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Patient Care > Chapt 6, 10, 9, 13 > Flashcards

Chapt 6, 10, 9, 13 Flashcards

1
Q

What is the preferable site for taking a pulse?

A

Radial

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2
Q

Which vital signs assessment is being performed when the patient is seated or lying supine, the chest is observed for movement symmetry, and skin color is noted?

A

Respiration

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3
Q

A consistent diastolic reading greater than 90 mm Hg may be an indication for what condition?

A

Hypertension

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4
Q

How does medically induced hypothermia affect the body’s need for oxygen?

A

It is decreased

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5
Q

What is the highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricle?

A

Systole (systolic blood pressure)

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6
Q

Why must oxygen use be ordered by a physician?

A

It may be toxic

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7
Q

What is the normal oral body temperature for an adult?

A

98.6oF

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8
Q

What is an abnfor adultsormally rapid heart rate over 100 beats per minute?

A

Tachycardia

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9
Q

Which pulse site requires the proper use of a stethoscope?

A

Apical pulse

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10
Q

Which device is used to measure the saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen?

A

Pulse oximetry

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11
Q

Why must sparks and flames be prevented when oxygen is in use?

A

Oxygen is combustible

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12
Q

What is considered to be the most reliable and accurate site for taking a temperature?

A

Rectally, even though this method I usually only for infants and children

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13
Q

What forms of taking a temperature are considered to be convenient, but unreliable?

A

Temperature sensitive patches on the abdomen or forehead

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14
Q

Usually, if a patient’s pulse is rapid, then the blood pressure is ___.

A

Low

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15
Q

Is the pulse rate for an infant faster or slower than that for an adult?

A

Much faster, approximately 115-130 beats per minute for infants and 70-80 beats per minute for adults

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16
Q

What is the usual rectal temperature for an adult?

A

99.6oF

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17
Q

A consistent systolic reading greater than 140 may be an indication for what condition?

A

Hypertension

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18
Q

When writing blood pressure readings, which reading is the number on the top?

A

Systolic blood pressure (the contraction phase of the heart muscle)

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19
Q

When writing blood pressure readings, which reading is the number on the bottom?

A

Diastolic blood pressure (the relaxation phase of the heart muscle)

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20
Q

What is the normal average rate of respiration for an adult?

A

12-20 breaths per minute

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21
Q

What vital sign is being prepared for when one gathers together a stethoscope, sphygmomanometer, and watch with a second hand?

A

Blood pressure

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22
Q

What is the normal range of diastolic blood pressure for an adult?

A

60-90 mm Hg

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23
Q

What are the units of measurement for blood pressure?

A

Mm Hg (millimeters of mercury)

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24
Q

When taking a pulse, which blood vessels are best suited?

A

Superficial arteries

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25
Q

What do the symptoms retraction of the intercostal spaces, cyanosis, and dyspnea indicate?

A

Inadequate oxygen supply

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26
Q

What is the condition that is a metabolic disease resulting from a chronic disorder of carbohydrate metabolism?

A

Diabetes mellitus

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27
Q

Why is anaphylactic shock the type of shock most often seen in the diagnostic imaging department?

A

Water soluble iodinated contrast media is used for many of the imaging procedures

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28
Q

What is the medical term for fainting?

A

Syncope

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29
Q

What are the mild systemic reactions associated with the use of contrast agents?

A

Nasal congestion; periorbital swelling; itching; sneezing; tearing of eyes; peripheral tingling or itching at the site of injection; itching of palms or soles of feet; feeling of fullness or tightness of the chest, mouth, or throat; feeling of anxiety or nervousness

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30
Q

What is an abnormally high amount of glucose in the blood called?

A

Hyperglycemia

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31
Q

What is the term that means a heart rate of greater than 100 beats per minute?

A

Tachycardia

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32
Q

What is the result of an exaggerated hypersensitivity reaction?

A

Anaphylactic shock

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33
Q

What is an occlusion of one or more pulmonary arteries by a thrombus or thrombi?

A

Pulmonary embolus

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34
Q

What causes can be associated with pulmonary embolus?

A

Usually deep vein thrombus associated with trauma, orthopedic and surgical procedures, pregnancy, congestive heart failure, prolonged immobility, hypercoagulable states

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35
Q

What is a group of metabolic diseases resulting from a chronic disorder of carbohydrate metabolism?

A

diabetes mellitus

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36
Q

Which type of diabetes mellitus usually occurs in persons younger than 30 years of age, has an abrupt onset, and results from the body failing to produce insulin and the affected person must receive insulin by injection to control blood glucose levels in the body and prevent ketoacidosis?

A

Type I diabetes mellitus

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37
Q

What are the moderate systemic reactions of anaphylactic shock?

