregular pulse, cool, clammy skin, restlessness
cardiogenic shock
126
when called to the emergency room, supplies needed may include:
ALL:
| gloves, mask, protective gown, goggles
127
This tube is inserted through the nasopharynx into the stomach, the duodenum, or the jejunum
Contains a radiopaque tip to allow its visualization on images and fluoroscopy
NG tube
128
purpose of NG tube:
To keep the stomach free of gastric contents and air
For healing purposes before or after surgery
For diagnostic examinations
Administration of medications, feedings, treat intestinal obstruction, and control bleeding
129
Most Commonly Seen NG Tubes
levin
| sump
130
This tube passes into the duodenum and small intestine by means of peristalsis
Made up of the same material as NG tubes
Decompress the intestine
NE tube
131
True or false?
| Radiographers are not responsible for inserting or removing NG or NE tubes
true
132
_____ is an opening into the stomach, usually through the abdominal wall
Gastrostomy tube
133
Items Necessary for Suctioning
A wall outlet or a working portable suction machine
Adapters for wall outlets
Clean gloves
Tubing
134
A tracheostomy is an opening into the trachea through the neck, created surgically to relieve _____distress caused by an obstruction.
respiratory
135
what ventilator is seen most often in the home
negative pressure
136
This is a tube inserted through the mouth into the trachea as a means of establishing or opening an airway on patients
Endotracheal Tubes
137
Fluid build up in the pleural cavity
Pleural Effusion
138
The trauma patient presents a wide variety of challenges for the radiographer:
Patient’s condition
Technical factors
Critical thinking
Quality images
139
true or false?
| remove pneumatic anti-shock garments.
false, NEVER remove
140
what does Fx stand for?
fracture
141
what is a crash cart?
A cart that contains medications and equipment that are needed when a patient’s condition suddenly becomes critical.
Every department has one or more.
KNOW where they are located
142
Abnormally low blood pressure occurring when a person stands up before the blood in the extremities has time to circulate to the upper body.
Orthostatic hypotension
143
what is another name for fever?
pyrexia
144
how many location to measure a pulse?
9
145
where is radial?
at the wrist at the base of the thumb
146
where is Carotid
neck
147
where is temporal?
front of ear
148
where is brachial?
groove of elbow
149
Most Common Locations for Pulse
radial
| carotid
150
When a patient is using more than the normal effort to breathe
dyspnea