A

All mild systemic reactions plus flushing, feeling of warmth, itching, urticaria (hives), bronchospasm and edema of the airways or larynx, dyspnea, cough, hoarseness, and wheezing

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38
Q

What is the body’s pathologic reaction to illness, trauma, or severe physiologic or emotional stress?

A

Shock

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39
Q

Cold and clammy skin, pallor, nausea and dizziness, increased respirations from shortness of breath, anxiety level increases and possible uncooperativeness, blood pressure decrease, and pulse rate increase are indications of what disorder?

A

shock

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40
Q

Where might skin discoloration associated with cyanosis be observed?

A

Earlobes and gums

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41
Q

Which condition is associated with the pain experienced by an individual whose coronary arteries are not conveying sufficient blood to the heart?

A

Angina pectoris

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42
Q

Which position should a patient experiencing fainting be placed in?

A

Dorsal recumbent with feet elevated (Trendelenburg)

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43
Q

Sweet smelling breath, increased urination, and extreme thirst are associated with what diabetic condition?

A

Impending coma

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44
Q

Which type of shock is often associated with pulmonary embolism?

A

Cardiogenic shock

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45
Q

What life saving technique is used for choking?

A

Heimlich maneuver

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46
Q

Which type of shock is often associated with myocardial infarction?

A

Cardiogenic shock

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47
Q

Severe hemorrhaging from an injury requires which type of immediate emergency response?

A

Call for assistance from the ER and apply pressure to the site of the bleeding

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48
Q

If a patient is placed on the x-ray table in the Trendelenburg patient because s/he feels faint should the patient be left alone to call for help?

A

Do not leave on the table unattended

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49
Q

What medication is essential for a patient in a diabetic coma?

A

Insulin

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50
Q

What does a patient need if s/he has taken insulin but not eaten and becomes weak?

A

Something with sugar

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51
Q

A defibrillator is the mechanical device used to correct what condition?

A

Ineffectual cardiac rhythm

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52
Q

What is the term associated with difficulty of swallowing?

A

Dysphagia

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53
Q

In performance of CPR for infants, how do the number of chest compressions for infants compare to those for adults?

A

They are the same

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54
Q

What condition is cerebral vascular accident (CVA) associated with?

A

Stroke

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55
Q

What is the term for the most severe form of seizure?

A

Grand mal

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56
Q

What is the term for a less severe form of seizure?

A

Petit mal

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57
Q

When will brain damage begin to occur from a lack of oxygen?

A

4-5 minutes

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58
Q

What type of shock is associated with a loss of body fluids or blood?

A

Hypovolemic shock

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59
Q

What can be the result of a patient taking his/her regular dose of insulin when having food and water restricted for a radiologic procedure?

A

Insulin shock

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60
Q

What is a radiographer’s first response to a patient having a seizure in the diagnostic imaging department?

A

Prevent injury to the patient

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61
Q

What is the first response for a radiographer caring for a patient who feels dizzy or faint?

A

Have patient lie down

62
Q

What is another term for a myocardial infarction (MI)?

A

Heart attack

63
Q

What can insufficient blood supply to the brain from heart disease, hunger, poor ventilation, extreme fatigue, and emotional trauma cause?

A

Syncope

64
Q

What immediate treatment can be given to a patient in insulin shock that is still conscious?

A

Something with sugar

65
Q

What type of shock is associated with a failure of the heart to pOpen fracturesump enough blood to the vital organs?

A

Cardiogenic shock

66
Q

What is the first immediate response for a severe laceration of the skull that is bleeding profusely?

A

Direct application of pressure to the wound

67
Q

When a mobile radiograph of the seven cervical vertebrae is performed in the lateral projection for a trauma patient how many of the cervical vertebrae must be included on the image?

A

All 7

68
Q

Which diagnostic image is quite often performed as a routine oder for trauma patients?

A

Chest because it provides so much information

69
Q

What are some of the types of conditions usually considered to be the cause of traumatic injury?

A

Choking, falling, drowning, vehicle accidents, assaults, sports injuries

70
Q

When performing trauma radiography of the bones, a minimum of two images is required with the images at what angle to each other?

A

90 degrees

71
Q

What type of fracture has the bone fragments exposed?

A

Open fractures

72
Q

What type of force results in traumatic injury?

A

External

73
Q

When performing mobile diagnostic imaging for traumatic injuries, various equipment is required, but at a minimum what are some usual equipment needs?

A

IR, grid, radiation detection monitor for radiographers, lead aprons, R and L markers

74
Q

What is a CVP?

A

Central venous pressure

75
Q

Where should a CVP line be inserted?

A

Subclavian vein

76
Q

What should be placed in the chest cavity to evacuate fluid from the pleural cavity?

A

Chest tube

77
Q

What is the term describing air in the pleural cavity?

A

Pneumothorax

78
Q

What is the term describing the presence of blood in the pleural cavity?

A

Hemothorax

79
Q

When involved with traumatic injuries that have the possibility of blood and body fluids spraying the face, in addition to the exam gloves needed for contact, what other PPE will be needed?

A

Mask

80
Q

All patients with head injuries should always be considered to have what other type of injury until radiography rules it out?

A

Cervical spine

81
Q

When head and cervical spine injuries are to be treated for a trauma patient, what type of fracture must be ruled out before a patient may be allowed to move without immobilization?

A

Cervical spine, always at least a cross table lateral

82
Q

When moving a patient with an injury to an extremity how should the part be supported?

A

The entire limb and both joints above and below the fracture site

83
Q

Trauma is the leading cause of death for what age group?

A

Groups under 44 years of age

84
Q

What types of lines may be demonstrated by mobile chest images to verify proper placement?

A

PICC, Hickman, and CVP lines (catheters)

85
Q

Which life threatening conditions may be suspected when performing acute abdominal radiography?

A

Blunt or penetrating trauma, appendicitis, bleeding ulcers, ectopic pregnancy, cholecystitis, pancreatitis, and bowel obstruction

86
Q

When may trauma patients with suspected cervical spine fracture have the cervical collar removed?

A

When the patient’s primary physician or the physician in charge has viewed and cleared the cervical spine radiographic image

87
Q

What is the most common type of mechanical ventilator used in hospitals?

A

Positive pressure ventilator

88
Q

How is total parenteral nutrition (TPN) delivered to the patient?

A

Central venous route

89
Q

Who should be called to perform emergency suctioning if profuse vomiting occurs in a patient who cannot voluntarily change position, if audible rattling or gurgling sounds coming form the patient’s throat, or if signs of respiratory distress occur?

A

The physician or RN

90
Q

What might be the result of an endotracheal tube being placed too high in the trachea?

A

Air may enter the stomach

91
Q

What might be the result of an endotracheal tube being placed too low in the trachea?

A

The tube may enter the right main bronchus which would result in the collapse of the the left lung

92
Q

How is the proper position of an endotracheal tube confirmed?

A

Chest x-ray

93
Q

What is the correct placement of an endotracheal tube?

A

5 to 7 cm above the tracheal bifurcation (carina)

94
Q

What is an opening into the windpipe called?

A

Tracheostomy

95
Q

What are some of the uses for central venous catheters?

A

Parenteral nutrition, frequent blood transfusions, hyperosmolar solutions, and long term medication administration

96
Q

What are some of the more common types of nasogastric tubes?

A

Levin, Sump, Nutriflex, Moss, and Sengstaken-Blakemore

97
Q

What is the purpose of nasogastric tubes?

A

Administration of medications and feeding

98
Q

whatich are essential parts of the initial assessment of a patient who is in the diagnostic imaging department for an invasive procedure?

A 
taking vitals: 
blood pressure
pulse
respiration rate
temp
99
Q

systolic blood pressure can be defined as:

A

highest point reached during contraction of the left ventricle

100
Q

what range of breaths per minsute is the normal adult respiratory rate?

A

15-20

101
Q

an adult patient is considered to be hypertensive or to have hypertension if the systolic blood pressure and diastolic blood pressure are consistently greater than:

A

140 systolic and 90diastolic

102
Q

a patient may be considered to have tachycardia if the pulse rate is higher than:

A

over 100 beats/min

103
Q

which of the following items must be in the diagnostic imaging dept and in working order?

A

oxygen delivery system

blood pressure monitoring equipment

104
Q

name 2 of the most commonly used oxygen delivery systems

A

nasal cannula

face mask

105
Q

measures apical pulse

A

stethoscope

106
Q

measures body temp

A

clinical thermometer

107
Q

point where the blood pressure is most often measured

A

brachial artery

108
Q

measures blood pressure

A

sphygmomanometer

109
Q

point where the pulse is most often measured

A

radial artery

110
Q

Has a total of 15 points and gives points based on eyes open, motor response and verbal response:

A

Glasgow Coma Scale

111
Q

insufficient insulin (type 1) causes the liver to produce more glucose (results in hyperglycemia) and the kidneys attempt to compensate by excreting glucose with water and electrolytes. Excessive urination and dehydration

A

Ketoacidosis

112
Q

True or False:

Never attempt chest compressions on a patient whose heart is beating.

A

TRUE

113
Q

True or False:

Attempting to do abdominal or chest thrust on a patient whose airway is not obstructed is ok.

A

FASE:

Never do it b/c you can cause serious injury to the patient’s diaphragm and lungs

114
Q

What is a seizure?

A

unsystematic discharge of neurons of the cerebrum that results in an abrupt alteration in brain function

115
Q

general signs and symptoms that the RT must learn to recognize as probable indicators that the patient is in shock include:

A

strong, irregular pulse
respiration increased (shortness of breath)
skin is cold and clammy
mental status changes and could end up in coma
rapid heartbeat

116
Q

symptoms of partially obstructed airway may include:

A

labored noisy breathing, wheezing, use of neck muscles to assist with breathing

117
Q

16 year old comes to DI ofr a CT scan. He is lying on table in supine position. He suddenly seems to lose consciousness and begins to move violently with jerking motions. You realize that he is having a generalized seizure. What is the most appropriate action to do?

A

call for help and make sure patient does not injure himself

118
Q

16 year old comes to DI ofr a CT scan. He is lying on table in supine position. He suddenly seems to lose consciousness and begins to move violently with jerking motions. You realize that he is having a generalized seizure. What is the LEAST appropriate action to do?

A

Place patient on floor and begin CPR

119
Q

Mrs. Glucose, age 35, had an open reduction of her left femur 3 days earlier and has been trasnported to the DI dept by gurney from her hospital room for radiographs. As you prepare her for it she suddenly begins to complain of pain in her midchest and appears to be out of breath. You stop and take her pulse/BP. You find out that her BP is 120/80 and her raidal pulse is 120/min and is very difficult to palpate b/c it is so weak and thready. You quickly notificy the physician and he directs you to call the emergency team (but not a Code Blue) You do this and make other emergency preperations.. You believe this may be:

A

pulmonary embolus

120
Q

Fainting is a common medical emergency in the DI dept. If a patient appears to be fainting, what is the first thing to do?

A

assist the patient to a safe position and then call for help

121
Q

difficult speech, severe headache, on sided, drooping eye and face, loss of consciousness

A

CVA aka stroke

122
Q

choking, inability to speak, eventual loss of consciousness

A

airway obstruction

123
Q

itching of eyes, apprehensiveness, wheezing, choking

A

anaphylactic shock

124
Q

loss of consciousness, decreased blood pressure, weak, rapid pulse

A

hypovolemic shock

125
Q

pallor; slow irregular pulse, cool, clammy skin, restlessness

A

cardiogenic shock

126
Q

when called to the emergency room, supplies needed may include:

A

ALL:

gloves, mask, protective gown, goggles

127
Q

This tube is inserted through the nasopharynx into the stomach, the duodenum, or the jejunum
Contains a radiopaque tip to allow its visualization on images and fluoroscopy

A

NG tube

128
Q

purpose of NG tube:

A

To keep the stomach free of gastric contents and air
For healing purposes before or after surgery
For diagnostic examinations
Administration of medications, feedings, treat intestinal obstruction, and control bleeding

129
Q

Most Commonly Seen NG Tubes

A

levin

sump

130
Q

This tube passes into the duodenum and small intestine by means of peristalsis
Made up of the same material as NG tubes
Decompress the intestine

A

NE tube

131
Q

True or false?

Radiographers are not responsible for inserting or removing NG or NE tubes

A

true

132
Q

_____ is an opening into the stomach, usually through the abdominal wall

A

Gastrostomy tube

133
Q

Items Necessary for Suctioning

A

A wall outlet or a working portable suction machine
Adapters for wall outlets
Clean gloves
Tubing

134
Q

A tracheostomy is an opening into the trachea through the neck, created surgically to relieve _____distress caused by an obstruction.

A

respiratory

135
Q

what ventilator is seen most often in the home

A

negative pressure

136
Q

This is a tube inserted through the mouth into the trachea as a means of establishing or opening an airway on patients

A

Endotracheal Tubes

137
Q

Fluid build up in the pleural cavity

A

Pleural Effusion

138
Q

The trauma patient presents a wide variety of challenges for the radiographer:

A

Patient’s condition
Technical factors
Critical thinking
Quality images

139
Q

true or false?

remove pneumatic anti-shock garments.

A

false, NEVER remove

140
Q

what does Fx stand for?

A

fracture

141
Q

what is a crash cart?

A

A cart that contains medications and equipment that are needed when a patient’s condition suddenly becomes critical.
Every department has one or more.
KNOW where they are located

142
Q

Abnormally low blood pressure occurring when a person stands up before the blood in the extremities has time to circulate to the upper body.

A

Orthostatic hypotension

143
Q

what is another name for fever?

A

pyrexia

144
Q

how many location to measure a pulse?

A

9

145
Q

where is radial?

A

at the wrist at the base of the thumb

146
Q

where is Carotid

A

neck

147
Q

where is temporal?

A

front of ear

148
Q

where is brachial?

A

groove of elbow

149
Q

Most Common Locations for Pulse

A

radial

carotid

150
Q

When a patient is using more than the normal effort to breathe

A

dyspnea

Patient Care (7 decks)

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